Sexual health gynae Flashcards
A 27 yr old lady with a diagnosis of PID. She was treated with oral doxycycline. After 3 days there was no improvement. A 8cm swelling was found on ultrasound in POD. What is the appropriate management?
A - laparoscopy
B - laparotomy
C - culdotomy
D - change to IV cefotaxime plus oral doxycycline
E - transvaginal ultrasound guided aspiration
D - change to IV cefotaxime plus oral doxycycline
*CHECK as other answer says E…
Haven’t seen RANZCOG answer
A patient presents after a Pap smear showing Actinomycoses on Gram stain. Your immediate management plan would include.
A - treat with antibiotics with the IUCD in situ
B - remove the IUCD and resmear in 3 months
C - repeat the Pap smear
D - remove the IUCD and treat with antibiotics
E - reassure the patient
E - reassure the patient
If asymptomatic, don’t need to remove
- Smears in asymptomatic women reveal Actinomyces-like organisms (ALO) in ~7% of IUC users
- If pelvic pain present with ALO on smear, consider other infective causes and do formal culture for Actinomyces
The percentage of woman who experience at least one episode of vaginal candidiasis in their reproductive years:
A - 20% B - 35% C - 50% D - 70% E - 90%
D - 70%
A patient has antenatal booking bloods performed. The result is Hep B core antigen positive, Hep B surface Antigen negative, Hep B surface antibody negative. The most likely explanation is:
a. The result is a false positive
b. The patient is a chronic carrier of Hepatitis B infection
c. The surface antibody will become positive soon
d. The patient is immune to Hepatitis B infection
c. The surface antibody will become positive soon
A 14yo girl comes requesting the combined oral contraceptive pill for period pain. During the consultation you discover that she is in an apparently consensual sexual relationship with her mother’s boyfriend, who is 39. Her mother is not aware of the relationship. Your NEXT STEP is to
a. Contact the Child Health Service (CYF in NZ / DOCS in Australia)
b. Contact the social worker
c. Contact the mothers partner
d. Prescribe her the pill
a. Contact the Child Health Service (CYF in NZ / DOCS in Australia)
Which of the following statements concerning needle stick injuries is LEAST CORRECT
a. Hepatitis C transmission will occur in approximately 2% of cases where the patient is Hep C positive
b. Hepatitis B transmission will occur in approximately 30% of cases where the patient is hepatitis B S Ag positive and the health worker has not been immunised.
c. HIV transmission will occur in approximately 0.3% of cases where the patient is HIV positive and no chemoprophylaxis is administered
d. The risk of contracting Hepatitis C from a blood transfusion is approximately 1 in a million
a. Hepatitis C transmission will occur in approximately 2% of cases where the patient is Hep C positive
As per RANZCOG MCQs August 2008
RANZCOG guideline quotes 1-3% BUT only if Hep C viral RNA positive
Which of the following antibiotics is LEAST effective in the treatment of infections caused by bacterial vaginosis
a. Cefoxitin
b. Clindamycin
c. Gentamicin
d. Metronidazole
c. Gentamicin
All of the following regarding Chlamydia are true EXCEPT
a. The organism is transmitted primarily by intercourse
b. The majority of infected women are symptomatic
c. The organism may cause acute salpingitis
d. Infertility may follow acute or chronic infections
b. The majority of infected women are symptomatic
O
Which organism causes lymphogranuloma venereum
a. Haemophilus ducreyi
b. Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
c. Gardnerella vaginalis
d. Chlaymdia trachomatis
e. Corynebacterium donovaniae
d. Chlaymdia trachomatis
O
L1-L3
Small asymptomatic skin lesions, followed by regional lymphadenopathy in groin or pelvis.
Calymmatobacterium granulomatis = Klebsiella
A 40 year old Indian woman presents for a routine Pap smear. On examination you notice a small group of vesicles on her right buttock. On questioning she claims that this is a problem she has intermittently on and off for many years. The MOST LIKELY diagnosis is
a. Dermatitis artifacta
b. Drug eruption
c. Recurrent HSV2
d. Lymphogranuloma venereum
c. Recurrent HSV2
O
All of the following regarding genital herpes are TRUE, EXCEPT:
a. The acquisition of HSV type I offers some protection against HSV type II
b. HSV type II is more common of genital herpes than HSV type I
c. Acyclovir treatment of the acute disease significantly reduces the recurrence (recrudescence) rate
d. Women with cervical cancer have a higher prevalence of HSV antibodies
c. Acyclovir treatment of the acute disease significantly reduces the recurrence (recrudescence) rate
O
Prior HSV-1 makes HSV-2 infection more likely to be asymptomatic
Which statement about actinomycosis is NOT true?
a. It is associated with Toxic Shock Syndrome.
b. It occurs with a Lippes loop IUD
c. It can be recognised by cervical cytology.
d. It is best treated by intra-muscular penicillin
a. It is associated with Toxic Shock Syndrome
O
Which is NOT TRUE of Hepatitis C
a. Sexual transmission is rare (<1%)
b. After seroconversion, approximately 50% will become carriers
c. Vertical transmission is very rare with breastfeeding
d. Vertical transmission occurs in approximately 5% of carriers
b. After seroconversion, approximately 50% will become carriers
O
Significant risk (80%) of chronic infection With treatment, cure rates of >95%
The treatment of choice for secondary syphilis is
a. Procaine penicillin 5 million units IV
b. Benzanthine penicillin, 2.4 million units IM
c. Ampicillin 500mg QID for 7 days
d. Doxycycline 100mg QID for 7 days
e. Ofloxacin 400mg BD for 7 days
b. Benzanthine penicillin, 2.4 million units IM
O
All of the following statements concerning Treponema pallidum infection are correct EXCEPT:
A. syphilis can be transmitted from the skin lesions of secondary syphilis.
B. lesions of tertiary syphilis largely result from an immune response to Treponema pallidum and its products.
C. the VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) test is specific for Treponema pallidum infection.
D. secondary syphilis may cause loss of scalp hair and eyebrows
c. The VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) test is specific for Treponema pallidum infection
O
Non-specific - Detect antibodies that bind to antigens that are, or similar to, those expressed by Treponema pallidum or expressed on host tissues during infection
- VDRL
- RPR
- High false positive rate
Specific - Detect antibodies that bind to proteins derived from T. pallidum
- TPPA
- TPHA
- FTA test
- EIA
Which of the following is the MOST APPROPRIATE treatment
a. Erythromycin for a 28 week pregnant patient with syphilis and a penicillin allergy
b. Ampicillin for a 15yo with pelvic inflammatory disease
c. Ketoconazole for a 25yo with Trichomonas
d. Tetracycline for a recent immigrant with granuloma inguinale
d. Tetracycline for a recent immigrant with granuloma inguinale
O
Otherwise known as donovanosis
Rare sexually transmitted disease caused by the bacteria Klebsiella granulomatis
It leads to chronic inflammation and scarring of the genital
Should pregnancy occur after use of the Yuzpe post coital contraception regime (100mcg Ethinyloestradiol with 500mcg levonorgestrel repeated at 12 hours) the particular concern about the resulting pregnancies is that
a. The rate of miscarriage is increased
b. An ectopic pregnancy is more likely than usual
c. The child, if a boy, is more likely to have hypospadias
d. The chance of molar pregnancy is increased
b. An ectopic pregnancy is more likely than usual
O
Which of the following is LEAST TRUE of depot provera?
a. Amenorrhoea is expected in 50% at 12 months
b. Amenorrhoea is expected in 95% at 24 months
c. There is a modest reduction in bone mineral density compared to controls
d. DMPA is good contraception for women with epilepsy
e. A satisfactory regime is 150mg DMPA Intramuscular every 12 weeks
b. Amenorrhoea is expected in 95% at 24 months
O
More like 75%
A 62yo woman comes to see you requesting sterilisation of her 20yo daughter who has Down Syndrome. The mother states her daughter is having unprotected sex. She lives at home with her parents as is dependent on them. You inform her that:
a. This can be performed once reversible options fail
b. This can only be done with her daughters consent
c. This can be done as LARC is not appropriate
d. State guardianship approval is necessary for this to be done
d. State guardianship approval is necessary for this to be done
O
Advantages of Depot provera include everything EXCEPT
a. No significant effect on coagulation
b. No significant effect on BP
c. Low incidence of menstrual disturbance
d. No suppression of lactation when used post partum
e. No reported deaths directly attributable to the drug
c. Low incidence of menstrual disturbance
O
The Pearl Index is expressed as the
a. Percentage of women who become pregnant using a particular contraceptive
b. Percentage of women who become do not become pregnant using a particular contraceptive
c. Number of pregnancies per 100 women-years use of a particular contraceptive
d. Number or pregnancies per 1000 woman years use of a particular contraceptive
c. Number of pregnancies per 100 women-years use of a particular contraceptive
O
A 17yo sexually active high school student on the combined oral contraceptive starts to complain of spotty vaginal bleeding. She has been on the pill for 12 months without any problems. She should
a. Have her prescription changed to a brand with a higher oestrogen dose
b. Have her prescription changed to a brand with a higher progestogen dose
c. Come to the office to be evaluated for evidence of Sexually transmitted infection
d. Be given supplementary oestrogen (1.25mg conjugated oestrogens) daily for the next two menstrual cycles
c. Come to the office to be evaluated for evidence of Sexually transmitted infection
O
Oral contraceptives are associated with a decreased rate of each of the following EXCEPT
a. PID
b. Ectopic pregnancy
c. Cervical cancer
d. Endometrial cancer
e. Endometriosis
c. Cervical cancer
O
Lower rates of PID because change in mucous at cervix
Which is INCORRECT?
a. Norethisterone and Norethynodrel are first generation progestogens
b. Levonorgestrel is a second generation progestogen and more potent than norethisterone
c. Triphasic OCP’s containing second generation progestogens are associated with a less favourable lipid profile than monophasic preparations containing the same progestogens
d. Desogestrel, gestodene and norgestimate are third generation progestogens and are less androgenic than levonorgestrel
e. OCP’s containing third generation progestogens have been associated with an increase in HDL cholesterol
f. OCP’s containing third generation progestogens have been associated with a two fold increase in venous thromboembolism, although this may have been due to prescription bias
c. Triphasic OCP’s containing second generation progestogens are associated with a less favourable lipid profile than monophasic preparations containing the same progestogens
O
Triphasic means cycling through different progesterone every 7days.
The failure rate among typical users of which contraception method is <1%
a. Combined oral contraceptives
b. Depot Medroxyprogesterone acetate
c. Progesterone only contraceptives
d. Condoms
b. Depot Medroxyprogesterone acetate
O
This is an incorrect answer.
FSRH says typical use 94% effective and perfect use 99.8%
Danazol causes all of the following EXCEPT
a. Exacerbation of fibrocystic disease of the breasts
b. Clitoral hypertrophy in female fetuses when given to the mother during pregnancy
c. Labial fusion in female fetuses when given to the mother during pregnancy
d. Acne
e. Fluid retention
a. Exacerbation of fibrocystic disease of the breasts
While danazol is effective at treating endometriosis-related pain, it is not commonly used because of androgenic side effects.
Used to treat fibrocystic breast disease.
Which of the following is FALSE
a. The risk of VTE in pregnancy is approximately 60:100 000 woman-years
b. The risk of VTE with the COCP is approximately 15:100 000 woman-years
c. The risk of VTE with the COCP is greater in a pill with 50mcg rather than 30mcg of ethinyoestradiol
d. The risk of VTE with the COCP is less with the pills that contain gestodene or desogestrel
d. The risk of VTE with the COCP is less with the pills that contain gestodene or desogestrel
O
Concerning medically induced abortion with mifepristone (RU486), which of the following is LEAST CORRECT
a. An established regimen is mifepristone 600mg orally, followed by 800mcg vaginal misoprostol 36-48 hours later
b. Mifepristone has been used for medically induced termination of pregnancy in Europe for over 15 years
c. Mifepristone has been approved for use by the FDA in the United States
d. Most trials indicate that mifepristone and misoprostol is less acceptable to a majority of women than surgical termination
d. Most trials indicate that mifepristone and misoprostol is less acceptable to a majority of women than surgical termination
O
NZF and MEDSAFE say 600mg mifepristone is OK, can also do 200mg
