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SF CDC > SF 4 > Flashcards

SF 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What analytical process is used to achieve integrated defense?

A

ID risk management

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2
Q

The first step and risk analysis is asset

A

Criticality assessment

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3
Q

Who must review the installation entry procedures for legal sufficiency?

A

Staff judge advocate

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4
Q

Through which agency will the base defense operation center up channel covered wagon reportable incidents?

A

Installation command post

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5
Q

The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapon

A

Accident

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6
Q

What does the color code yellow indicate when calling in a lace report?

A

Greater than 33% available

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7
Q

Personnel assigned the priority II priority category should be evacuated with and how many hours?

A

4

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8
Q

Personals onto the priority III routine category should be evacuated with and how many hours?

A

24

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9
Q

We must approve each installation localized integrated defense plan?

A

Installation commander

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10
Q

Who determines what post are not staffed during funding or personal shortages?

A

Defense force commander

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11
Q

How many days are the majority of security forces unit take codes capable of existing without support?

A

Five

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12
Q

Which type of attack me involve an insider threat?

A

Penetration

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13
Q

Which agency is the need for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?

A

Department of state

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14
Q

Which agency is the lead for domestic terrorism within US?

A

Department of justice

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15
Q

What type of supporters do not actually commit violent acts but assist the terrorists by providing money, intelligence, legal, or medical services?

A

Active supporters

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16
Q

What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists or operationally active and use large casualty producing attacks as their preferred method of operation?

A

Significant

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17
Q

What terrorist threat level factor focuses on the attack method used by the group and other measures enhancing it’s effectiveness, such as a state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology?

A

Operational capability

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18
Q

What threat level is considered a peacetime threat and increases in frequency and transitions to a wartime threat before the beginning of open hostilities or a rise in hostilities?

A

Threat level I

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19
Q

What threat level consists of gorilla forces, unconventional warfare forces, or small tactical units?

A

Threat level II

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20
Q

What does artifact is achieved good lighting, intrusion detection systems, early warning systems, and closed – circuit television?

A

Detect

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21
Q

What desired effect is achieved through threat and effects based planning that integrate all friendly forces into a single, comprehensive plan, and ensuring friendly forces are trained and qualified on arming and use of force?

A

Defend

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22
Q

How many random antiterrorist measures choosing from higher force protection conditions are required daily?

A

At least three

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23
Q

How long has the US military been called upon to defeat insurgencies?

A

More than two centuries

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24
Q

What most units to develop about the area of responsibility to include religious customs, nuances of local leaders, local culture, And terrain?

A

Common operating picture

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25
Q

What will insurgents resort to if they cannot persuade locals to help or refrain from hindering them?

A

Coercion

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26
Q

Joint doctrine defines a non-governmental organization as a

A

Private self-governing, not-for-profit organization

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27
Q

What type of agency is created by formal agreement between two or more governments?

A

Intergovernmental organization

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28
Q

Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization in the world?

A

United Nations

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29
Q

To avoid adverse affect on operations, commanders should address also sovereignty issues through the chain of command to the US

A

Ambassador

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30
Q

Ariel ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports debarkation are all examples of key

A

Sovereignty issues

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31
Q

If countries do not use the English alphabet, combatant command wide standard for spelling names should be set by the

A

Non-DOD agencies

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32
Q

Who primarily uses alternate funding positions?

A

Crew-served weapons operator

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33
Q

What illusion does the grounds looking upward method of range determination give to the observer?

A

Greater distance

34
Q

Based on the terrain, vegetation, and visibility, leaders establish in route rally points every 100 to

A

400 meters

35
Q

Which organization normally assigns graphic control measures?

A

Base defense operation center

36
Q

What type of fire control measures to security forces flight leaders or subordinate leaders use as a means to control their defenders?

A

Direct

37
Q

What is the most common means of giving fire commands?

A

Visual signals

38
Q

What is your first course of action when Colton an assault?

A

Immediately return fire and take a covered position

39
Q

Machine gun or’s fire a groups of five or more targets when in the

A

Primary sector from farthest to closest

40
Q

Which target indicator is among the most difficult for the enemy to avoid?

A

Contrast with the background

41
Q

When marking targets, the most effective means of delivering accurate far is

A

Aiming point

42
Q

The level of performance for the AN/PVS – 14 depends upon the level of

A

Light

43
Q

On the AN/PVS – 14 night vision device, what component enables the operator to see as many readings in the Manatt killer?

A

Compass

44
Q

How should pre-combat inspections be tapered?

A

Specific unit in mission requirements

45
Q

When should security forces perform checks of their individual issued items?

A

Daily

46
Q

Intent or deployment situations, what movement technique do you use when speed is required and you cannot use the Rushing technique?

A

High crawl

47
Q

Selection of team movement techniques is based on

A

Likelihood of the enemy contact in need for speed

48
Q

Which fire team movement is the primary formation used by a fire team?

A

Wedge

49
Q

When is the bounding overwatch movement technique used?

A

When any contact is expected

50
Q

During bounding over watch the bounding team should not move more than how many meters forward of the over watching team?

A

150

51
Q

Which movement technique do you use one speed is important in contact with an adversary is not likely?

A

Traveling

52
Q

What are the two types of ambushes?

A

Point and area

53
Q

What are the most common types of reconnaissance patrols?

A

Area, route, and zone

54
Q

What type of reconnaissance patrols involves a directive effort to obtain detailed information on all route, obstacles , terrain, and enemy forces within a defined sector?

A

Zone

55
Q

To perform transition to a handgun drill with a three point tech sling, you must first place the rifle on

A

Safe

56
Q

How do you perform a hand and arm signal for attention?

A

Extend the arm sideways, slightly above the horizontal; palm to the front; waive the arm to and from the head several times

57
Q

How do you performed a hand and arm signal for line formation?

A

Extend the arms parallel to the ground

58
Q

When processing captive, detainees, and prisoners at collection points, which is not one of the principles of stress?

A

Release

59
Q

What convoy movement formation can only be used on multilane roads?

A

Staggered

60
Q

What convoy movement formation can be used to block third-party traffic and assist in changing lanes?

A

Offset

61
Q

Where will Driver’s position themselves during a short halt?

A

Remain in the vehicle

62
Q

Who signals for roll out after a long halt and movement commences?

A

Convoy commander

63
Q

You can find the sheet name of a map in the

A

Center of the top margin and on the lower left area margin

64
Q

What train feature is a stretched out rude in the land, usually formed by streams and rivers?

A

Valley

65
Q

What terrain feature is a low point in the ground or a sinkhole?

A

Depression

66
Q

What terrain feature is a short, continuous loop in line higher ground, normally jutting out from the side of a ridge?

A

Spur

67
Q

Contour lines are the most common method of showing

A

Relief and elevation on a standard topographic map

68
Q

What does an index contour line show when going from a lower to upper contour line?

A

Increase in elevation

69
Q

To plot a grid coordinate on a topographical map, you read it from

A

Left to right; bottom to top

70
Q

How close will a six-digit refined grid coordinates get you to the point you want to identify?

A

100 meters

71
Q

An azimuth is defined as a

A

Horizontal angle measure to clockwise from the north baseline

72
Q

What is the center of the protractor circle from where all directions are measured called?

A

Index Mark

73
Q

Which method let you locate an unknown point Using at least to known positions on the ground?

A

Intersection

74
Q

Which method lets you locate your position on a map by converting a grid azimuth to a back azimuth of at least two’s well-defined locations pinpointed on the map

A

Resection

75
Q

The easiest method for measuring distance in a straight line is to use

A

A ruler

76
Q

What is the first step and navigating using terrain association?

A

Orient your map

77
Q

What direction is always the first to shadow Mark when using the shadow tip method?

A

West

78
Q

The defense advance to global positioning system receiver provides the user position,

A

Velocity, time reporting, and navigation capabilities.

79
Q

What is the Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Receiver’s (DAGR) primary function?

A

Navigate through terrain using stored waypoint position information.

80
Q

Which Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Receiver (DAGR) mode reduces power usage but does not track satellites?

A

Standby

SF CDC (3 decks)

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