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Histo Shelf > Shelf Review > Flashcards

Shelf Review Flashcards

1
Q

Which stain: nuclei, ribosomes blue, mitochondria red

A

H&E

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2
Q

Which stain: collagen -blue

A

Trichrome

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3
Q

Which stain: glycoproteins magenta

A

PAS

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4
Q

Which stain: blood

A

Wright’s Stain

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5
Q

Which stain: stains elastic fibers

A

Elastic stain

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6
Q

Which stain: stains antibodies to specific molecules

A

Immunohistochemistry

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7
Q

Where is energy produced?

A

mitochondria

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8
Q

Where are proteins produced?

A

Rough ER

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9
Q

Where are lipids produced?

A

Smooth ER

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10
Q

Where do packaging and transport of proteins occur?

A

gogli apparatus

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11
Q

Where is rRNA?

A

nucleolus

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12
Q

Where is Desmin found?

A

muscle

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13
Q

Where are tonofilaments or cytokeratins found?

A

epithelium

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14
Q

Where is vimentin found?

A

mesnchymal cells

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15
Q

Where are neurofilaments found?

A

neurons

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16
Q

Where are glial filaments found?

A

glial cells

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17
Q

What do tight/occluding junctions do?

A

prevent passage

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18
Q

What is this? What happens here?

A

mitochondria; energy storage

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19
Q

What is this? What happens here?

A

rER; protein formation

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20
Q

What is this? What happens here?

A

lipid synthesis

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21
Q

What is this? What happens here?

A

Golgi apparatus; packaging and transport of proteins

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22
Q

What is the dark circle? What is found here?

A

Nucleolus; rRNA

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23
Q

Know each zone in this picture!

A
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24
Q

What do gap/communicating jxns do?

A

permit transfer of molecules

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25
Q

spot weld, plaque, insertion of filaments

A

Desmosomes

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26
Q

anchor to basement membrane via integrins

A

Hemidesmosomes-

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27
Q

What type of cell are mast cells unique to?

A

basophils

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28
Q

What type of cell is this?

  • Respond to IgE
  • Trigger inflammatory responses
  • Increases capillary permeability
  • Causes swelling
  • Facilitates migration of immune cells into the area
A

Mast cell

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29
Q

Know this picture!

Sarcomere- Z discs to Z disc is one

I band appears to shrink – light - actin only

A (actin and myosin) stays same and H band smaller

M line holds myosine fibers together

A
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30
Q

Basophilic staining regions around the cell body composed of RER

A

Nissl bodies

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31
Q

What 4 types of glial cells compose the CNS?

A
  • Astrocytes
  • Oligodendrocytes
  • Microglia
  • Ependymal cells
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32
Q

What 2 types of cells compose the PNS?

A
  • Schwann cells
  • Satellite cells
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33
Q

What do Astrocytes do?

A

Regulate the environment

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34
Q

What do Oligodendrocytes do?

A

Provide myelination

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35
Q

What do Microglia do?

A

immune cells

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36
Q

What do Ependymal cells do?

A

line ventricular system

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37
Q

What do Schwann cells do?

A

provide myelination

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38
Q

What do Satellite cells do?

A

regulate the enviornment

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39
Q

What is the purpose of the blood-brain barrier?

A

It is essential for protecting the brain from the effects of circulating neurotransmitters

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40
Q

What type of molecules cross the blood-brain barrier easily? What is an example of them?

A

•Hydrophobic molecules cross more easily –E.g. steroid hormones

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41
Q

What are the components of the blood-brain barrier?

A

–Tight junctions between endothelial cells

–Basement membrane

–Astroglial foot processes

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42
Q

What hormone initiaties secretion of milk in the mammary gland?

A

prolactin

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43
Q

What hormome ejects milk from the mammary gland?

A

oxytocin

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44
Q

What role does igA play between a mother and infant

A

it confers passive immunity to the infant

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45
Q

where is igA produced?

A

plasma cells

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46
Q

Where is lactose produced and released?

A

produced in the Golgi and released into the alveolar lumen

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47
Q

Which class of antibody is carried in the blood?

A

igG

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48
Q

Which class of antibodies is in secretions?

A

IgA

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49
Q

Which class of antibodies does not cross the placenta?

A

igM

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50
Q

What class if antibodies triggers mast cell degranulation, inflammation

A

IgE

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51
Q

What class of antibodies are surface receptor on immature B cells, indicates specificity?

A

IgD

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52
Q

Where are self-reactive T cells eliminated?

A

The thymus

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53
Q

CD8+ binds to what?

CD4+ binds to what?

A

CD8+ binds to MHC1 (cytotoxic)

CD4+ binds to MHC2 (helper)

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54
Q

What type of fibers does the thymus not have?

A

reticular fibers - epithelial cells

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55
Q

What three parts make up the thymus?

A

Capsule -

•Encapsulated organ in the mediastinum subdivided by connective tissue septa into lobes

Cortex -

•Lobes have cortex, where basophilic lymphocytes are dense and medulla with fewer lymphocytes

Medulla -

•Medulla characterized by the scattered presence of distinct thymic (Hassel’s)corpuscles

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56
Q

What type of epithelium makes up the respiratory epithelium?

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

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57
Q

What types of cells are found in respiratory epithelium?

A

ciliated columnar cells

goblet cells

stem cells

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58
Q

What does the respiratory epithelium rest on?

A

basement membrane

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59
Q

What type of epithelium is this?

A

Respiratory epithelium

  • it is pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
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60
Q

What type od respiratory epithelial cell is this?

  • Regulate bronchial secretion, SM contraction, ciliary activity, chemoreception
  • More common in fetal lung, decrease in # at birth
A

Small granule cell/neuroendocrine

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61
Q

What type of respiratory epithelial cell is this?

•Most numerous cells in conductive respiratory epithelium

A

Ciliated cell

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62
Q

What type of respiratory epithelial cell is this?

prodouces mucous

A

goblet cells

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63
Q

What type of respiratory epithelial cell is this?

•Mitotic stem cells for other types •Most frequent in large passages •90% of lung cancers involve this cell

A

basal cells

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64
Q

What do Clara cells do? Where are they found?

A

–Produce surfactant

–Produce enzymes that break down mucus

–Detoxify the air

–Secrete IgA and lysozyme

–Regulate inflammatory responses

found in terminal bronchioles

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65
Q

What do Type 1 alveolar cells do?

A

They allow gas exchange

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66
Q

What do type 2 alveolar cells do?

A

they produce surfactant to decrease surface tension

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67
Q

Be able to ID both kinds

A

type 2 is more rounded, 1 is thinner

68
Q

What is this part of the GI tract?

  • stratified sqaumous epithelium
  • submucousal glands
A

Esophague

69
Q

What is this part of the GI tract?

-pits with chief cells and parietal cells

A

stomach

70
Q

What is this part of the GI tract?

-villi, crypts, Brunner’s glands

A

duodenum

71
Q

What is this part of the GI tract?

-villi, crypts, plicae circularis

A

jejunum

72
Q

What is this part of the GI tract?

-villi, crypts, peyer’s patches

A

ileum

73
Q

What is this part of the GI tract?

  • crypts lined with goblet cells
  • no villi
A

large intestine such as colon

74
Q

What is this?

A

Barrett’s esophagus

75
Q

What do chief cells produce? Are they basophillic or acidophillic?

A

pepsinogen and lipase

basophillic

76
Q

What do parietal cells produce? Are they basophillic or acidophillic?

A

HCL and intrinsic factor

acidophillic

77
Q

What does a lack of intrinsic factor cause?

A

pernicious anemia

78
Q

What conroels secretion and motility in the stomach?

A

gastrin

79
Q

Where are M cells located? What do they do?

A

They overly Peyer’s patches in the ileum.

They endocytose antigens and transport them to lymphocytes and macrophages (provide luminal antigens for immunological responses)

80
Q

Where are Paneth cells located? What do they do?

A

They are located at the bottom of crypts in the jejunum.

They secrete lysozymes, prevent accuulation of bacteria, (granules that contain lysozymes that attack bacterial cell membranes)

81
Q

What is the function of the colon? What happens if this doesn’t occur?

A

Water reabsorption; if you lose part of the colon you are susceptible to dehydration

82
Q

What are the 5 functions of the liver/what does it to and what carries these out?

A

Protection: Kupffer cells - macrophages –monitor for bacteria from gut tube – wont let them into circulation

Storage: glycogen, Vit A & D [Ito cells), B12

Production: of albumin and fibrinogen

Endocrine: angiotensin, thrmobopoeitin

Exocrine: bile (contains cholesterol-main way to get rid of it i nthe dig. system, combines with soluble fiber and goes out with stoll), detoxification

83
Q

If no albumin what happens?

A

edema

84
Q

if no fibrinogen what happens?

A

possibly no thrombopoietin and susceptible to bruising

85
Q

ID

A

Endocrine pancreas; has islets

86
Q

ID

A

Exocrine pancreas; centroacinar cells

87
Q

In the Acinar region of the pancreas what is produced?

A
  • panc dig enzymes
  • in ductowork, producing bicarbonate buffer with acinar cells
88
Q

In the alpha cells in the pancreatic iselts, what is produced? What does it do?

A

glucagon; releases more glucose into the bloodstream

89
Q

In the beta cells in the pancreatic iselts, what is produced? What does this do?

A

insulin; cellular uptake of glucose

90
Q

In the delta cells in the pancreatic iselts, what is produced? What does it do?

A

somatostatin; inhibits insulin and glucagon secretion

91
Q

In the G cells in the pancreatic iselts, what is produced? What does it do?

A

gastrin; gastric motility and secretion

92
Q

What does cholecystokinin do?

A

causes the release of digestive enzymes and bile

93
Q

What does secretin do?

A

stimulates the production of bicarbonate buffer from pancreatic ducts

94
Q

Do you want more or less cholcystokinin when you have pancreatitis?

A

less

95
Q

What occurs in the proximal convoluted tubule?

A

reabsorption [of sodium, glucose, and amino acids]

96
Q

What occures in the thin descending limb?

A

water out

97
Q

What happens in the thick ascending limb?

A

ions out [which decrease osmolarity]

98
Q

What happens in the distal convoluted tubules?

A

NA-K pump in presence of aldosterone

(Na+ retention, K+ into the urine with aldosterone)

99
Q

What happens in the collecting duct?

A

ADH: water out - retained [water pulled out from filtrate, concentrates urine with ADH]

proton pump: decreased acidity

colelcting duct is impermeale to water except in the presence of ADH

100
Q

What is this? Where is it found?

A

transitional epithelium/uroepithelium; bladder

101
Q

How does Renal failure occur?

A

:anemia due to loss of eyrthropoietin and calcium deficiency due to loss of Vit D (no vit d produced so bones get bad )

102
Q

Be able to ID this in black and white

A
103
Q

Be able to ID the golmeruls, prox and distal convoluted tubules adn know this is renal cotex

A
104
Q

Thin, thick, and collecting ducts are in the what?

A

renal medulla

105
Q

What is the Renin-Angiotensins pathway?

A

Renin from juxtagolmerular cells -> Renin cleaves angiotensin produced by the liver ->angiotensin 1 -> angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) produced by the lungs convert angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2 -> Angiotensin II (a potent vasoconstrictor) will increase the blood pressure and have an fffect on aldosterone to absorb more sodium ions and consequently take up more water.

106
Q

Start out will 300, as you descend, pull out water and it becomes increasingly concentrated (600) get urea coming in, go up thru thick limb, pump CL out, NA follows and beomces more dilute, if aldosterone present-> will affect the top right, then back at 300, add ADH as we go down, it matches the osmolarity that is in the interstation, so when down by renal papilla that has high osmolarity (1200), u can really concentrate the urine

A
107
Q

What are the regions of the suprarenal cortex and medulla? What do each produce?

A

Cortex: glomerulosa (aldosterone), fasiculata (cortisol), reticularis (DHEA)

medulla: medulla (epinephrine)

108
Q

a high BP, and low K can be caused by what?

A

hyperaldosterone

109
Q

high K can be caused by what?

A

hypoaldosterone

110
Q

What does aldosterone do?

A

raises BP, secretes K

111
Q
  • put out FSH ->
  • get follicle mature ->
  • produce estrogen ->
  • when high enough ->
  • trigger release of LH ->
  • ovulation ->
  • corpus luteum->
  • make progesterone ->
  • causes secretory phase of the uterus
  • In the utierine tube, cilliated and non-cilliated cells. Peg cells -> provide nourishment for ovum
A
112
Q

Meiosis 1 takes place when?

A

immediately before ovulation

113
Q

Meiosis 2 takes place when?

A

after fertilization

114
Q

What do leydig cells do?

A

produce tesosterone

115
Q

What do Sertoli cells do?

A
  • create blood-tests barrier,
  • produce ABH which holds testosterone in high concentations there locally
116
Q

Where are Spermatogonia located?

A

– next to basement membrane (nasal side?), everything else is luminal side

117
Q

What do the efferent ductules do?

A

Remove water from the lumen to concentrate the spermatogonia

118
Q

What does the epididymis do?

A

–Function in fluid resorption

–Secrete glycerophosphocholine

–Inhibits capacitation

119
Q

What do the ductus deferens do?

A

propel spermatozoa; have a prominent tunica muscularis

120
Q

What is the principle component of seminal vesicles?

A

fructose; energy source for sperm

121
Q

What is the prostate gland responsible for?

A

pre-capacitation

122
Q

What are the layers of the epidermis and dermis?

A

Basale

Spinosum

Granulosum

Lucidum (thick skin only)

Corneum

Dermis: papillary, reticular

123
Q

What do Langheran’s cells do?

A

antigen protection; they are like macrophages, they look for T cells to stimulate

124
Q

What do Merkel cells do?

A

sensory

125
Q

what do melanocytes do?

A

protect against UV light

126
Q

Which is which?

A

L: Pacinian

R: Meissner’s

127
Q

which is pressure?

A

Pacianian

128
Q

which is fine touch

A

meissner’s

129
Q

What do follicular cells produce? where are they located?and what do those do?

A

T3, T3; thyroid; increase metabolism

130
Q

What do parafollicular/C cellscells do? Where are they located?

A

produce calcitonin, reduce serum calcium; thyroid

131
Q

What do chief cells do? Where are they located?

A

Produce PTH; parathyroid

132
Q

What does parathyroid hormone do?

A

pulls calcium from bones and puts it into circulation to increase serum calcium levels

133
Q

What is the primary motor layer of the cerebral cortex?

A

5

134
Q

What is the primary seneory layer of the cerebral cortex?

A

4

135
Q

What is the thalmic output layer of the cerebral cortex?

A

6

136
Q

What is the thalmic input layer of the cerebral cortex?

A

4

137
Q

What is the output layer to other ares of the cortical areas of the cerebral cortex?

A

3

138
Q

What cells provide the only output from cerebellar cortex?

A

Purkinje cells

139
Q

What are (and ID) the layers of the cerebellum

A

Molecular layer

perkinje layer

granular layer

140
Q

What does the posterior pituitary/pars nervosa produce?

A

ADH and Oxytocin

141
Q

What do the acidophils of the anterior pituitary/pars distalis produce?

A

growth hormome

prolactin

142
Q

What do the basophils of the anterior pituitary/pars distalis produce?

A

LH

FSH

TSH

ACTH

143
Q

Which type are 4-5.5 million?

A

RBCs

144
Q

which type are 5-10 K?

A

WBCs

145
Q

which type are 150-350 K?

A

platelets

146
Q

These make up 60-70% of WBC’s

A

neutrophils

147
Q

these are seen in acute infections

A

neutrophils

148
Q

these make up 20-30% of WBC’s

A

lymphocytes

149
Q

these make up 3-8% of WBC’s

A

monocytes

150
Q

these make up 2-4% of WBC’s

A

eosinophils

151
Q

these make up <1% of WBC’s

A

basophils

152
Q

these are seen in chornic infections

A

lymphocytes

153
Q

these are seen in allergies/allergic reactions

A

eosinophils

154
Q

what use L-selectin to rolls and slow down and integrins to provide foothold for diapedesis

A

high endothelial venules

155
Q

what kill microbes using oxidative burst generated by myeloperoxidase?

A

neutrophils

156
Q

______ are sensitive to black and white

A

Rods

157
Q

_____ see colors (R, B, G)

A

cones

158
Q

______ has the highest acuity and contains the fovea

A

macula lutea

159
Q

Which part of the ear contains:

  • external auditory meatus
  • tympanic membrane
A

external ear

160
Q

Which part of the ear contains:

  • ossciles
  • auditory tube
A

Middle Ear

161
Q

Which part of the ear contains:

  • vesetibular apparatus
  • cochlea
A

Inner Ear

162
Q

Where do you produce endolymph? What is endolymph high in?

A

Stria vascularis; high in K

163
Q

Discuss the transmission of sound

A

Perilymph in the scala tympani vibrates ->

the basilar membrane presses the hair cells into the tectorial membrane ->

sterocilia get bent which opens K channels ->

K in endolymph rushes in and causes depolarization of hair cells = release of transmitter ->

signal passed to cells in spiral ganglion

164
Q

_____ initiates proliferative stage of uterus?

A

Estrogen

165
Q

_______ induces secretory phase of uterus?

A

Progesterone

Histo Shelf (2 decks)

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