Set I Flashcards
1
Q
What is the definition of morality?
A
Morality—personal belief system derived from family, school, religion, environment.
2
Q
What is the definition of professional ethics?
A
Professional ethics—commonly held (and written down) values that guide professional behavior.
3
Q
Identify the five areas that form the foundation of trust.
A
Autonomy, beneficence, nonmaleficence, justice, confidentiality.
4
Q
When can you engage in a nontherapeutic relationship with a patient?
A
Generally, anytime there is a differential in power between the staff and the patient it is unacceptable.
5
Q
What is the American Medical Association’s stance regarding sexual activities with patients?
A
Sexual activities with patients are unethical.
6
Q
What is the patient’s perception of the quality of care based upon?
A
It is created by his or her interactions with members of the health care team.
7
Q
What are the five principles of communication?
A
The components, goals, settings/attitudes involved, and knowing what you say and saying what you mean.
8
Q
What influences the patients assessment of treatment worth and overall success of a treatment program?
Hint: how you behave towards 3 individuals.
A
Behavior towards the patient, coworkers, and professional staff.
9
Q
Define acceptance.
A
Acknowledging that patients have the right to act as they do within limits.
10
Q
What should you do if you’re in doubt about a feeling the patient has expressed?
A
Paraphrase the words back toward the patient.
11
Q
Describe a civil tort liability.
A
It is when the military personell is held accountable for the wrong doing of a patient under their care in a court of law.
12
Q
Define assault.
A
Threat of physical harm which generates a fear of unwanted touching or imminent bodily harm.
13
Q
Define the two types of defamation of character.
A
Libel, written, and oral, slander.
14
Q
What are some examples of negligence that can occur in a patient setting?
A
Failure to inform, notify, causation, and damages.
15
Q
Who is responsible for diagnosing disorders or ordering treatment?
A
The provider/physician.
16
Q
What medical care is a minor allowed to consent to for treatment?
hint: 4 things.
A
A minor can consent to pregnancy/birth control counseling in some states, veneral disease, drug and alcohol abuse, and medical emergencies.
17
Q
Describe the conditions under which an unvoluntary admission usually occurs.
A
- Pt poses a threat to themselves or others, mentally incapable of self care
- When they are too ill to recognize their own illness or unable to act on their own behalf to protect their own interest
18
Q
When an active duty member is involuntarily admitted, what is the time period for an independent review?
A
72 hours.
19
Q
What did the surgeon general say concerning ethical issues concerning confidentiality?
A
Each profession that provides mental health care must embrace confidentiality as a core ethical principle.
20
Q
What organization besides congress has spelled out very specific human rights?
A
The Joint Commission.
21
Q
What can occur in the medical community without ethical controls?
A
The medical care will become depersonalized and mechanical.
22
Q
Who is the Joint Commission most interested in speaking to during an inspection?
A
You.
23
Q
What is the definition of a Joint Commission standard?
hint: a statement of expectation concerning what?
A
A statement of expectation concerning a level of requirement in quality of performance.
24
Q
What does the Joint Commission team do at the conclusion of their inspection?
A
Give final report which consists of composite score and a field memorandum.
25
Who makes the final decision regarding Joint Commission accreditation?
The Joint Commission Accreditation Committee.
26
What are the specific functions of the HSI (health service inspection)?
Hint: 4 bullets.
- evaluates prepardeness for mission readiness.
- provides objective appraisal for management
- recommends improvements, identify fraud, waste, and abuse.
- evaluates effectiveness/efficiency of resources.
27
What is the HSI scoring process based on?
It is based on the unit goal of meeting mission requirements.
28
What led the CDC to issue universal precautions in 85?
The spread of HIV.
29
What is the primary focus of standard precautions?
Prevent spread of HIV/hepatitis illness.
30
What are the responsibilities of the ICC (infection control committee)?
- collecting data on all infections acquired within the facility
- investigating the causes of any breakout of infections in the facility
- educating
31
Where has HIV been found and how has it spread?
HIV has been found in most body fluids. It is spread by direct contact with these fluids.
32
What is the minimum amount of time you should use to wash your hands with foam soap and warm water?
15 seconds.
33
How will you know if you haven't applied enough alcohol gel to clean your hands?
If they are dry after 10-15 seconds.
34
Identify the function of the neurological system.
The function of the neurological system is to receive and transmit messages from the brain.
35
The nervous system is divided into what two parts?
The peripheral and central nervous system.
36
What can affect the nervous system adversely?
last one, think Sanji
Smoking, lack of sleep, poor diet, stress.
37
What are your rights under the AFOSH program?
Hint: four things
- request inspection
- access of health/fire regulation
- decline a task due to belief bodily harm is near
- use official time to focus on AFOSH program
38
What AFI spells out your responsibilities under AFOSH?
AFI 91-301.
39
What are the five rights as it relates to drug administration.
Right drug, dose, patient, routine, time
40
What three elements should be separated to prevent a fire?
Oxygen, fuel, heat
41
What AF form is used for situations that could result in an accident?
AF 765.
42
Who recieves the recommendations and AF forms 765 once they are completed for corrective action?
MTF Commander.
43
What three factors are usually present to produce a crisis?
A trigger relating to the patient or a loved one, a memory associated with the event, and extent/nature of event.
44
What type of developmental crisis can often be predicted?
Developmental.
45
What kind of events usually result in a situational crisis?
Loss of a loved one, job, or natural disaster.
46
Define restriction.
To confine, or in literal terms, to restrain.
47
Identify six examples of preaggressive behavior
Asking about weapon items, pacing, hyperactivity, disturbed sleep, looking out windows, withdrawal.
48
How do you determine if seclusion is necessary?
If all other therapeutic approaches fail.
49
When should seclusion be used?
As a last resort.
50
What are the active phases of the assaultive cycle?
Trigger, escalation, crisis, recovery.
51
What is the most important part of body positioning for self protection?
45 degree angle and guarding the midsection.
52
What is the best method of response if the choke hold is applied?
The spinning choke release and yell.
53
What are the 3 factors to remember when you are alone and trying to control a patient?
- is there present danger?
- can you control the patient yourself?
- is there a possibility of injuring yourself or the patient?
54
In what situation is the single interim control hold suggested?
When guiding a confused, mildly reluctant patient.
55
When restraining a patient what purpose does the key word or movement serve?
The key word or movement serves the purpose of initiating the procedure.
56
If two restraints are used, where should they be placed?
One arm and the opposing leg.
57
What should be determined prior to the introduction of any medication?
Any physical etiology should be ruled out.
58
Define discrimination.
To make a clear distinction or act on the basis of prejudice.
59
What two nonverbal cues are considered important?
Eye contact and personal space.
60
What are the 4 comfort zones in western culture?
Intimate, personal, ,social, public.
61
What kind of key cultural skill might a counselor incorporate to their evaluation process?
Number of years in the country, generations, fluency in english, extent of family support, level of education, change of social status, obstacles associated with acculturation.
62
What are some suggested strategies to improve cultural competence?
Reading books, attending cultural events, talking to peers/supervisors, and patients.
63
What four catagories do sociologist classify with age?
- young old 65-75
- old 75-85
- old old 95-100
- elite old 100+
64
When is alcoholism addressed among the old aged?
When it is secondary to physical consequences of alcohol use.
65
During what time of period were baby boomers raised?
Following the post war prosperity of WWII.
66
What advances have women made since 1920's?
Equal pay, management positions, careers held by men, work in an environment free of harassment/glass ceilings.
67
Studies have shown women are typically over diagnosed with what disorders?
Dependent personality, borderline, anxiety disorders, depression.
68
What is the objective in administering any psychopharmocological restraint?
To decrease agitation by inducing a level of sedation.
69
Of all the venues for administering administration which method is considered the quickest?
Intravenous medication.
70
What aspect makes briefings most effective?
Being precise and compact?
71
How does the guided discussion method of teaching enhance learning?
By exchanging ideas, opinions, and experiences to reach conclusions that support the learning objectives
72
What are some of the disadvantages of the guided discussion?
Time-consuming, limited by class size, and limited to class knowledge and experience.
73
Which briefing is tailored for personnel on a second or subsequent permanent change of station?
Newcomers orientation.
74
During what time do Unit commanders ensure all personnel complete Suicide Awareness training?
20 months.
75
During what step of the lesson planning process would you modify an objective or rearrange points?
Researching the topic.
76
Support for your topic can be presented to an audience in what forms?
Definitions, examples, comparisons, testimony, and statistics.
77
What is the purpose of the motivation portion of the lesson?
To show the audience/students how the lesson relates to them and why they need to know the material.
78
What is AHLTA?
AHLTA is the military's electronic health record (EHR) and marks a significant new era in healthcare for the military health system and the nation.
79
Besides being used as a place to store documents, what other purpose does the outpatient medical records serve?
Planning, documentation, communication, data, and protection.
80
Who is responsible for keeping all caregivers informed of documentation, maintenance, and release of information procedures?
Director of Patient Administration.
81
How should you document a patient’s visit if the outpatient medical record is not available?
Annotate their exam on an SF 600.
82
What forms are located on the left side of the MHS record?
DD Form 2005
Clinic Information Sheet.
SF 513
83
What does it mean to have MHS records under double lock?
This means that the files are not just locked in a filing cabinet, but also kept in a locked room
84
How long are MHS records maintained in the clinic after the patient’s last visit?
Two years.
85
How are FAP patient records maintained and located in family advocacy?
FAP records are filed under the name of the sponsor with the entire family’s notes maintained in one record.
86
What are the sections of the FAP record?
(1) Administrative; (2) Data Collection Instruments; (3) Record/File Cross-Reference; (4) Supportive Documentation; (5) Intervention Management Tools; (6) Chronological Documentation.
87
What reference is an excellent guide in helping you prepare for a briefing?
AFI 33-337.
88
What should you do with the FAP record to prepare it for retirement?
The records must be removed from the six-part folders as they will not fit into the boxes otherwise.
89
Where are medication administration records normally maintained?
In the Kardex or MARS.
90
What form does the physician use to transmit written orders for patient care and treatment to the nursing staff?
AF Form 3066, Doctor’s Orders
91
What form is used by the physician to write the final progress note before closure of the record?
SF 509, Medical Record—Progress Notes.
92
How does the budget process begin?
With a budget call, a formal set of instructions that explains how and when to submit the budget.
93
Who gathers all of the budgets for the MTF?
Resource management office.
94
What items are normally procured through capital budgets?
Land, buildings, and other large value items.
95
What items are normally procured through operating budgets?
Fund your clinic’s operating supplies, fund TDYs, and purchase equipment.
96
How are ethical and legal matters related to managed care often masked?
Acts of genuine kindness or appreciation.
97
What are some examples of conflicts of interest?
Flight commander/NCOIC and counselor to member, or consistently referring clients to a setting, facility, or provider which you are a financial stakeholder, or the relationship between you and the accepting provider is nepotistic which could create an impression of impropriety.
98
What teams took the place of the MHRRT and the MHAT?
Behavioral Health Rapid Response Teams.
99
What team members are included on the FFBH5 team?
Two 5-level MHTs.
100
What is a medical staging facility designed to provide patient holding capabilities for casualties in-transit for patient movement?
CASF.
101
What are the three basic categories of stress?
Frustrations, conflicts, and pressures.
102
What do the GAS stages describe?
Describes the psychological and physiological changes people experience when confronted with a stressful event.
103
What did researchers attribute to the lower number of combat stress cases in Vietnam?
Better medical care near the front lines.
The sporadic nature of the fighting in which brief intensive encounters were followed by periods of relative calm and safety.
A policy of rotation after 12 months of service which was unlike World War II when some members were in place for four years
104
What is the description of acute PTSD?
Symptoms persist for more than one month, but less than three months.
105
Which combat stress risk factor occurs when troops do not know what is planned and feel forgotten?
Lack of information/support risk factor.
106
What combat conditions can cause battle fatigue?
Sleep loss, physical fatigue, and such physical stresses as heat, cold, and noise
107
Military members with which classification of battle fatigue can stay in their unit and rest?
Mild reactions.
108
What factors have resulted in the survival of many troops who previously would have died?
Improved methods of evacuation, body armor improvements, and the development of new surgical techniques.
109
What usually accompanies eye trauma from high velocity fragments?
Brain injury and blindness of central origin results from intracranial wounds involving the visual pathways.
110
Define traumatic brain injury.
An insult to the brain caused by an external force.
111
How long might we take to accomplish an intake in a deployed clinic?
30-45 minutes.
112
What questions might we ask when gathering a psychiatric history?
Has the member ever been seen by a mental health provider recently or in their past? Has the member ever taken psychiatric medications before or have they ever been admitted to a psychiatric facility? Has a family member ever been treated for a mental health condition? Has the client ever felt suicidal or homicidal, now or ever in the past?
113
What history are we assessing if we ask whether or not our client had disciplinary issues in school?
Educational history.
114
What is the ultimate goal of combat medicine?
Return of the greatest possible number of soldiers to combat and the preservation of life, limb, and eyesight in those who must be evacuated
115
What are the four triage categories for combat and operational stress reaction cases?
Help-in-place (HIP), Rest, Hold, and Refer.
116
What cases are similar to Hold cases, except they are too disruptive and burdensome for the Level III or CSF that is not resourced to care for this particular case?
Refer cases.
117
What does the pneumonic BICEPS represent?
Brevity, Immediacy, Centrality, Expectancy, Proximity, and Simplicity.
118
What are the four types of AE?
Forward, Theater, Strategic, Domestic.
119
What is the purpose of the ASF?
It provides significant support and suitable accommodations for patients required to remain at installations while awaiting aeromedical transportation.
120
What classification is assigned to psychiatric patients?
Class 1.
121
Define the individual categories of the classification assigned to psychiatric patients.
Class 1A: Severe Psychiatric Litter Patients. Psychiatric patients requiring the use of restraining apparatus, sedation, and close supervision at all times. Class 1B: Psychiatric Litter Patients of Intermediate Severity. Patients requiring tranquilizing medication or sedation, not normally requiring the use of restraining apparatus. Restraining apparatus must be sent with the patient for potential use. Class 1C: Psychiatric Walking Patients of Moderate Severity. They are cooperative and reliable under observation.
122
What are the requirements for an MA when traveling in the AE system?
Medical attendants must be familiar with the patient and possess the level of skills appropriate to the patient’s needs. They are the clinical authority for their patient’s care.
123
What are the AE precedence categories?
(1) Urgent (U). (2) Priority (P). (3) Routine (R).
