Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Endo/Repro Exam 2 > Sexually Transmitted Diseases > Flashcards

Sexually Transmitted Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What bacteria causes syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What type of bacteria is Treponema pallidum?

A

Gram-negative spirochete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is primary syphilis characterized?

A

Single, Hard, Painless chancre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How is secondary syphilis characterized?

A

Systemic so Fever, Rash, Condyloma Latum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is tertiary syphilis characterized?

A

15-20 years later so Chronic meningitis, Ataxia, Aortic valve insufficiency, Gummas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What occurs in congenital syphilis?

A 
Rhinitis
Skin and mucus lesions
Hepatosplenomegaly
Hutchinson's teeth
Saddle-shaped nose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is syphilis diagnosed?

A

Dark field microscopy
Fluorescent antibodies
Nonspecific serology
Specific serology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the nonspecific serology tests for syphilis?

A

Venereal disease research laboratory test (VDRL)

Rapid plasma reagin test (RPR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is used as the antigen in nonspecific tests and why?

A

Cardiolipin from beef hearts

Spirochetes cannot be cultured for use as an antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are nonspecific serology used for and why only that?

A

Only for screening

Can be a false positive from damaged normal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the specific serology tests for syphilis?

A 
Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test (FTA-ABS)
Microhemagglutination test (MHA-TP)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is FTA-ABS test done?

A

Patient serum first absorbed with nonpathogenic treponemes to remove any anti-treponema antibodies that are not specific for only the bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is MHA-TP test done?

A

Treponemal antigens on RBC to see if they agglutinate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What occurs nonspecific and specific tests after effective treatment?

A

Nonspecific: are negative
Specific: are positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Easy way to remember is a syphilis test is specific?

A

It has “T” in the abbreviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What antibody is looked for in congenital syphilis?

A

IgM not IgG because IgG can cross the placenta but IgM cannot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What do you treat syphilis with?

A

Penicillin

Doxycycline if they are allergic to penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What causes gonorrhea?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A

Gram-negative diploccus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where is Neisseria gonorrhoeae seen?

A

Inside neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does Neisseria gonorrhoeae have to help stay attached in urethra?

A

Pilus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which patients present with gonorrhea symptoms?

A

Men

Females are asymptomatic until it is very advanced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What occurs in women once gonorrhea advances?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease
Infertility
Tubal pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why does infertility and tubal pregnancy occur in women in advanced stages of gonorrhea and chlamydia?

A

Scar tissue in fallopian tubes occurs not allowing fertilized egg down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What can occur in blood with gonorrhea?

A

Disseminated gonorrheal infections that manifest in skin and joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How is gonorrhea treated?

A

Cefixime and Ceftriaxone (1 dose) and Doxycycline (7 days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Why is doxycycline given in gonorrhea?

A

To treat the chlamydia that often is accompanied by it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What causes genital chlamydia infections?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes D-K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is Chlamydia trachomatis?

A

Gram-negative intracellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is gonorrhea discharge like?

A

Yellow and purulent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is chlamydia discharge like?

A

Clear or white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Chlamydia symptoms in males and females?

A

Males: dysuria
Females: asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What agar is Chlamydia trachomatis grown on?

A

McCoy agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does Chlamydia trachomatis form when cultured?

A 
Inclusion bodies (intracellular)
Elementary bodies (extracellular/infectious form)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What do you treat Chlamydia with?

A

Doxycycline or azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)?

A

A systemic Chlamydia trachomatis infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What causes LGV?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes L1, L2, L3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

LGV symptoms:

A

Transient ulcer
Enlarged lymph nodes
Proctitis (rectum inflammation) (what most come to doctor for)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is chancroid?

A

A soft chancre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is a soft chancre?

A

Soft multiple painful ulcers

41
Q

What causes chancroid?

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

42
Q

What are Haemophilus ducreyi?

A

Gram-negative bacilli

43
Q

What is bacterial vaginosis?

A

Overgrowth of bacterial in the vagina

44
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial vaginosis?

A

Gardnerella vaginosis

45
Q

What is Gardnerella vaginosis?

A

Gram variable pleomorphic bacillus

46
Q

What characterizes bacterial vaginosis?

A

Fishy smelling vagina

pH greater than 4.5

47
Q

What causes overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina?

A

Decreased estrogen which decreases the amount of glycogen created in epithelial cells not allowing lactobacilli to thrive

48
Q

Treatment of bacterial vaginosis?

A

Metronidazole

49
Q

What does Metronidazole kill?

A

Anaerobes
Flagellates
Amoeba

50
Q

What is seen in a vaginal swab of bacterial vaginosis?

A

Clue cells: epithelial cells with fuzzy borders due to excessive amounts of bacteria attached to them

51
Q

What is the cause of the fishy smell in vaginosis?

A

Trimethylamine

52
Q

What causes vulvovaginitis?

A

Overgrowth of endogenous Candida albicans

53
Q

Treatment of vulvovaginitis/thrush?

A 
Nystatin (topical)
Amphotericin B (IV)
54
Q

What is seen with a vulvovaginitis swab?

A

Pseudohyphae

55
Q

How can vaginal thrush occur?

A

Too much glycogen (increase in estrogen)

56
Q

How does trichomoniasis present in men and women?

A

Men: asymptomatic
Women: smelly discharge

57
Q

How is trichomoniasis characterized compared to vaginosis in women?

A

Trichomoniasis: Large amount of discharge
Vaginosis: smelly discharge not alot

58
Q

What causes trichomoniasis?

A

Trichomonis vaginalis

59
Q

Treatment of trichomoniasis?

A

Metronidazole (its a flagellate)

60
Q

General rule for herpes virus?

A

HSV-1: above belt

HSV-2: below belt

61
Q

Where does dormant HSV reside?

A

Dorsal root ganglia

62
Q

What does HSV cause in babies?

A

Diffuse neonatal encephalitis

63
Q

Treatment of HSV?

A

Acyclovir (IV)

Valacyclovir (oral)

64
Q

What causes condyloma acuminatum?

A

HPV genotypes 6 and 11

65
Q

What causes cervical cancer and lesions?

A

HPV 16 and 18

66
Q

Condyloma acuminata versus lata?

A

Acuminata: raised multiple from HPV
Lata: flat top, secondary syphillis

67
Q

Why is prevalence of HIV high despite incidence being down?

A

Prevalence: amount of people with it (still alive)
Incidence: new cases

68
Q

What two HIVs are found and where?

A

HIV-1: pandemic globally and US more infectious

HIV-2: West Africa not as infectious

69
Q

HIV-1 groups?

A

M
N
O

70
Q

Most common HIV-1 group and subtypes of the group?

A

M most common

Subtypes: A-J

71
Q

HIV-2 subtypes?

A

A-F

72
Q

Three functional genes of HIV?

A

gag
pol
env

73
Q

What does gag encode?

A

Capsid protein p24
Matrix protein p17
(core proteins)

74
Q

What does pol encode?

A

Protease
Reverse transcriptase
Integrase

75
Q

What does env encode?

A

Viral glycoproteins: gp41 and gp120

76
Q

What glycoproteins are found on HIV?

A

GP120 (head)

GP41 (stem)

77
Q

What is looked for in the diagnosis of HIV?

A

p24

78
Q

What cells does HIV infect?

A

Cells with CD-4 receptors (helper cells)

79
Q

What are the co-receptors found on cells with CD-4 receptors?

A

CCR5

CXCR4

80
Q

What binds the receptors then the co-receptors?

A

gp120

81
Q

What is the preference of HIV to co-receptors?

A

Initially wants CCR5 (needed to start infection) then evolves more so to CXCR4

82
Q

What from HIV fuses with the cells membrane?

A

gp41

83
Q

How does HIV infection begin?

A

HIV picks helper cells (dendritic or macrophages) to become a pro-virus host and allows it to replicate (for its own DNA to be replicated also); Virus makes its way to the GALT

84
Q

What is CTL/CD-8 cells role in HIV infection and why is it important?

A

They attack and kill infected CD-4 cells; however, CTL cells kill the CD-4 cells that are needed for their own activation

85
Q

Why does HIV switch from CCR5 to CXCR4 co-receptor?

A

CCR5 is on mature CD-4 cells when they kill are the mature ones they switch to CXCR4 which is found on naive CD-4 cells

86
Q

What is acute HIV syndrome or acute retroviral syndrome?

A

Fever and lymphadenopathy in the initial infection

87
Q

Why is HIV easier to transmit rectally than vaginally?

A

Rectum has simple columnar epithelium and the vagina has stratified squamous epithelium; the more layers the harder to penetrate

88
Q

Is HIV transmitted intrauterine?

A

No, only when going through vaginal canal like HSV

89
Q

How long does acute retroviral syndrome last, what does it mimic and why does it subside?

A

Lasts 2-4 weeks
Looks like mononucleosis
Immune system responds to suppress

90
Q

What characterizes AIDS?

A

CD-4 T cells less than 200 cells/mm cubed

91
Q

What are three common infections reactivated in AIDS?

A

HSV
Toxoplasma
JVC

92
Q

What is JVC?

A

Demyelinating disease called progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (oligodendrocytes targeted)

93
Q

What are six common opportunistic infections and tumors associated with AIDS and their symptoms?

A

EBV: hairy leukoplakia along lateral side of tongue
Candida: oral thrush
Kaposi sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (HHV-8): sarcomas in the immunosupressed
Pneumocystis jerovecii: pneumonia
CMV: retinitis and blindness
Cryptosporidium: diarrhea

94
Q

Where does HIV naturally like to go?

A

It is neurotropic so microglial cells in CNS

95
Q

What is HAART (highly active antiretroviral therapy)?

A

2 NRTI + 1 PI/NNRTI/INSTI

targets pol genes effects

96
Q

Ways drugs stop HIV?

A 
CCR5 blocker
gp41 blocker (fusion inhibitor)
97
Q

What is a more specific test for HIV than ELISA?

A

Western blot

98
Q

Vertically transmitted infections mnemonic?

A

ToRCHeS

99
Q

What is in ToRCHeS?

A 
Toxoplasma gondii
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes, HIV, HBV (hepatitis B)
Syphilis

Endo/Repro Exam 2 (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions