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SP 2024 SFA ROLES > SFA ROLES TEST BANK > Flashcards

SFA ROLES TEST BANK Flashcards

1
Q

If a SFA places the operative patient’s well-being above all other factors, then the SFA is said to have a strong:

A

Ethical sense

Surgical conscience *

Moral judgment

Set of values

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2
Q

Libel refers to

A

Written information *

Spoken information

Both A & B

Neither A or B

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3
Q

Which of the following is not a form of intentional misconduct?

Slander

Libel

Negligence

Invasion of privacy

A

Negligence

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4
Q

Unlawful physical harm is called:

Battery

Wrongful discharge

Defamation

Libel

A

Battery

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5
Q

The legal doctrine that mandates every professional to carry out his or her duties according to national standards of care practiced throughout the country is the:

Doctrine of reasonable man

Doctrine of res ipsa loquitur

Doctrine of respondeat superior

Doctrine of informed consent

A

Doctrine of reasonable man

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6
Q

The Latin phrase “aeger primo” refers to:

Patient first

Do no harm

Breathe

It speaks for itself

A

patient first

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7
Q

__________ means understanding your own world views and those of the patient, while avoiding stereotyping and assumptions.

Universality

Culture competence

Monoculturalism

None of the above

A

culture competence

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8
Q

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA):

Gives patients the right to have elective surgery

Privacy standards to protect the patient’s medical records

Gives the patient the right to sue their surgeon

Allows patients to see any physician they chose

A

privacy standards to protect the patient’s medical records

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9
Q

Which of the following is not a tort?

Invasion of privacy

Defamation

Assault

All of the above

A

all of the above

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10
Q

Which of the following refers to a civil wrong committed against a person or property, not including a breach of contract?

Tort

Negligence

Malpractice

Assault and battery

A

Tort

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11
Q

A system of principles and beliefs intended to govern the behavior of those entrusted with providing care to the sick is commonly referred to as:

Bioethics

Administrative law

Civil law

Code of ethics

A

Code of Ethics

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12
Q

______________ techniques are used to resolve disputes in a rational way without anger or resentment.

Peaceful dispute resolution

Assimilation

Arguing

None of the above

A

peaceful dispute resolution

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13
Q

Grace F. signs a permission form for surgery, but because of a language barrier she does not fully understand what she has signed. This could constitute a liability case for?

Assault and battery

Lack of accountability

Improper documentation

Invasion of privacy

A

Lack of accountability

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14
Q

Which of the following ethical principles refers to “do no harm”

Veracity

Nonmaleficene

Beneficence

Fidelity

A

Nonmaleficence

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15
Q

____________ is defined as the threat of touching in an injurious way.

Negligence

Assault

Malpractice

Battery

A

assault

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16
Q

Which of the following describes the legal doctrine of respondeat superior?

The things speaks for itself

The matter will be settled by precedent

Let the master answer

The matter will be settled by justice

A

Let the Master Answer

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17
Q

The principles of personal liability is a legal rule which:

Holds the hospital responsible for negligence of the staff

Holds everyone legally responsible for his/her own negligent acts

Prevents malpractice suits against individual hospital employees

Applies only when the SFA is employed outside of a hospital environment

A
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18
Q

Ethics is defined as:

Legal obligation that one person owes another person

Moral obligation that one person owes another person

Laws

What the patient requests

A

moral obligation that one person owes another person

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19
Q

SFA Programs are accredited by:

CAAHEP

ARC-STSA

NBSTSA

ASA

A

CAAHEP

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20
Q

Granting of implied or informed permission by a patient for someone else to perform an action is called:

Indemnity

Tort

Consent

Protocol

A

Consent

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21
Q

A durable power of attorney made for healthcare decisions is called a:

Respondent superior

Health-care proxy

Res ipsa loquitur

Hippocratic oath

A

Health Care Proxy

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22
Q

When you pass the CSFA exam, the certification is described as:

Formal process by which qualified individuals are listed in a registry

Legal right granted by a government agency which complies with a statute that authorizes the activities of the profession

Recognition by an appropriate body that an individual has met a predetermined standard

Perform according to the facility guidelines

A

Recognition by an appropriate body that an individual has met a predetermined standard

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23
Q

A failure to exercise that degree of skill ordinarily employed under similar circumstances by members of their profession in good standing in the same community or locality is the legal definition of:

Default

Negligence

Abandonment

Assault

A

Negligence

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24
Q

The Patient’s Bill of Rights entitles the patient to all of the following EXCEPT:

Considerate and respectful care

Refusal of all treatment

Experimental treatment without consent

Confidentiality

A

Experimental treatment without consent

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25
Q

Name the legal doctrine which applies to a SFA when he/she is acting under the direction and control of a physician or hospital who may be responsible for his/her negligence.

Res ipsa loquitur

Health Amendments Act

Respondeat superior

Primum non nocere

A

Respondeat Superior

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26
Q

Which of the following is an affirmative defense that alleges that the plaintiff is mutually responsible for an injury through a lack of care in combination with negligence of the healthcare provider?

Comparative negligence

Malevolence

Malfeasance

Contributory negligence

A

contributory negligence

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27
Q

If a Kelly clamp is left in a patient who underwent a cholecystectomy, which of the following legal charges can be filed?

Primum non nocere

Res ipsa loquitur

Foreseeability

Intentional tort

A

Res ipsa loquitor

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28
Q

The principles of personal liability is a legal rule which:

Holds the hospital responsible for negligence of the staff

Holds everyone legally responsible for his/her own negligent acts

Prevents malpractice suits against individual hospital employees

Applies only when the SFA is employed outside of a hospital environment

A

Holds everyone legally responsible for his/her own negligent acts

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29
Q

The subcutaneous layer can be described as:

Being composed of loose connective tissue and adipose tissue

Containing blood vessels that supply the skin

Functioning as a heat insulator or helping to conserve body heat

All of the above

A

all of the above

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30
Q

The prefix pertaining to fingernail is:

Odont-

Olfact-

Onych-

Ompal-

A

Onych

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31
Q

Epidermis is distinguished by being ___________, whereas dermis is distinguished by being ____________.

The innermost layer of the skin; under the epidermis

Composed of largely fibrous connective tissue; composed of stratified squamous epithelial tissue

The outermost layer of the skin; composed of stratified squamous epithelial tissue

Composed of stratified squamous epithelial tissue; composed of fibrous connective tissue

A

Composed of stratified squamous epithelial tissue; composed of fibrous connective tissue

32
Q

An autograft involves covering an injured area of skin with:

Skin from a person other than the patient

A skin substitute, such as an artificial membrance

Skin from a skin bank

Skin from an uninjured region of the patient’s body

A

Skin from an uninjured region of the patient’s body

33
Q

The most common skin cancer:

Primary melanoma

Actinic keratosis

Basal cell carcinoma

Squamous cell carcinoma

A

Basal cell carcinoma

34
Q

Place the following layers of the abdominal wall in order from laparotomy closure:

Subcutaneous tissue
Muscle
Peritoneum
Extraperitoneal fat
Transversalis fascia
Skin
Deep fasica

4, 3, 7, 2, 5, 1, and 6

3, 7, 2, 5, 4 1, and 6

3, 4, 5, 2, 7, 1, and 6

4, 3, 5, 2, 7, 1, and 6

A

3, 4, 5, 2, 7, 1, and 6

35
Q

Which is NOT a characteristic of the epidermis?

Highly vascular

Contains melanin and keratin

Distinctly stratified

Gives rise to sebaceous and sweat glands

A

Highly vascular

36
Q

Body heat is lost by radiation by:

Heat moving from the body into cooler objects in contact with its surface

Moving into cooler air that is continually circulating over the skin

Heat rays escaping to cooler surroundings

Water changing from a liquid state to a gaseous state

A

Heat rays escaping to cooler surroundings

37
Q

Inflammation of a sweat gland is known as:

Hidradenitis

Colitis

Rhinitis

Fasciitis

A

Hidradenitis

38
Q

The lines of cleavage of Langer’s lines are:

Finger prints

The direction of the rows of collagen fibers in the dermis

The direction of bone indentations

Skin creases over joints

A

The direction of the rows of collagen fibers in the dermis

39
Q

The force of integumentary injuries that results from the skin remaining stationary while the underlying tissues shift is known as:

Pressure

Shearing

Friction

Maceration

A

Shearing

40
Q

The function of skin includes:

Synthesizing antibodies

Producing adipose tissue

Regulating body temperature

Synthesizing digestive enzymes

A

Regulating body temperature

41
Q

When closing skin in surgery, this type of needle is preferred:

Taper

Cutting

Blunt

Spatula

A

Cutting

42
Q

The ways in which the skin promotes loss of excess body heat is/are:

Dilation of dermal blood vessels

Activation of eccrine sweat glands to release more sweat to skin surface

Loss of heat by radiation, conduction, and convection

All of the above

A

all of the above

43
Q

Dense unsightly connective tissue or excessive scar formation that often is removed surgically is known as (a):

Proud flesh

Granuloma

Keloid

Pterygium

A

keloid

44
Q

A common pathogen typically associated with decubitus ulcers is Staphylococcus:

Proteus

Epidermidis

Pyogenes

Aureus

A

aureus

45
Q

A type of wound in which the alimentary, oropharyngeal, respiratory, or genitourinary regions are entered is classified as:

Clean contaminated

Clean

Contaminated

Infected

A

Clean contaminated

46
Q

The splitting open or gaping of a wound is called:

Evisceration

Dehiscence

Herniation

Eventration

A

Dehiscence

47
Q

The space caused by the separation of wound edges which have not been closely approximated by sutures is called:

Dehisced space

Palmar space

Dead space

Intervillous space

A

Dead space

48
Q

Delayed wound healing may be related to:

Blood type

Gender

Ethnicity

Age

A

age

49
Q

Which of the following organisms normally found on the skin can cause wound infections?

Bacillus botulinum

Staphylococcus aureus

Diplococcus pneumoniae

Candida albicans

A

Staphylococcus aureus

50
Q

The protrusion of bowel through the separated edges of an abdominal wound closure is called:

Dehiscence

Evisceration

Wound disruption

Secondary suture line

A

Evisceration

51
Q

During healing by first intention, the first five days are the ___________ phase; up to the fourteenth day is the ______________ phase; and from the fourteenth day until wound is fully healed is the _________ phase.

Fibroplasia (healing), maturation, inflammatory (lag)

Inflammatory (lag), fibroplasia (healing), maturation

Maturation, inflammatory (lag), fibroplasia (healing)

Fibroplasia (healing), inflammatory (lag), maturation

A

Inflammatory (lag), fibroplasia (healing), maturation

52
Q

An adult male is injured in an automobile accident at 2a.m. An exploratory laparotomy for possible perforated bowel is initiated at 5a.m. Which of the following is the BEST wound classification in this scenario?

Clean

Clean contaminated

Contaminated

Dirty and infected

A

Contaminated

53
Q

There are many factors that influence surgical wound healing. Select the response below that reflects a factor with high influence over wound healing and is within the control of the surgical team.

Use of a local anesthetic with epinephrine at the incision site

Antibiotic sensitivity studies conducted on wound culture results

Antimicrobial prophylaxis

The patient’s nutritional status

A

Antimicrobial prophylaxis

54
Q

Fibroblasts multiple rapidly, bridging wound edges and restoring of body structures during the __________ phase of first intention wound healing.

Lag

Hemostatic

Maturation

Healing

A

Healing

55
Q

A 62-year-old man had surgery 6 days ago for a ruptured diverticulum. what was the wound classification at the time of his emergency surgery?

Clean wound, classification I

Clean/contaminated wound, classification II

Contaminated wound, classification III

Infected wound, classification IV

A

Contaminated wound, classification III

56
Q

Wound classification is assigned when:

Incision is made

Procedure is complete

Drain is placed

Cavity is entered

A

Procedure is complete

57
Q

Between which of the following postoperative days can dehiscence typically occur?

First and third

Fifth and tenth

Twelfth and fifteenth

Seventeenth and twentieth

A

Fifth and tenth

58
Q

Which of the following techniques demonstrate a proven benefit in the prevention of postoperative wound infections?

Administering appropriate antibiotics within 1 hour of incision time
Maintaining suitable antibiotic coverage from 48-72 hours postoperatively
Irrigating the wound with normal saline
Irrigating the wound with sterile water

1 and 3

1 and 4

2 and 3

2 and 4

A

1 and 3

59
Q

The three phases of wound healing include all of the following EXCEPT:

Inflammatory phase

Fibroplastic phase

Chronic phase

Remodeling phase

A

Chronic phase

60
Q

wound that is known to be infected at the time of surgery and is left open to be closed at a later date is categorized as:

First intention

Granulation

Delayed primary closure

Second intention

A

Delayed primary closure

61
Q

The most common cause of delayed wound healing in the operative patient is:

Wound infection

Adhesions

Tissue loss

Dehiscence

A

Wound infection

62
Q

A 48-year-old tetraplegic with chronic sacral wound is scheduled for wound debridement. What is the purpose of doing a wound debridement on a chronic wound?

The debridement will stimulate circulation and promote healing

The debridement will prevent the growth of parasitic maggots

The debridement will remove dead tissue that could support infection

Debridement creates a nidus that nourishes and supports healing

A

The debridement will remove dead tissue that could support infection

63
Q

Which statement concerning healing by second intention is FALSE?

Collagen fibers hold wound edges together initially

Scar tissue formation is excessive

Healing is delayed

Granulation tissue fills in the wound defect

A

Collagen fibers hold wound edges together initially

64
Q

Which of the following heals the quickest after injury?

Bone

Epithelium

Muscle

Tendon

A

Epithelium

65
Q

A 62-year-old man had surgery 6 days ago for a ruptured diverticulum. He is back in the OR for a debridement and washout. The patient’s fever has subsided, and the drainage is clear. The surgeon will schedule the patient to return to the OR in 3 days for:

One more final debridement and washout

Packing with antibiotic-impregnated gauze before final closure

Sutured closure of the peritoneum and muscle fascia layer and secondary closure with granulation of the subcutaneous and skin layers

Delayed primary sutured closure

A

Delayed primary sutured closure

66
Q

After tissue injury, the initial vascular and cellular response is the:

Inflammatory phase

Phagocytic phase

Injury phase

Epithelial phase

A

Inflammatory phase

67
Q

When a tissue defect decreases in size by wound contraction, it is designated as healing by:

Primary intention

Secondary intention

Tertiary intention

Delayed intention

A

Secondary intention

68
Q

Which can affect wound healing:

Diabetes
Nutritional status of patient
Anemia
Location of incision
Age of patient
Uremia

2, 3, 4, and 5

All but 4

1, 2, 5, and 6

All of the above

A

All of the above

69
Q

What cells are responsible for the synthesis and secretion of collagen and elastin?

Proteoglycans

Ground substance

Fibroblasts

Collagenases and elastinases

A

Fibroblasts

70
Q

A patient recently operated on for a ruptured appendix had a temperature of 103° F and returned to the OR for a debridement and washout of purulent drainage from his wound on postoperative day 3. What was the wound classification at the time of his debridement and washout surgery?

Clean wound, classification I

Clean/contaminated wound, classification II

Contaminated wound, classification III

Infected wound, Classification IV

A

Infected wound, Classification IV

71
Q

Which of the following are the MOST important considerations when preventing wound infection in the surgical patient?

Pathogen transmittal
Portal of entry into the susceptible host
Anesthetic options for the patient’s operative process
Invasion of the susceptible host

1, 2, and 3

1, 2, and 4

1, 3, and 4

2, 3, and 4

A

1, 2, and 4

72
Q

Delayed primary closure would be the most appropriate would closure technique for which of the following procedures?

Removal of perforated appendix

Vagotomy and pyloroplasty for bleeding duodenal ulcer

Repair of an incisional hernia 12 weeks after an elective left colectomy

Repair of would dehiscence 1 week after elective left colectomy

A

Removal of perforated appendix

73
Q

Serosanguineous drainage means:

Purulent

Green-tinged

Blood-tingued

Hemorrhage

A

Blood-tingued

74
Q

Wounds in which there is significant bacterial contamination, foreign bodies, or extensive tissue trauma are generally closed by which intention?

Delayed primary

Primary union

Lag

Granulation

A

Delayed primary

75
Q

Which of the following would affect normal wound healing?

Penicillin allergy

Peripheral vascular disease (PVD)

Adhesions

Latex allergy

A

Peripheral vascular disease (PVD)

SP 2024 SFA ROLES (3 decks)

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