SF 2 Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

In relations to mental preparedness to employ force, when personnel fear becoming the victim of close range aggression or may have concerns about inflicting injury or death, this fear can cause?

A

Tentativeness and hesitation

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2
Q

What level of force does the US Supreme Court hold as reasonable under the fourth amendment as it pertains to law-enforcement and security personnel in the context of making an arrest or other seizure of a person? Lawn enforcement and security personnel

A

Do you not have to apply the least intrusive force alternative, only a reasonable one to apprehend the subject

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3
Q

In which situation would you not be authorized use deadly force?

A

Keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle

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4
Q

What are the standing rules of engagement ROE for US forces?

A

Permits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense

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5
Q

What are the two distinct categories of rules of engagement?

A

Self-defense and mission accomplishment

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6
Q

What should not be confused with the rules of engagement during peacetime operations within a US territory?

A

Rules for use of force

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7
Q

Conscious verbal communication occurs when?

A

Words are chosen carefully during a conversation

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8
Q

How do you place a suspect on foot into the final challenge position?

A

Command, raise your hands above your head, spread your fingers, and spread your feet, and point your toes outward

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9
Q

Prior to applying handcuffs, you game positive control of a subject by grasping the

A

Ring or middle finger

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10
Q

When conducting a search of an individual, for quickness, your search should be

A

Systematic and thorough

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11
Q

What type of search is primarily used on suspects who do not appear dangerous, violent, or so drunk they cannot stand under their own power?

A

Standing

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12
Q

When compared to deadly force, nonlethal force is subject to what type of standards?

A

Same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force

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13
Q

What is the level of force necessary to compel a subjects compliance and is neither likely nor intended to cause death?

A

Intermediate use of force

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14
Q

What combative technique is used to protect your head from strikes while in the ready stance?

A

Comb blocks

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15
Q

How do you attain weapons retention during the rear mount?

A

My rolling onto your weapon side, keeping holstered weapon pinned against the ground

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16
Q

To ensure the safety of the patrol officer and for legal precautions, what should you do before placing suspect in a security forces vehicle for transporting?

A

Search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband

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17
Q

What are the minimum requirements anytime you’re transporting a member of the opposite sex?

A

Have an additional patrol officer as a passenger

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18
Q

To whom do you release civilians who commit and minor offense in areas with concurrent jurisdiction?

A

Military sponsor

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19
Q

Which of the following is not a reason to make an entry without search authority?

A

To secure an unlocked door

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20
Q

When processing a crime scene, when would you normally cover the body of a deceased person?

A

After it has been fully processed for evidence

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21
Q

What are the two types of sketches normally made of the crime scene?

A

Rough and finished

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22
Q

What documents establishes the rules of evidence for the military

A

Manual for courts Marshall

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23
Q

From who must you obtain approval before disposing of crime scene evidence?

A

Staff judge advocate

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24
Q

Which uniform code of military justice article covers the wrong for use and possession of a controlled substance?

A

Article 112a

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25
When dealing with controlled substance substances, how is wrongfulness defined? And action done
Without legal justification or authorization
26
What agency has primary jurisdiction for serious child abuse or neglect involving infliction of serious bodily harm?
Air Force office of special investigations
27
What type of mandatory training is needed if you are armed with an expandable baton?
Initial and annual refresher
28
How long should a direct pepper spray burst at the subjects facial area last?
One second
29
How many Barb projectiles does the electronic control device neuromuscular incapacitation system use when fired?
Two
30
What form will be completed in all instances where an apprehension is made?
AF form 3545
31
What is conducted during a domestic dispute/violence call to assess the immediate danger to family members and need for medical assistance or protective custody?
Interview
32
Which of the following is not one of the three types of child abuse?
Mental abuse
33
Child pornography and child prostitution or examples of what type of child abuse?
Sexual
34
What type of child abuse is exemplified by not providing nourishment, deprivation of necessities, and not providing appropriate shelter, or clothing?
Neglect
35
What characteristics you can show at your initial contact with the sexual assault/rape victim can make a difference in the emotional state of the victim?
Your tact and poise
36
What is defined as a threat or attempt to strike another, whether successful or not, provided the target is aware of the danger?
Assault
37
What type of assault is punishable in all states as a felony and is committed when I defend it tends to do more than merely frighten the victim?
Aggravated assault
38
What are the four phases of the judicial process in which you must brief all victims and witnesses on in the victim/witness assistance program?
Response, investigation, prosecution, and confinement
39
What type of crowd is identified as individuals or small groups with nothing in common to bind them together?
Casual
40
The use of the right baton is based on who's appraisal of the situation in his or her choice of force option?
Commander
41
Which riot control formation is used as an offensive formation to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups?
Wedge
42
Which force protection measures taken to render a threat or hazard in capable of interfering with AF operations?
Negate
43
Which control authority is exercise through the subordinate joint force commander's or functional component commanders?
Operational control
44
Which type of lighting is a low illumination light used in nuclear restricted areas?
Very near infrared VNIR
45
How many feet apart would you display restricted areas signs along restricted area boundaries?
100 feet
46
What type of force is required at all installation support and protection level PL one, two, or three resources?
Security response team SRT
47
The letter E next to it and unblock his number on a restricted area badge I didn't find that an individual is authorized to
Escort personnel into those restricted areas
48
What type of centuries controls the entry into aircraft when the aircraft is caring specific protection level PL one assets?
Close in century CIS
49
How often must be approving authority review all permanent security deviations
Every year
50
What form is used to document security deviation and is submitted through command channels?
AF form 116
51
At what level does the nuclear roadmap focuses primarily on the stewardship of the nuclear mission?
Operational
52
What concept was designed to prevent a loan individual from having complete knowledge of the entire nuclear weapons launch function?
Split knowledge
53
In the case of a nuclear security system, three potential adversary groups of primary concern are criminals, protesters, and
Terrorists
54
Which nuclear weapons facility is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons in the world?
Kirtland underground munitions maintenance storage complex KUMMSC, USA
55
Vegetation and clear zones will not exceed how many inches in height inside restricted areas containing with nuclear weapons storage facilities?
8 inches
56
Up to how many persons can be escorted inside an exclusion area press "official?
Six
57
Who ensures that the post installation needs to person concept requirements and no loan zones are delineated around nuclear logistics aircraft?
Couriers
58
Only personal certified through what program or the host nation equivalent at a weapon storage and security system WS3 installations can be permitted unescorted entry into exclusion areas or can't perform escort duties with an exclusion areas?
Nuclear weapons personnel reliability program PRP
59
D CNI what security team is routinely dispatched with a missile maintenance team, provide security for a penetrated launch facility, and establishes site security?
Security escort team S ET
60
What type of electronic sensor must consist of an approved balanced magnetic switch where other type of sensor capable of detecting intrusions at the opening?
Point Detection
61
Who can make a judgment on the reliability of each individual identified for personnel reliability program PRP duties?
Certifying official
62
What are the two types of removal within the personnel reliability program PRP?
Suspension and decertification
63
What type of nuclear inspection assesses the units ability to accomplish it's assigned nuclear weapons mission and produce reliable nuclear weapons in a safe and secure environment and compliance with applicable directives?
Nuclear surety inspection
64
Which term defines a designated area immediately surrounding one or more nuclear weapons and/or systems?
Exclusion area
65
What community policing philosophy helps improve the overall quality of life in the neighborhood?
Greater community voice and setting police priorities
66
Which contravention program allows some people to report their observations to please only when they know they can remain anonymous?
Operation crime stop
67
What does code 3 indicate one security forces personnel or making an emergency response?
Use of emergency lights and siren
68
How do you accomplish a double abreast position during a high-risk traffic stop?
Back up patrol vehicle parts parallel and to the right or left of the primary patrol vehicle
69
How should you position your vehicle at the scene of an accident?
To protect the scene and injured persons while not creating a traffic hazard
70
When directing traffic on a very narrow or one-way street, it is best for you to stand
Off to the side of the road
71
Speed measuring devices are used to control speed, increase compliance with traffic laws, and
Conduct speed studies
72
It is important that you receive official certification of your qualifications and training standards when training on speed measuring devices so the evidence is admissible
In both a civilian and military court
73
What shape is the radio wave energy transmitted by police traffic radar concentrated into?
Cone
74
Security forces personal use the standard field Sebright he test SFST approved by the
National Highway traffic safety administration
75
Prior to using any alcohol or chemical detection equipment You must advise the suspects
Of the implied consent policy
76
How long must you observe a person before collecting a breath specimen?
20 minutes
77
Once completed, who is giving the second copy of the AF form 52, evidence tag?
Person relinquishing possession of the property
78
What happens to the original copy of AF form 75, visitor/vehicle pass, once you have completed it?
It is given to the individual
79
And how many copies is the AF form 1109, visitor registration log, prepared?
One
80
How many sections does the AF form 1168, statement of suspect/witness/complainant, have?
Six
81
On the reverse side of the air form 1176, authority to search and seize, or bond sheet of paper, you must write or type a
Probable cause statement
82
A traffic accident is classified as a major traffic accident anytime
An accident involves a fatality, injury, or property damage above the amount established by the installation commander
83
What must you do if during a search, the individual with drawls the previous consent to search?
Terminate the search immediately
84
Who uses section 7, administrative disposition, of the AF form 3545, incident report?
Security forces reports and analysis
85
The AF 3907, security forces field interview data is used to record
Routine contact between security forces members and members of the public
86
DD form 1408, Armed Forces traffic ticket, is issued to someone who
Commits a moving or nonmoving traffic offense
87
What copy of the DD form 1408, Armed Forces traffic ticket, is given to the violator or affixed to the violators vehicle if the vehicle is unattended?
Pink
88
Who is the only person authorized avoid the DD form 1805, United States District Court violation notice?
Defense force commander
89
Where on DD form 1920, alcohol incident report, would you annotate the results of the suspects blood alcohol chemical test?
Section 3, standardization field Sebright he testing
90
You use the DD form 2708, received for pre-trial/post trial prisoner or detained person, when
Security forces personnel are releasing an individual who has been detained or apprehended
91
What is the primary method for identifying observations and potential lessons identified?
After action report
92
Within how many days from the event at refers will an after action report be submitted?
30
93
When you write a well written incident report that answers the six basic questions of who, what, when, where, why, and how, this report for Phils the characteristics of being
Complete
94
How do you read a grid map in order to find a grid Coordinates
From left to right, bottom to top
95
Which agency assumes lead responsibilities for terrorist and high risk incidents within US territories?
Department of justice
96
What must be established at each incident site?
Cordon and entry control.
97
How should you mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas?
Elevated markers
98
What type of search consist of searching all areas of a vehicle without disassembling any part of the vehicle?
Simple
99
What type of search consist of a much more detailed search and may often require partial or total disassembly of the vehicle?
Complete
100
What must the SF on scene commander evaluate before making the decision on how to search an area?
Situation, to rain, weather, light, and number of searchers available