Sexually transmitted infections Flashcards

1
Q

Management of Pelvic inflammatory disease with suspected gonococcal infection (gonorrhoea)

A

Recommended treatment for high-risk gonococcal infection includes ceftriaxone (1g IM) followed by 14 days of metronidazole (400mg orally twice daily) and doxycycline (100mg orally twice daily).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Management of Trichomonas Vaginalis

A

Metronidazole 400–500 mg twice daily for 5–7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the classic presentation of Trichomonas Vaginalis?

A

Post-coital bleeding, a malodorous green discharge, dyspareunia, vulvo-vaginal irritation and urethritis.

pH >4.5

Examination reveals cervicitis, with erythema of the cervix. “Strawberry cervix”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the primary features of Syphilis?

A

Chancre - painless ulcer
Lymphadenopathy
often not seen in women (the lesion may be on the cervix)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What causes Syphilis?

A

spirochaete Treponema pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Secondary features of Syphilis (6-10 weeks after primary infection)

A
  • fever
  • rash on trunk, palms and soles
  • buccal ulcers
  • condylomata lata (warty lesions)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Tertiary features of Syphilis

A

Gummas (granulomatous lesions of the skin and bones)
Ascending aortic aneurysms
General paralysis of the insane
Tabes dorsalis - slow degeneration of the nerve cells and nerve fibers that carry sensory information to the brain
Argyll-Robertson pupil - bilateral small pupils that fail to constrict in response to bright light but exhibit constriction during near vision tasks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Causative organism of Chlamydia

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Female specific chlamydia symptoms

A

cervicitis (discharge, bleeding), dysuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Male specific chlamydia symptoms

A

urethral discharge, dysuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Potential complications of chlamydia

A

  1. pelvic inflammatory disease
  2. endometritis
  3. increased incidence of ectopic pregnancies
  4. infertility
  5. reactive arthritis
  6. perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome) - RUQ pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is chlamydia detected?

A

nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) are now the investigation of choice.

In women: vulvovaginal swab

In men: urine test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Treatment for chlamydia infection

A

doxycycline (7 day course)

If contraindicated, azithromycin (1g od for one day, then 500mg od for two days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Treatment for chlamydia infection in pregnancy

A

Azithromycin 1g stat is the drug of choice ‘following discussion of the balance of benefits and risks with the patient’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What organism causes gonorrhoea?

A

Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Features seen in male gonorrhoea

A

urethral discharge, dysuria

17
Q

Features seen in female gonorrhoea

A

cervicitis, leading to vaginal discharge

18
Q

Local complications of gonorrhoeal infection

A

urethral strictures - strictures in the urethra
epididymitis - inflammation of the testis
salpingitis - inflammation of the fallopian tubes

19
Q

First line treatment for gonorrhoeal infection

A

Single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g
If sensitivities are known, then oral ciprofloxacin 500mg should be given

20
Q

What is given to patients who are needle phobic (For gonorrhoea tx)?

A

oral cefixime 400mg (single dose) + oral azithromycin 2g (single dose) should be used

21
Q

What is the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults?

A

gonococcal infection

22
Q

Common complication of gonorrhoea

A

Disseminated gonococcal infection

23
Q

Triad of DGI

A

tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis and dermatitis.

24
Q

What is seen on wet mount microscopy slide for Trichomonas?

A

Motile trophozites

25
Q

What causes bacterial vaginosis?

A

Gardnerella vaginalis, causes a fall in lactic acid producing aerobic lactobacilli, raises the vaginal pH above 4.5

26
Q

Features of BV

A

vaginal discharge: ‘fishy’, offensive
asymptomatic in 50%

27
Q

What are Amsel’s criteria for BV diagnosis?

A
  1. thin, white homogenous discharge
  2. clue cells on microscopy: stippled vaginal epithelial cells
  3. vaginal pH > 4.5
  4. positive whiff test (addition of potassium hydroxide results in fishy odour)
28
Q

If a patient is symptomatic for BV, what treatment is recommended?

A

Oral metronidazole for 5-7 days

29
Q

Causative organisms of Pelvic inflammatory disease

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

+ the most common cause
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Mycoplasma genitalium
Mycoplasma hominis

30
Q

What is Pelvic Inflammatory disease?

A

a term used to describe infection and inflammation of the female pelvic organs including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries and the surrounding peritoneum.

It is usually the result of ascending infection from the endocervix.

31
Q

What is a Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?

A

Reaction to intramuscular benzathine penicillin for syphilis treatment. Not anaphylaxis, it is due to the release of endotoxins following bacterial death and typically occurs within a few hours of treatment

32
Q

If a patient with BV does not want metronidazole, which treatment can be given?

A

Topical clindamycin cream 2%

33
Q

Why is BV ALWAYS treated in pregnancy?

A

BV results in an increased risk of preterm labour, low birth weight and chorioamnionitis, late miscarriage