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SBL > shit I dont know > Flashcards

shit I dont know Flashcards

1
Q

how does hepcidin work?

A

blocks ferroportin iron absorption in the GI tract (enterocytes).
-Capacity of hepcidin to block iron absorption can be overwhelmed if you take in TOO much Fe or if it is bypassed by Fe infusion

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2
Q

is there renal exertion of iron?

A

no

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3
Q

What can cause the elastin-rich eye to turn yellow

A

elastin

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4
Q

common in anemia due to decreased oxygen carrying capacity of blood causing elevated heart rate

A

angina

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5
Q

approximately half-saturated with oxygen at 2 torr, reason oxygen can be stripped from hemoglobin and stored in muscles

A

myoglobin

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6
Q

only actively regulated pharmacokinetic process to control the amount of iron in the body

A

absorption

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7
Q

nanoparticle used to treat iron deficiency, can infuse faster than colloidal iron

A

FERUMOXYTOL

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8
Q

among the choices for IV administration of iron due to malabsorption or intolerance of oral forms, administration bypasses hepcidin regulation

A

iron dextran

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9
Q

this and sustained-release formulations drastically reduces the bioavailability of orally administered iron

A

enteric coating

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10
Q

oral iron pill

A

ferrous sulfate

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11
Q

has been one of the leading causes of death by toxicological agents in children < 6 years old

A

iron overdose

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12
Q

iron chelator administered as therapy for potentially lethal iron poisoning

A

deferoximine

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13
Q

use of this for analgesia during surgery can cause rapid onset of vitamin B12 deficiency symptoms

A

nitrous oxide

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14
Q

potential characteristic of neurological pathology due to vitamin B12 deficiency

A

irreversible

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15
Q

often expected within a few days after initiating appropriate therapy for microcytic or macrocytic anemia; increases in hematocrit and hemoglobin follow shortly thereafter

A

reticulocytosis

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16
Q

visible GI tract consequences of folate deficiency

A

mouth ulcers

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17
Q

potentially especially vulnerable to cognitive decline cause by vitamin B12 deficiency that has been masked by the consumption of folate fortified foods

A

elderly

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18
Q

folate deficiency may cause this, but is not associated with the neurological problems caused by vitamin B12 deficiency

A

depression

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19
Q

prevents formation of complement membrane attack complex, treat paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria caused by insufficient GPI-linked CD59 and CD55 on the RBC cell surface that otherwise protects from this type of attack

A

eculizumab

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20
Q

atypical form of this is an indication for eculizumab

A

hemolytic uremic syndrome

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21
Q

recombinant erythropoiesis-stimulating glycoprotein with a.a. sequence identical to erythropoietin; administered to treat anemia secondary to chronic kidney disease or chemotherapy to reduce the need for allogeneic RBC transfusions

A

epoeitin alfa

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22
Q

this use of filgrastim is considered warranted if calculated risk for getting neutropenic fever > 20% or if its use permits timely administration of potentially curative chemotherap

A

prophylaxis

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23
Q

a recombinant granulocyte-colony stimulating factor, it increases growth and proliferation of
neutrophil progenitor cells and also facilitates actions of mature neutrophils (e.g., phagocytosis, respiratory burst)

A

filgastrim

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24
Q

for sargramostim, this includes fluid retention, dyspnea due to sequestration of granulocytes in pulmonary circulation, fatal “gasping syndrome” in premature infants

A

adverse effects

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25
Q

name means that polyethylene glycol was attached to filgrastim to prolong its half-life

A

pegfilgastrim

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26
Q

considered severe if absolute count of these cells is <500/microliter; low-grade fever, sore mouth, severe pain from swallowing, upper and lower airway inflammation and perianal pain and irritation are among its symptoms

A

neutropenia

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27
Q

recombinant GM-CSF, acts in the bone marrow to increase production of neutrophils, eosinophils and monocyte/macrophages (e.g., after a transplant)

A

sargamostrim

28
Q

partial agonist at CXCR4 receptors important for homing of hematopoietic stem cells, an expensive orphan drug administered when G-CSF or GM-CSF alone cannot mobilize enough stem cells for autologous transplant (10)

A

plerixafor

29
Q

life-threatening complication of chemotherapy; hypotension, COPD, dehydration and age >60 years are among the risk factors for underlying gram-negative (e.g. Pseudomonas), gram- positive (e.g., Staph. epidermidis) and/or fungal (e.g., Candid, Aspergillus) infections

A

neutropenic fever

30
Q

adverse effect of filgrastim, sargramostim and erythropoietin, makes sense given site of their effects

A

bone pain

31
Q

c-kit, has potent synergistic actions on early progenitor cells, but cannot be used since this stimulatory effect extends to mast cells and gives rise to severe allergic reactions

A

stem cell factor

32
Q

indication (abbr.) for romiplostim or eltrombopag, after failure of first choice

A

ITP

33
Q

a “peptibody” has 2 IgG constant regions linked by a peptide; has no homology to thrombopoietin but nevertheless stimulates the thrombopoietin receptor to promote platelet production

A

romiplostim

34
Q

orally active non-peptide thrombopoietin agonist approved for treatment of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura and the thrombocytopenia seen with hepatitis C

A

eltromobag

35
Q

recombinant form of IL-11, early agent that increases platelet levels via unknown mechanism, no longer has a major clinical use

A

OPRELVEKIN

36
Q

stimulates platelet production in vivo, but recombinant forms for treating thrombocytopenia were withdrawn from the market due to frequent autoantibody production leading to profound thrombocytopenia

A

thrombopoietin

37
Q

type of anemia frequently caused by cephalosporins and some penicillins (e.g., piperacillin)

A

hemolytic anemia

38
Q

.type of anemia caused by cancer chemotherapeutics, chloramphenicol and benzene

A

aplastic anemia

39
Q

most common cause of drug-induced immune thrombocytopenia

A

heparin

40
Q

antiarrhythmic drug, a classic cause of drug-induced non- immune thrombocytopenia

A

quinidine

41
Q

50% water and 50% oil with an emulsifier, base that is usefulf or covering large and/or wet areas with a drug but preservatives, etc., can cause allergic reactions

A

creams

42
Q

comprised of ~20% water and 80% oils, best for dry skin, stay on the surface of skin and are not well absorbed, permit more complete drug absorption and less likely to cause allergic reaction skin no preservatives

A

ointment

43
Q

refers to substances in moisturizers that form an oily layer to trap water in the skin/treat dry skin; petrolatum, lanolin and mineral oil are among common examples

A

emollients

44
Q

urea, alpha-hydroxyl acids and allantoin are among the agents found in moisturizers to soften this and give skin a smoother feeling

A

horny substance

45
Q

refers to agents such as glycerin, lecithin and propylene glycol found in moisturizers to draw water into the outer layer of skin; note I erred and gave this definition for emollients in the narration for psoriasis

A

humectant

46
Q

applied to skin to kill microbes

A

antiseptic

47
Q

good wound coverings during the debridement phase of healing

A

hydro gels

48
Q

among the wound coverings preferred during the granulation and epithelialization phases of wound healing

A

low adherence

49
Q

peptide antibiotic with activity against gram-positive organisms and some anaerobes; only applied topically to limit systemic toxicity, often causes contact dermatitis

A

bacitracin

50
Q

antibiotic that works similar to macrolides, kills anaerobes, useful for range of infections including topical treatment of acne and for osteomyelitis; associated with increased risk of C. difficile

A

clindamycin

51
Q

peptide antibiotic with efficacy against gram-negative bacteria including pseudomonas, has a detergent-like effect that damages the bacterial cell membrane

A

polymyxin B

52
Q

class of antifungal drugs with a wide range of activity, blocks ergosterol synthesis

A

imidazoles

53
Q

prescription synthetic topical antimycotic agent with broad spectrum of activity

A

CICLOPIROX

54
Q

imidazole antifungal drug applied topically for range of fungal infections, also noteworthy as a classic inhibitor of cytochrome P450

A

ketoconazole

55
Q

organophosphate anticholinesterase insecticide, kills ectoparasites

A

malathione

56
Q

late choice for treating ectoparasites, works by disrupting GABAergic transmission

A

lindane

57
Q

synthetic insecticide similar to that of chrysanthemums, ectoparasite therapy that blocks membrane repolarizing

A

PERMETHRIN (blocks Na+ channel)

58
Q

orally administered insecticide to treat ectoparasites, binds glutamate-activated Cl- channels to hyperpolarize the nerve and muscle cells

A

ivermectin

59
Q

macrolide among the systemic therapies used to treat acne; not a cytochrome P450 inhibitor, unusual pharmacokinetics in that it is taken up in phagocytes and released by them at sites of infection

A

azithromycin

60
Q

retinoid administered orally for treatment of severe acne, powerful teratogen that mandates participation by prescribers and users in the iPledge program

A

isotretoin

61
Q

topical retinoid administered for the treatment of acne, alters gene expression to normalize keratinization, decrease keratinocyte cohesiveness and reduce microcomedone formation

A

tretinoin

62
Q

administration for psoriasis and topical administration for anogenital pruritus

A

calcineurin

63
Q

monoclonal antibody against IL-12 and IL-23, a biologic agent used to treat psoriasis

A

USTEKINUMAB

64
Q

treatment for actinic keratoses derived from Euphorbia peplus sap, causes chemoablation with neutrophil-mediated antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity eliminating remaining tumor cells

A

ingenol mebuate

65
Q

effective topical therapy for actinic keratoses, causes fast- proliferating dysplastic cells to die a thymidine-less death; necrosis/erosion gives way to re-epithelialization over several weeks (has number, no hyphen)

A

5-FU

66
Q

topical immune response modifier used to treat actinic keratoses and basal or squamous cell carcinomas; also used to treat genital warts

A

IMIQUIMOD

SBL (2 decks)

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