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SF CDC > SF 2 > Flashcards

SF 2 Flashcards

1
Q

In relations to mental preparedness to employ force, when personnel fear becoming the victim of close range aggression or may have concerns about inflicting injury or death, this fear can cause?

A

Tentativeness and hesitation

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2
Q

What level of force does the US Supreme Court hold as reasonable under the fourth amendment as it pertains to law-enforcement and security personnel in the context of making an arrest or other seizure of a person? Lawn enforcement and security personnel

A

Do you not have to apply the least intrusive force alternative, only a reasonable one to apprehend the subject

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3
Q

In which situation would you not be authorized use deadly force?

A

Keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle

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4
Q

What are the standing rules of engagement ROE for US forces?

A

Permits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense

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5
Q

What are the two distinct categories of rules of engagement?

A

Self-defense and mission accomplishment

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6
Q

What should not be confused with the rules of engagement during peacetime operations within a US territory?

A

Rules for use of force

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7
Q

Conscious verbal communication occurs when?

A

Words are chosen carefully during a conversation

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8
Q

How do you place a suspect on foot into the final challenge position?

A

Command, raise your hands above your head, spread your fingers, and spread your feet, and point your toes outward

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9
Q

Prior to applying handcuffs, you game positive control of a subject by grasping the

A

Ring or middle finger

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10
Q

When conducting a search of an individual, for quickness, your search should be

A

Systematic and thorough

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11
Q

What type of search is primarily used on suspects who do not appear dangerous, violent, or so drunk they cannot stand under their own power?

A

Standing

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12
Q

When compared to deadly force, nonlethal force is subject to what type of standards?

A

Same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force

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13
Q

What is the level of force necessary to compel a subjects compliance and is neither likely nor intended to cause death?

A

Intermediate use of force

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14
Q

What combative technique is used to protect your head from strikes while in the ready stance?

A

Comb blocks

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15
Q

How do you attain weapons retention during the rear mount?

A

My rolling onto your weapon side, keeping holstered weapon pinned against the ground

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16
Q

To ensure the safety of the patrol officer and for legal precautions, what should you do before placing suspect in a security forces vehicle for transporting?

A

Search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband

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17
Q

What are the minimum requirements anytime you’re transporting a member of the opposite sex?

A

Have an additional patrol officer as a passenger

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18
Q

To whom do you release civilians who commit and minor offense in areas with concurrent jurisdiction?

A

Military sponsor

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19
Q

Which of the following is not a reason to make an entry without search authority?

A

To secure an unlocked door

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20
Q

When processing a crime scene, when would you normally cover the body of a deceased person?

A

After it has been fully processed for evidence

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21
Q

What are the two types of sketches normally made of the crime scene?

A

Rough and finished

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22
Q

What documents establishes the rules of evidence for the military

A

Manual for courts Marshall

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23
Q

From who must you obtain approval before disposing of crime scene evidence?

A

Staff judge advocate

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24
Q

Which uniform code of military justice article covers the wrong for use and possession of a controlled substance?

A

Article 112a

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25
Q

When dealing with controlled substance substances, how is wrongfulness defined? And action done

A

Without legal justification or authorization

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26
Q

What agency has primary jurisdiction for serious child abuse or neglect involving infliction of serious bodily harm?

A

Air Force office of special investigations

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27
Q

What type of mandatory training is needed if you are armed with an expandable baton?

A

Initial and annual refresher

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28
Q

How long should a direct pepper spray burst at the subjects facial area last?

A

One second

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29
Q

How many Barb projectiles does the electronic control device neuromuscular incapacitation system use when fired?

A

Two

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30
Q

What form will be completed in all instances where an apprehension is made?

A

AF form 3545

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31
Q

What is conducted during a domestic dispute/violence call to assess the immediate danger to family members and need for medical assistance or protective custody?

A

Interview

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32
Q

Which of the following is not one of the three types of child abuse?

A

Mental abuse

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33
Q

Child pornography and child prostitution or examples of what type of child abuse?

A

Sexual

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34
Q

What type of child abuse is exemplified by not providing nourishment, deprivation of necessities, and not providing appropriate shelter, or clothing?

A

Neglect

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35
Q

What characteristics you can show at your initial contact with the sexual assault/rape victim can make a difference in the emotional state of the victim?

A

Your tact and poise

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36
Q

What is defined as a threat or attempt to strike another, whether successful or not, provided the target is aware of the danger?

A

Assault

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37
Q

What type of assault is punishable in all states as a felony and is committed when I defend it tends to do more than merely frighten the victim?

A

Aggravated assault

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38
Q

What are the four phases of the judicial process in which you must brief all victims and witnesses on in the victim/witness assistance program?

A

Response, investigation, prosecution, and confinement

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39
Q

What type of crowd is identified as individuals or small groups with nothing in common to bind them together?

A

Casual

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40
Q

The use of the right baton is based on who’s appraisal of the situation in his or her choice of force option?

A

Commander

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41
Q

Which riot control formation is used as an offensive formation to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups?

A

Wedge

42
Q

Which force protection measures taken to render a threat or hazard in capable of interfering with AF operations?

A

Negate

43
Q

Which control authority is exercise through the subordinate joint force commander’s or functional component commanders?

A

Operational control

44
Q

Which type of lighting is a low illumination light used in nuclear restricted areas?

A

Very near infrared VNIR

45
Q

How many feet apart would you display restricted areas signs along restricted area boundaries?

A

100 feet

46
Q

What type of force is required at all installation support and protection level PL one, two, or three resources?

A

Security response team SRT

47
Q

The letter E next to it and unblock his number on a restricted area badge I didn’t find that an individual is authorized to

A

Escort personnel into those restricted areas

48
Q

What type of centuries controls the entry into aircraft when the aircraft is caring specific protection level PL one assets?

A

Close in century CIS

49
Q

How often must be approving authority review all permanent security deviations

A

Every year

50
Q

What form is used to document security deviation and is submitted through command channels?

A

AF form 116

51
Q

At what level does the nuclear roadmap focuses primarily on the stewardship of the nuclear mission?

A

Operational

52
Q

What concept was designed to prevent a loan individual from having complete knowledge of the entire nuclear weapons launch function?

A

Split knowledge

53
Q

In the case of a nuclear security system, three potential adversary groups of primary concern are criminals, protesters, and

A

Terrorists

54
Q

Which nuclear weapons facility is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons in the world?

A

Kirtland underground munitions maintenance storage complex KUMMSC, USA

55
Q

Vegetation and clear zones will not exceed how many inches in height inside restricted areas containing with nuclear weapons storage facilities?

A

8 inches

56
Q

Up to how many persons can be escorted inside an exclusion area press “official?

A

Six

57
Q

Who ensures that the post installation needs to person concept requirements and no loan zones are delineated around nuclear logistics aircraft?

A

Couriers

58
Q

Only personal certified through what program or the host nation equivalent at a weapon storage and security system WS3 installations can be permitted unescorted entry into exclusion areas or can’t perform escort duties with an exclusion areas?

A

Nuclear weapons personnel reliability program PRP

59
Q

D CNI what security team is routinely dispatched with a missile maintenance team, provide security for a penetrated launch facility, and establishes site security?

A

Security escort team S ET

60
Q

What type of electronic sensor must consist of an approved balanced magnetic switch where other type of sensor capable of detecting intrusions at the opening?

A

Point Detection

61
Q

Who can make a judgment on the reliability of each individual identified for personnel reliability program PRP duties?

A

Certifying official

62
Q

What are the two types of removal within the personnel reliability program PRP?

A

Suspension and decertification

63
Q

What type of nuclear inspection assesses the units ability to accomplish it’s assigned nuclear weapons mission and produce reliable nuclear weapons in a safe and secure environment and compliance with applicable directives?

A

Nuclear surety inspection

64
Q

Which term defines a designated area immediately surrounding one or more nuclear weapons and/or systems?

A

Exclusion area

65
Q

What community policing philosophy helps improve the overall quality of life in the neighborhood?

A

Greater community voice and setting police priorities

66
Q

Which contravention program allows some people to report their observations to please only when they know they can remain anonymous?

A

Operation crime stop

67
Q

What does code 3 indicate one security forces personnel or making an emergency response?

A

Use of emergency lights and siren

68
Q

How do you accomplish a double abreast position during a high-risk traffic stop?

A

Back up patrol vehicle parts parallel and to the right or left of the primary patrol vehicle

69
Q

How should you position your vehicle at the scene of an accident?

A

To protect the scene and injured persons while not creating a traffic hazard

70
Q

When directing traffic on a very narrow or one-way street, it is best for you to stand

A

Off to the side of the road

71
Q

Speed measuring devices are used to control speed, increase compliance with traffic laws, and

A

Conduct speed studies

72
Q

It is important that you receive official certification of your qualifications and training standards when training on speed measuring devices so the evidence is admissible

A

In both a civilian and military court

73
Q

What shape is the radio wave energy transmitted by police traffic radar concentrated into?

A

Cone

74
Q

Security forces personal use the standard field Sebright he test SFST approved by the

A

National Highway traffic safety administration

75
Q

Prior to using any alcohol or chemical detection equipment You must advise the suspects

A

Of the implied consent policy

76
Q

How long must you observe a person before collecting a breath specimen?

A

20 minutes

77
Q

Once completed, who is giving the second copy of the AF form 52, evidence tag?

A

Person relinquishing possession of the property

78
Q

What happens to the original copy of AF form 75, visitor/vehicle pass, once you have completed it?

A

It is given to the individual

79
Q

And how many copies is the AF form 1109, visitor registration log, prepared?

A

One

80
Q

How many sections does the AF form 1168, statement of suspect/witness/complainant, have?

A

Six

81
Q

On the reverse side of the air form 1176, authority to search and seize, or bond sheet of paper, you must write or type a

A

Probable cause statement

82
Q

A traffic accident is classified as a major traffic accident anytime

A

An accident involves a fatality, injury, or property damage above the amount established by the installation commander

83
Q

What must you do if during a search, the individual with drawls the previous consent to search?

A

Terminate the search immediately

84
Q

Who uses section 7, administrative disposition, of the AF form 3545, incident report?

A

Security forces reports and analysis

85
Q

The AF 3907, security forces field interview data is used to record

A

Routine contact between security forces members and members of the public

86
Q

DD form 1408, Armed Forces traffic ticket, is issued to someone who

A

Commits a moving or nonmoving traffic offense

87
Q

What copy of the DD form 1408, Armed Forces traffic ticket, is given to the violator or affixed to the violators vehicle if the vehicle is unattended?

A

Pink

88
Q

Who is the only person authorized avoid the DD form 1805, United States District Court violation notice?

A

Defense force commander

89
Q

Where on DD form 1920, alcohol incident report, would you annotate the results of the suspects blood alcohol chemical test?

A

Section 3, standardization field Sebright he testing

90
Q

You use the DD form 2708, received for pre-trial/post trial prisoner or detained person, when

A

Security forces personnel are releasing an individual who has been detained or apprehended

91
Q

What is the primary method for identifying observations and potential lessons identified?

A

After action report

92
Q

Within how many days from the event at refers will an after action report be submitted?

A

30

93
Q

When you write a well written incident report that answers the six basic questions of who, what, when, where, why, and how, this report for Phils the characteristics of being

A

Complete

94
Q

How do you read a grid map in order to find a grid Coordinates

A

From left to right, bottom to top

95
Q

Which agency assumes lead responsibilities for terrorist and high risk incidents within US territories?

A

Department of justice

96
Q

What must be established at each incident site?

A

Cordon and entry control.

97
Q

How should you mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas?

A

Elevated markers

98
Q

What type of search consist of searching all areas of a vehicle without disassembling any part of the vehicle?

A

Simple

99
Q

What type of search consist of a much more detailed search and may often require partial or total disassembly of the vehicle?

A

Complete

100
Q

What must the SF on scene commander evaluate before making the decision on how to search an area?

A

Situation, to rain, weather, light, and number of searchers available

SF CDC (3 decks)

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