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Bacte MTAP > Set 2 - Recent > Flashcards

Set 2 - Recent Flashcards

1
Q

This gives the surface of gram-negative bacteria a negative charge.

A.Mycolic acid
B.Outer membrane
C.Periplasm
D.Lipopolysaccharide

A

Lipopolysaccharide

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2
Q

The following statement are true except:

A.Gram + bacteria ….peptidoglycan layer.
B.The periplasmic space is found in gram – and gram + bacteria.
C.The capsule of gram + bacteria is immediate to … murein layer.
D.The sex pilus is a conduit for passage of DNA

A

The periplasmic space is found in gram – and gram + bacteria.

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3
Q

This method of sterilization is applied to substances that are heat-sensitive

A.Filtration
B.Radiation
C.Cold sterilization
D.Oxidation

A

Filtration

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4
Q

It is used as prophylaxis in newborns to prevent ocular n. gonorrhea infection

A.Erythromycin
B.Silver nitrate
C.Povidone Iodine
D.Vancomycin

A

A.Erythromycin

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5
Q

Ratio of sodium hypochlorite recommended by CDC for cleaning tabletops after blood spills:

A. 1:5
B. 1:10
C. 1:20
D. NOTA

A
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6
Q

The following statement are true regarding specimen collection except:

A.Specimen should be collected during acute phase of an illness
B.Serum for serologic studies can be frozen at –70C for up to 1 week
C.N. meningitidis is sensitive to temp changes
D. Processing should be done upon receipt at the lab

A

B.Serum for serologic studies can be frozen at –70C for up to 1 week

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7
Q

This anticoagulant is commonly used for viral cultures

A.EDTA
B.Citrate
C.SPS
D.Heparin

A

D.Heparin

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8
Q

This is added to transport media to absorb fatty acids

A.Buffer
B.Antibiotic
C.Charcoal
D.Indicator

A

C.Charcoal

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9
Q

The following statement are true except

A. Direct microscopy examination is done to all specimens
B. All processing should begin with a gross examination of the specimen
C. Sterile fluid should be given priority for processing
D. Mislabeled specimens should be rejected

A

A. Direct microscopy examination is done to all specimens

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10
Q

Inhibits the growth of gram + organism in your MacConkey

A.Phenol Red
B.Crystal violet
C.Ferric Ammonium Citrate
D.Lactose

A

B.Crystal violet

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11
Q

The presence of this enzyme allows the release of water and oxygen from hydrogen peroxide. What process is being described?

A. Oxidase
B. Catalase
C. Oxidation reaction
D. Coagulase

A

B. Catalase

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12
Q

What is the positive result for Catalase?

A.Bubble formation
B.Purple color
C.Clot formation
D.Reddening

A

A.Bubble formation

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13
Q

Case JJ 5 yo male polio vax seen due to appearance of bright red rash on his cheeks associated with
low grade fever and nasal discharge What is the causative agent?

A. Enveloped virus with icosahedral nucleocapsid and …. double stranded DNA
B. Naked nucleocapsid with single-stranded positive polarity RNA
C. Enveloped virus with icosahedral nucleocapsid and one piece of single stranded positive polarity RNA
D. Nonenveloped icosahedral single stranded DNA Virus

A

D. Nonenveloped icosahedral single stranded DNA Virus

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14
Q

Major site of viral replication

A.Capillaries of the skin
B.Bone marrow
C.Placenta
D.Neurons

A

B.Bone marrow

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15
Q

Major virulence factor for S. aureus

A.Capsule
B.Protein
C.Coagulase
D.Lime layer

A

C.Coagulase

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16
Q

This test will differentiate your proteus mirabilis from proteus vulgaris

A

Indole

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17
Q

What is the principle of the INDOLE test?

A.Detects the end products of glucose formation of by your peptidoglycan pathway
B.Detects end products of glucose from the mixed acid pathway
C.Determines the organism has the ability to reduce nitrate to nitrite
D.Test the ability of the organism to produce the enzyme tryptophanase

A

B.Detects end products of glucose from the mixed acid pathway

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18
Q

TRUE OR FALSE?
Case KK 38 yo male single sexually active came in for consult due to maculopapular
rash on his arms and soles associated with progressive weight loss on and off undocumented fever and occasional malaise. Susceptibility testing can be performed for the causative agent

A

FALSE(causative agent is syphilis)

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19
Q

When you start treatment what test can you request to follow the patient’s response to therapy

A.RPR
B.FTA-ABS
C.EIA
D.Microscopy

A

A.RPR

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20
Q

What is the specimen of choice if you are suspecting congenital transmission of the causative
agent?

A.Plasma
B.Serum
C.Placenta
D.Umbilical cord

A

D.Umbilical cord

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21
Q

The following statement are true except:

A.Chlamydia contains lipopolysaccharide in their cell wall
B.Endocervix the preferred site to collect screening specimens in female patient with chlamydia
C.One of the differences seen in chlamydia is the shape of the reticulate body
D.Humans are the only host of chlamydia pneumoniae

A

C.One of the differences seen in chlamydia is the shape of the reticulate body

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22
Q

A 35 year old female complains of nonhealing ulcer in her left index finger that now progress to a postular lesion. WHat is the mycelial formation of the fungus?

A. Daisy-head or floweret microconidia
B. Thick-walled yeasts with multiple buds resembling a mariner’s wheel

A

A. Daisy-head or floweret microconidia

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23
Q

The following statement are true except:

A. If infection with Malassezia furfur is suspected, Olive oil should be added to the medium
B. If processing is delayed dermatologic specimen should be refrigerated
C. Respiratory tract secretions are the most common specimen collected for fungal culture
D. CSF specimens should be processed immediately

A

B. If processing is delayed dermatologic specimen should be refrigerated

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24
Q

The macroconidia of this organism are rarely formed vary in ssize and shaped and referred to a
string-bean appearance

A.Trichophyton robrum
B.Tonsurans
C.Mentagrophytes
D.Verrucosum

A

D.Verrucosum

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25
Q

Most sensitive test to diagnose streptococcosis

A.India ink
B.Culture
C.Gram stain
D.Latex agglutination

A

D.Latex agglutination

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26
Q

This test differentiate Listeria monocytogenes from other listeria species

A. CAMP Test
B. Wet mount
C. Carbohydrate fermentation

A

A. CAMP Test

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27
Q

What test is the most helpful in the definitive diagnosis of the causative agent

A. Culture
B. Gram stain
C. Demonstration of toxins
D. Demonstration of metachromatic granules

A

C. Demonstration of toxins

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28
Q

What is being detected by string test for vibrio

A. Capsule
B. Flagella
C. DNA
D. Villi

A

C. DNA

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29
Q

Which of hte following vibrios are responsible for pandemic?

A.Vibrio cholerae
B.Vulnificus
C.Parahaemolyticus
D.Cholerae O1 biotype El Tor

A

D.Cholerae O1 biotype El Tor

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30
Q

Presumptive test of the identification of your group a beta hemolytic streptococcus?

A. Hemolysis on blood agar
B. Bacitracin test
C. Novobiocin test
D. Optochin test

A

B. Bacitracin test

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31
Q

This is known as a microscopic precipitin test in which your cap surrounding the organism will swell?

A.India ink
B.Quellung Test
C.Crystal violet
D.String test

A

B.Quellung Test

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32
Q

The folloiwng statement are true except

A. MacConkey Agar is a nutritive and differential media
B. Blood agar is a nutritive and differential media
C. TCBS agar is a selective and differential media
D. Modified Thayer martin is an enrichment and selective media

A

A. MacConkey Agar is a nutritive and differential media

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33
Q

The following statement are true about gram staining except:

A.It is considered a differential stain
B.All bacteria can be detected using this staining method
C. It gives clue about the quality of the specimen

A

B.All bacteria can be detected using this staining method

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34
Q

The following statement are true except

A.Gram + positive bacteria with have a thick peptidoglycan layer
B.Gram – bacteria have an outer lipid bilayer
C.Gram + bacteria will have an outer lipid layer
D.Gram – bacteria will have a thin peptidoglycan layer

A

C.Gram + bacteria will have an outer lipid layer

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35
Q

This bacteria structure is most often target of antibiotics:

A. Outer membrane
B. Cell wall
C. Capsule
D. Lipopolysaccharide

A

B. Cell wall

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36
Q

This test will differentiate streptococcus pneumoniae from alpha hemolytic streptococci

A.PYR test
B.LAP test
C.Bile solubility
D.Bacitracin

A

C.Bile solubility

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37
Q

What population is at risk for necrotizing enteritis?

A.Newborn
B.Toddlers
C.Unvaccinated children
D.Preterm infants

A

D.Preterm infants

38
Q

Specimen of choice for pediatric patient suspected of tb?

A. Sputum
B.Induced sputum
C.Bronchial alveolar lavage
D.Gastric lavage

A

D.Gastric lavage

39
Q

The following statement are true regarding chlamydia except:

A.The elementary body is metabolically inert
B.The reticulate body is the infective form
C.The elementary is the extracellular form

A

B.The reticulate body is the infective form

40
Q

Which Sero variant of chlamydia can cause ocular trachoma?

A. Ba
B. L1
C. L1A
D. K

A

A. Ba

41
Q

Which of the following is transmitted by Chiggers?

A. Rickettsiae
B. Orientia tsutsumagushi

A

B. Orientia tsutsumagushi

42
Q

What attenuated strain of mycobacteria is present in the BCG vaccine?

A. M bovis
B. M africanum
C. M leprae

A

A. M bovis

43
Q

What type of motility is seen on dark field microscopy of vibrios?

A. Tumbling
B. Corkscrew
C. Darting
D. Shooting star

A

D. Shooting star

44
Q

This is added to the medium Modified Thayer Martin agar to inhibit the growth of proteus ..

A

Trimethoprim

45
Q

Selective media for isolation of your s. aureus

A. Sheep blood agar
B. Mannitol salt agar
C. Chocolate agar
D. Nutrient broth

A

B. Mannitol salt agar

46
Q

Causative agent of your cat’s scratch disease

A

Bartonella

47
Q

What is used to seen gastric biopsy for detection of h. pylori?

A. Wright Giemsa
B. Warthin-starry
C. Gram stain
D. H&E

A

B. Warthin-starry

48
Q

Cultivation of Ricketssia:

A. Footpads of mice
B. Footpads of armadillos
C. Embryonated egg

A

C. Embryonated egg

49
Q

This associated with dental or surgical procedure often leading to tooth abscess

A

Viridans

50
Q

Biosafety cabinet offers the most protection

A

Class III

51
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is considered what type of biosafety level?

A

Level III

52
Q

Preservative used for stool specimen

A

Polyvinyl alcohol

53
Q

Exhibits satellite phenomenon

A

Haemophilus

54
Q

Double zone of beta-hemolysis

A

C. perfringes

55
Q

Causative agent of Yaws:

A. T. pallidum subspecies pallidum
B. T. pallidum subspecies pertenue

A

B. T. pallidum subspecies pertenue

56
Q

T or F?

Direct microscopy examination is performed on all specimens

A

False

57
Q

T or F?

Malachite green used for acid fast staining

A

False

58
Q

T or F?

Slide coagulase test detects clumping factor

A

True

59
Q

T or F?

A positive Hippurate hydrolysis test will show yellow color.

A

False

60
Q

T or F?

Enterococci is resistant to high salt concentration.

A

True

61
Q

T or F?

Cutaneous diphtheriae is caused by non-toxigenic strains only.

A

False

62
Q

T or F?

Blood Culture for typhoid fever is positive during hte 1st week of illness.

A

True

63
Q

T or F?

Haemophilus is very sensitive to drying and extreme temperatures.

A

True

64
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

Complications of mumps.

1.Parotitis
2.Meningitis
3.Swelling
4.Orchitis

A

B (2&4)

65
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

Toxin-mediated diseases of s.areus.

1.Food poisoning
2.Ritter syndrome
3Toxic shock syndrome
4.Folliculitis

A

C (1,2,3)

66
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

Specimen suitable for anaerobic culture.
1.Pleural fluid
2.Blood
3.CSF
4.Expectorated sputum

A

C (1,2,3)

67
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

A positive gram stain with a negative culture may indicate.
1.Poor transport methods
2.Old culture media
3.Excess exposure to air during processing
4.Poor medtech skills

A

C (1,2,3)

68
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

Specimens used for the diagnosis of mucormycosis.
1.Tissue
2.Sputum
3.Nasal discharge
4.Blood

A

C (1,2,3)

69
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

Causes bloody diarrhea.
1.S. aureus
2.Enteroinvasise E.coli
3….
4Shigella

A

B (2&4)

70
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

Produces odor in culture.
1.Proteus
2.Eikenella
3.Pseudomonas
4.C. difficile

A

E (AOTA)

71
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

Normal microbiota in humans.
1.S. aureus
2.H. influenzae
3.S. agalactiae
4.C.diptheria

A

C (1,2,3)

72
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

Types of Fire Extinguisher.
1.A
2.B
3.C
4.D

A

C (1,2,3)

73
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

Anticoagulant used in the microbio lab.
1.SPS
2.EDTA
3.Heparin
4.Citrate

A

A (1&3)

74
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

Rejection of unacceptable specimens.
1.Vaginal swab for anaerobic culture
2.Foley-catheter tips for culture
3.Nasopharyngeal for anaerobic culture
4.Specimen was received in fixative

A

E (AOTA)

75
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

Viruses with cytoplasmic inclusion bodies.
1.Rabies
2.CMV
3.Poxvirus
4.Herpes simplex virus

A

A (1&3)

76
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

This can cause subacute endocarditis.
1.S. aureus
2.Eikenella
3.Kingella
4.S. epidermidis

A

C (1,2,3)

77
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

Characteristics of nocardia.
1.Gram +
2.Saprophyte
3.Aerobic
4.Partially acid fast

A

E (AOTA)

78
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

Can cause UTI.
1.P. aeruginosa
2.E. coli
3.P. mirabilis
4.S. saprophyticus

A

E (AOTA)

79
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

Vertical Transmission.
1.Syphilis
2.Hep b
3.L. monocytogenes
4.S. aureus

A

C (1,2,3)

80
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

Colors of the fire diamond.
1.Red
2.Yellow
3.Blue
4.Green

A

C (1,2,3)

81
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

Specimens that do not require decontamination for the recovery of mycobateria.
1.Sputum
2.Joint fluid
3.Urine
4.CSF

A

B (2&4)

82
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

Symptoms of rickettsia.
1.Fever
2.Lympadenopathy
3.Rash
4.Headache

A

C (1,2,3)

83
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

Sexually transmitted.
1.N. gonorrhaea
2.K. granumolatis
3.C. trachomatis
4.H. ducreyi

A

E (AOTA)

84
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

Mycobacteria that occur in humans that is capable of causing tuberculosis.
1.M. bovis
2.M. tuberculosis
3.M. africanum
4.M. kansasi

A

C (1,2,3)

85
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

Symptoms of congenital syphilis.
1.Saber shin
2.Deafness
3….Maxilla
4.Blindness

A

B (2&4)

86
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

Swarming colonies.
1.P. mirabilis
2.C. tetani
3.P. vulgari
4.S. pneumoniae

A

C (1,2,3)

87
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

Necessary for the growth of heamophilus.
1.NAD
2.V Factor
3.Hemin
4.X Factor

A

E (AOTA)

88
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

Causes of bacterial meningitis.
1.N. meningitidis
2.S. pneumoniae
3.H. influenzae
4.K. pneumoniae

A

C (1,2,3)

89
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

Symptoms of scarlet fever.
1.Rash
2.Lymphadenopathy
3.Strawberry tongue
4.Honey-crust lesion

A

A (1&3)

90
Q

A. 1&3; B. 2&4; C. 1,2,3; D. 4 only; E. AOTA

Naturally inhabitant of the human vagina.
1.Candida
2.G. vaginalis
3.Neisseria
4.Lactobacillus

A

B (2&4)

91
Q

What is the positive reaction of Indole Test?
A.Red color
B.Growth in the medium with color change
C.Turbidity
D.Bright pink color

A

A.Red color

92
Q

The following statement are true regarding viruses except:
A.All DNA viruses are icosahedral except poxvirus
B.All RNA viruses reticate(?) in the cytoplasm
C.Herpesviridae has the ability to establish latency
D.Poxvirus is the largest and the most complex of all viruses

A

B.All RNA viruses reticate(?) in the cytoplasm

Bacte MTAP (2 decks)

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