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SAM 2 > Shell Test 1 > Flashcards

Shell Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Upper airway disease is characterized by increased (expiratory/inspiratory) effort.

A

Inspiratory

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2
Q

Lower airway disease is characterized by incresed (expiratory/inspiratory) effort.

A

Expiratory

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3
Q

Pawing at the nose is indicative of (upper/lower) airway disease

A

Upper

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4
Q

What is the hallmark of upper respiratory disease?

A

Nasal Discharge

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5
Q

What is the hallmark of lower airway disease?

A

Coughing

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6
Q

Nasal discharge is a hallmark of what type of disease?

(Can also be pulmonary parenchymal)

A

Nasal Cavity Disease

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7
Q

What are the four types of nasal discharge?

A

Serous

Mucopurulent

Mucoid

Hemorrhagic

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8
Q

Sneezing is a hallmark of what type of respiratory disease?

A

Nasal Cavity Dz

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9
Q

Soft tissue obstruction will cause what type of sound?

A

Stertor

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10
Q

Tracheal collapse will cause what type of breathing sound?

A

Stridor

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11
Q

Snoring or gurgling noises are called?

A

Stertor

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12
Q

A whine on inspiration is called what type of sound?

A

Stridor

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13
Q

A rigid obstruction will cause what type of breathing sound?

A

Stridor

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14
Q

Laryngeal paralysis will cause what type of breathing sound?

A

Stridor

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15
Q

A cough is indicative of what diseases?

A

Tracheal Disease

Lower lung disease

Cardiac Disease

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16
Q

Labored breathing, characterized by air hunger

A

Dyspnea

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17
Q

Overall cause of dyspnea?

A

HYPOXEMIA

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18
Q

What are the five things that contribute to dyspnea?

A

Insufficient O2

Insufficient ventilation

Insufficient circulation

Insufficient RBCs

Abnormal Hemoglobin

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19
Q

Term for only breathing in an upwright position with abducted elbows…

A

Orthopnea

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20
Q

Orhopnea is characteristic of what respiratory dz?

A

Pleural Dz

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21
Q

Normal lung sound heard on expiration, especially over the hilus…

A

Bronchial

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22
Q

Normal lung sound heard on inspiration, best heard in the peripheral lung field…described as rustling leaves

A

Vesicular

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23
Q

Normal lung sound mostly heard on expiration, heard at the central airway. Harsh, increased.

A

Bronchovesicular

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24
Q

What are crackles from?

A

Fluid- snapping of airways

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25
Q

What are wheezes from?

A

Air flowing through a small opening

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26
Q

During what part of the respiratory cycle are wheezes heard?

A

Expiration

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27
Q

A collapsed intrathoracic trachea, carina or mainstem bronchi will cause what abnormal sound?

A

Snap over the hilus at the end of expiration

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28
Q

Tracheal collapse will cause what sound?

A

Goose honk/Kazoo

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29
Q

Pleural friction will cause what sound?

A

Creaking/Grating

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30
Q

What is the most important diagnostic tool for respiratory disease?

A

Imaging

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31
Q

What direction do you enter the nose for a rhinoscopy?

A

Mediodorsal

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32
Q

You should not pass this location of the skull for a blind nasal biopsy…Why?

A

Medial Canthus of the eye

Cribriform Plate Penetration

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33
Q

A transtracheal wash or aspirate is performed in what animals?

A

Medium or large breed dogs

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34
Q

What is the landmark in the trachea for transtracheal wash?

A

Cricothyroid ligament

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35
Q

Endotracheal and transoral wash are indicated in what animals?

A

Small dogs, Cats

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36
Q

What is the most likely cause of nasal discharge in old dogs? Young dogs?

A

Old = carcinoma

Young = aspergillosis

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37
Q

A sudden onset of acute sneezing is indicative of what?

A

Nasal foreign body

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38
Q

Describe the nasal discharge with foreign bodies

A

Serous -> mucopurulent

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39
Q

What are the ddx for rhinitis?

A

Infectious (viral/bacterial/fungal)

Parasitic

Allergic

Lymphocytic plasmacytic

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40
Q

What agents make up 90% of upper respiratory disease in cats?

A

Herpesvirus

Calicivirus

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41
Q

What signs are associated with herpes in cats?

A

Ulcers (hallmark)

Associated with the eyes

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42
Q

What signs are associated with calicivirus in cats?

A

Ulcers in the oral cavity

Pneumonia

Limping Kitten Syndrome

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43
Q

What signs are associated with chlamydophila in cats?

A

Conjunctivitis with chemosis (edema)

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44
Q

What disease in cats is caused by herpesvirus?

A

Feline viral rhinotracheitis

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45
Q

Describe “snuffler” and what causes it

A

Caused by herpesvirus

Turbinate damage predisposes to secondary bacterial infections of the nasal cavity

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46
Q

How would you adminidter the feline herpes vaccine in the case of an outbreak?

A

Intranasal

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47
Q

What are the signs of limping kitten syndrome?

A

Lameness

Ulcers on paw

Sore joints

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48
Q

T/F: Bacterial rhinitis is a top ruleout for runny nose

A

False!!!

It is never a top ruleout and is very rarely a primary disease process

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49
Q

If you see nasal ulceration and depigmentation, what is the most likely cause?

A

Aspergillosis

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50
Q

Why are radiographs not good for nasal aspergillosis?

A

Cant distinguish between neoplasia and fungal rhinitis

CT/MRI better

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51
Q

Plaques in the nasal cavity is indicitave of what?

A

Aspergillosis

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52
Q

Tx for nasal aspergillosis?

A

1% clotrimazole or 2% enilconazole in nasal cavity over 1 hour

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53
Q

What test should you do to diagnose cryptococcosis in a cat?

A

Serum titer

(antigen test)

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54
Q

What are the signs of a dog affected by Pneumonyssus caninum?

A

Sneezing

Reverse sneezing

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55
Q

T/F: Dogs on heartworm prevention can still be infected by Pneumonyssus caninum

A

False

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56
Q

What type of discharge will you most commonly see with LPR?

A

Mucoid or mucopurulent

But can be serous or hemorrhagic

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57
Q

What signs are seen with LPR?

A

Sneezing

Ocular d/c

Reverse sneeze

Stertor

58
Q

Tx for LPR?

A

No effective protocols

59
Q

How does Aspergillosis differ from neoplasia in regards to nasal airflow?

A

Airflow is not disrupted with Aspergillosis but there is a loss of airflow with neoplasia

60
Q

What is the treatment of choice for nasal cancer?

A

Radiation

61
Q

Which type of nasal cancer is chemotherapy effective against?

A

Lymphosarcoma

62
Q

What are the most comon types of nasal cancer in dogs?

A

Adenocarcinoma

Squamous cell carcinoma

63
Q

What are the most common types of nasal cancer in cats?

A

Lymphoma

Adenocarcinoma

64
Q

T/F: Nasal neoplasia can result in exopthalmia, facial distortion, and sneezing

A

True

65
Q

T/F: The main clinical sign associated with nasal mites is sneezing

A

True

66
Q

T/F: Nasal aspergillus does not respond to systemic antifungal therapy

A

True

67
Q

T/F: “Wisp of cotton” in from on the nares could indicate obstructive process of ‘wisp’ does not move with dog’s breaths

A

True

68
Q

Tx for Primary ciliary dyskinesia?

A

No treatment

69
Q

What is the classic presentation for a dog with primary ciliary dyskinesia?

A

Young, purebred dog with recurrent respiratory tract infections/signs

70
Q

What is the most common sign of tracheal and bronchial disease?

A

Cough

71
Q

Which Kennel Cough organisms cause mild signs?

A

Parainfluenza

Canine adenovirus 2

72
Q

Which Kennel Cough organisms cause mild to severe signs?

A

Mycoplasma

Bordetella

73
Q

What organism most commonly causes Kennel Cough?

A

Bordetella

74
Q

Complicated or uncomplicated Kennel cough:

not “sick”, involves only upper airways, elicitable “dry cough” on tracheal palpation, serous oculonasal d/c, gagging, retching

A

Uncomplicated

75
Q

Complicated or uncomplicated Kennel Cough:

“Sick”, involves upper and lower airways, “moist cough”, oculonasal d/c more mucopurulent, may develop bronchopneumonia

A

Complicated

76
Q

If a dog coughs up blood what are you thinking?

A

Complicated canine influenza

77
Q

What parasite causes cream colored nodules in the trachea?

A

Oslerus Osleri

78
Q

Goose honk cough = ?

A

Collapsing trachea

79
Q

Dogs with collapsing trachea usually have this strange systemic sign and why

A

Hepatomegaly

Probably due to oxygen deprivation

80
Q

What is the best to Dx collapsing trachea?

A

Bronchoscopy

Can grade the extent of collapse

81
Q

Signalment for chronic canine bronchitis

A

Small breeds, usually 6+ years, often obese

82
Q

PE findings of chronic canine bronchitis?

A

Crackles

Expiratory wheezes

May have concurrent tracheal collapse of mitral insufficiency

83
Q

What is the best treatment for chronic canine bronchitis?

A

Metered dose inhaler (MDI) $$$

84
Q

Compare asthma sounds to pleural effusion sounds

A

Asthma = wheezes, crackles, increased expiratory effort

Pleural effusion = muffled sounds

85
Q

What radiographic pattern is most comonly seen with feline asthma?

A

Bronchial pattern

86
Q

What steroid do you use to manage acute vs chronic asthma?

A

Acute = dex

Chronic = pred

87
Q

When is there more respiratory effort for pulmonary diseases?

A

During expiration

88
Q

What is the most common cause of pneumonia in dogs?

A

Bacterial

89
Q

T/F: Radiographs can help you distinguish the etiology of pneumonia

A

True

90
Q

Is primary bacterial pneumonia more common in younger or older dogs? What is it normally caused by?

A

Younger

Bordetella, Pasteurella

91
Q

What lung patterns are seen with bacterial pneumonia?

A

Alveolar pattern

Cranialventral distribution

92
Q

What is the cause of this pneumonia?

A

Bacterial

93
Q

What hemogram abnormalities will you see with bacterial pneumoina?

A

Neotrophilic leukocytosis with left shift

Monocytosis if chronic

94
Q

How long should you treat an animal with bacterial pneumonia?

A

4-8 weeks especially if secondary

95
Q

Supportive care for bacterial pneumonia?

A

IV fluids

Oxygen

Coupage

+/- Bronchodilators

96
Q

When testing for mycotic pneumonia, are you testing for antigens or antibodies?

A

Antigens

97
Q

What agents can cause mycotic pneumonia?

A

Blastomycosis

Histoplasmosis

Coccidiomycosis

Aspergillosis

98
Q

Mycotic pneumonia in Arizona = ?

A

Coccidiomycosis

99
Q

Mycotic pneumonia in Ohio river Valley area = ?

A

Blastomycosis

Histoplasmosis

100
Q

If an animal has mycotic pneumonia with GI signs, what is the causative agent?

A

Histoplasmosis

101
Q

What serology test do you run for cryptococcus?

A

Serum antigen

102
Q

What serology test do you run for blasto?

A

Urine antigen

103
Q

What serology test do you run for histo?

A

Urine antigen

104
Q

What serology test do you run for valley fever?

A

Urine antigen

105
Q

How long is treatment for mycotic pneumonia?

A

4-12+ months

106
Q

Side effect of Amphotericin B?

A

Nephrotixic - monitor BUN and creatinine, look for casts

107
Q

How do the recovery rates of blasto, crypto, and coccidio compare?

A

Coccidio = 60%

Blasto and crypto = 80%

108
Q

What parasitic organisms are associated with parasitic pneumonia in the cat?

A

Aleurostrongylus abstrusus (cat lungworm)

Paragonimus killicoti (dog/cat lung fluke)

109
Q

What parasitic organism is associated with parasitic pneumonia in the dog?

A

Paragonimus killicoti (dog/cat lung fluke)

110
Q

Aleurostrongylus abstrusus infection can be confused with what other condition?

A

Feline asthma

111
Q

What is the cause of the pneumonia?

A

Mycotic

112
Q

What is the cause of the pneumonia?

A

Aleurostrongylus abstrusus (parasitic)

113
Q

What would you use to treat Aleurostrongylus abstrusus infection in cats?

A

Fenbendazole or Ivermectin

114
Q

What is a complication of Paragonimus kellicoti infection?

A

Cyst rupture causing pneumothorax

115
Q

What is the cause of this pneumonia?

A

Paragonimus kellicoti

notice the cyst

116
Q

What is the common signalment for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Terriers (Westies)

Middle to older

Some cats

117
Q

What is the hallmark finding of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Inspiratory crackles

118
Q

What is the difinitive diagnosis for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Lung biopsy

119
Q

What disease is shown in this radiograph?

A

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

120
Q

What lung pattern is associated with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Interstitial pattern

121
Q

What is commonly given to treat idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Corticosteroids with bronchodilators

122
Q

What are the primary types of pulmonary neoplasia?

A

Adenocarcinoma

SCC

123
Q

What types of metastatic neoplasia can affect the lungs?

A

Adenocarcinoma

Osteosarcoma/condrosarcoma

Hemangiosarcoma

Oral/digital melanoma

SCC

124
Q

How many views do you need to diagnose pulmonary neoplasia?

A

3 VIEWS

125
Q

What is the most common mechanism of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema?

A

Increased alveolar-capillary membrane permeability

126
Q

What pulmonary insults would increase alveolar-capillary membrane permeability?

A

Aspiration

Upper airway obstruction

Smoke

127
Q

What non-pulmonary insults would increase alveolar-capillary membrane permeability?

A

Sepsis

Electric shock

CNS disease

Pancreatitis

DIC

128
Q

What would you hear on ascultation of an animal with non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema?

A

Crackles

129
Q

What would you see on thoracic rads of an animal with non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema?

A

Perihilar infiltrate

Bilateral alveolar pattern

Caudodorsal lung fields affected

130
Q

What is the major difference between ALI and ARDS?

A

Degree of hypoxemia

131
Q

ALI/ARDS are most commonly a sequela of what processes?

A

Sepsis

Shock

Bacterial pneumonia

132
Q

How long can it take to see rad changes for pulmonary contusions?

A

2-12 hours

So if you dont see it at first, check again in a little bit

133
Q

What breed is predisposed to eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy?

A

Siberian husky

134
Q

T/F: Lack of response to antibiotics is common with eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy

A

True

135
Q

PE findings associated with eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy?

A

Harsh crackles

Expiratory wheezes

Moist cough on tracheal palpation

136
Q

How long is treatment for eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy?

A

Longterm-forever

137
Q

If there is severe respiratory distress without significant radiographic changes, what do you think?

A

Acute pulmonary thromboembolism

138
Q

Animal has PTE. If it also has IMHA or heartworm, what do you use to treat it?

A

Prednisolone

139
Q

Animal has PTE. If it also has DIC or is hypercoagulable, what do you treat it with?

A

Low dose heparin

140
Q
A

SAM 2 (6 decks)

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