Set 1 Flashcards
This method of disinfection is used for food pathogens and affects the flavor of the food:
A. Pasteurization
B. Boiling
C. Sterilization
D. None of the above
D. None of the above
Note: Pasteurizing at 70°C for 30 minutes, which kills food pathogens without damaging the nutritional value or flavor
Nutritive media for fungi:
A. Trypic soy agar
B. Sabouraud’s dextrose agar
C. Nutrient agar
D. Chocolate agar
B. Sabouraud’s dextrose agar
Notes:
NUTRITIVE MEDIA = Tryptic soy agar, and nutrient agar plates for bacteria;
Sabouraud’s dextrose agar for fungi, blood or chocolate agar
Culture media that supports a wide range of most organism?
A. Differential media
B. Nonselective media
C. Enrichment media
D. Selective media
B. Nonselective media
Notes:
- Differential = Employ some factors that allow colonies of one bacterial species or type to exhibit
certain metabolic or culture characteristics
- Enrichment = Contains specific nutrients required for the growth of bacterial pathogens
- Selective = Support the growth of one group organisms but not another by adding
antimicrobials, dyes, or alcohol
MacConkey agar is a differential and selective media: TRUE or FALSE?
TRUE
Note:
○ Selective for gram-negative organisms
○ Differential for lactose fermentation
Dye present in MacConkey agar:
A. Phenol red
B. Crystal violet
C. Gentian blue
D. Neutral red
B. Crystal Violet
Note:
MacConkey agar
- Crystal violet = dye
- Neutral red = pH indicator
These organisms can grow in only low levels of oxygen:
A. Strictly aerobic
B. Microaerophilic
C. Anaerobic
D. Facultative anaerobe
B. Microaerophilic
Note:
- Strictly aerobic: cannot grow in the absence of oxygen
- Anaerobic: oxygen is inhibitory or lethal
- Facultative anaerobic: grow in the presence or absence of oxygen
These organisms require increased concentrations of carbon dioxide:
A. Microaerophiles
B. Anaerobe
C. Capnophiles
D. Facultative anaerobe
C. Capnophiles
Notes:
- Anaerobic: oxygen is inhibitory or lethal
- Facultative anaerobic: grow in the presence or absence of oxygen
- Microaerophiles: grow only in low levels of oxygen
They exist as double stranded, closed, circular, autonomously replicating extrachromosomal genetic elements:
A. Jumping genes
B. Episomes
C. Plasmids
D. Nucleoid
C. Plasmids
Notes:
- Jumping genes = transposable elements; Pieces of DNA that move from one genetic element to another
- Episomes = capable of replication independently of the host chromosome
Recipient cell uptakes free DNA and integrates into the recipient cell’s DNA:
A. Conjugation
B. Transformation
C. Transduction
D. Plasmid transfer
B. Transformation
Notes:
- Conjugation = Occurs between 2 living cell, involves cell-too-cell contact, requires mobilization of the donor bacterium’s chromosome
- Transduction = DNA form two bacteria may come together in one cell allowing recombination; Mediated by viruses capable of infecting bacteria (bacteriophage)
- Plasmid transfer = Conjugation
This type of genetic exchange is seen when an organism develops antibiotic resistance:
A. Conjugation
B. Transformation
C. Transduction
D. Plasmid transfer
B. Transformation
This type of genetic exchange is mediated by viruses capable of infecting bacteria:
A. Conjugation
B. Transformation
C. Transduction
D. Plasmid transfer
C. Transduction
This structure is present in numerous amounts in gram-positive bacteria:
A. Techoic acids
B. Thick peptidoglycan layer
C. Thin peptidoglycan layer
D. Mycolic acids
A. Techoic acids
Microscopically, if an organism is acid fast positive:
A. Red organism with a dark green background.
B. Red organisms with a blue green background.
C. Blue organisms in a red background.
D. Blue organisms in a green background.
B. Red organisms with a blue green background.
Determines the mechanism of replication of the viral genome:
A. Nucleic acid genome
B. Viral capsid
C. Viral genome structure
D. Nucleic acid core
C. Viral genome structure
Has tissue tropism to mucosal or cutaneous tissue:
A. Parvovirus B19
B. HSV1
C. VZV
D. Human papillomavirus
A. Parvovirus B19
Most specific marker for diagnosis of acute Hepatitis B infection:
A. HbsAg
B. HbcAg
C. Anti-HbcAg IgM
D. Anti-HbsAg IgM
C. Anti-HbcAg IgM
If there is a delay in examination for dermatophytes specimens, they should be refrigerated:
A. True
B. False
FALSE
Birds on a fence:
A. Tricophyton spp.
B. Mucorales
C. Epidermophyton sp.
D. Fusarium spp.
A. Tricophyton spp.
True of Blastomyces:
A. Diagnostic tissue phase is formation of yeast at 37OC.
B. Diagnostic tissue phase is formation of mold at 37OC.
C. Yeast forms have a single wall with broad based bud.
D. Molds produce spaghetti and meatballs morphology.
A. Diagnostic tissue phase is formation of yeast at 37OC.
True of Paracoccidoides brasilensis:
A. Diagnostic tissue phase is large, thick-walled yeast with multiple buds.
B. Molds produce spaghetti and meatballs
C. Yeast forms produce double walls with broad based buds.
D. Diagnostic tissue phase is formation of intercalary and terminal chlamydochonidia.
A. Diagnostic tissue phase is large, thick-walled yeast with multiple buds.
Mycelial forms of the fungus show daisy head or flowerette microconidia:
A. Paracoccodoides brasilensis
B. Sporothrix schenckii
C. Blastomyces
D. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Sporothrix schenckii
Selective and differential for Vibrio spp.:
A. Hektoen Enteric agar
B. TCBS agar
C. EMB agar
D. XLD agar
B. TCBS agar
Gives Mycobacteria spp. its acid fastness:
A. Outer membrane
B. Mycolic acid
C. Techoic acid
D. Murein layer
B. Mycolic acid
Causes acute endocarditis in IV drug users:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Eikenella corrodens
D. Kingella kingae
A. Staphylococcus aureus
Presumptive identification of Group A Beta-hemolytic streptococci from other Beta-hemolytic streptococci:
A. PYR test
B. CAMP test
C. Growth on blood agar
D. Bacitracin Susceptibility test
D. Bacitracin Susceptibility test
Test used to differentiate Group B streptococci from other Streptococci:
A. PYR test
B. CAMP test
C. Growth on blood agar
D. Bacitracin Susceptibility test
B. CAMP test
Test used to differentiate Group B streptococci from other Streptococci:
A. PYR test
B. CAMP test
C. Growth on blood agar
D. Bacitracin Susceptibility test
B. CAMP test
Which of the following is FALSE of Streptococcus pneumoniae?
A. Gram negative lancet-shaped bacilli.
B. Gran positive lancet-shaped cocci.
C. Positive Quelling test.
D. Alpha hemolytic.
A. Gram negative lancet-shaped bacilli
Used for the presumptive identification of catalase-negative gram-positive cocci:
A. LAP test
B. PYR test
C. Quellung test
D. Bile Solubility test
A. LAP test
Associated with dental or surgical procedures often leading to tooth abscess:
A. Viridans
B. Eikenella corrodens
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Kingella kingae
A. Viridans
Associated with dental or surgical procedures often leading to tooth abscess:
A. Viridans
B. Eikenella corrodens
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Kingella kingae
A. Viridans
CS, 35 years old, female, known smoker, alcoholic beverage drinker, and IV drug user has been diagnosed with acute endocarditis since 2015.
What is the risk factor present in the history that predisposes the patient to develop the disease?
A. Alcoholic beverage drinker
B. Smoker
C. IV drug user
D. Female
C. IV drug user
What is the most common heart valve involved?
A. Mitral valve
B. Tricuspid valve
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
B. Tricuspid valve
This organism is non-motile, gram-negative rod that is seen in infections resulting from human bites:
A. Viridans
B. Eikenella corrodens
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Kingella kingae
B. Eikenella corrodens
ML, 38 years old, male, sexually active, came in due to a painful ulcer found on his genitals, he also noted several lesions surrounding his genital area, and inguinal lymphadenopathy.
What do you expect on gram staining of the ulcer?
A. Pleomorphic coccobacilli
B. Small coccobacilli with occasional cells appearing as tangled fragments
C. Slender, coccobacillary described as school of fish
D. Small pleomorphic form or sometimes long filamentous forms
C. Slender, coccobacillary described as school of fish
ML, 38 years old, male, sexually active, came in due to a painful ulcer found on his genitals, he also noted several lesions surrounding his genital area, and inguinal lymphadenopathy.
What do you expect on gram staining of the ulcer = Slender, coccobacillary described as school of fish
What is the most likely organism isolated?
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Haemophilus ducreyi
C. Neisseria gonorrhea
D. None of the above
B. Haemophilus ducreyi
Organisms that CAN be detected using Gram’s stain:
A. Ureaplasma
B. Chlamydia
C. Mycobacteria
D. Spirochetes
C. Mycobacteria
Selective medium for isolation of S. aureus:
A. Sheep blood agar
B. Mannitol salt agar
C. Chocolate agar
D. Nutrient broth
B. Mannitol salt agar
This organism is the causative agent for the major cause of preventable blindness worldwide:
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Neisseria gonorrheae
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D. Chlamydia psittaci
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
Gram-negative rods exhibiting bipolar staining that resembles a closed safety pin:
A. Yersinia pestis
B. Enterobacter aerogenes
C. Escherichia coli
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
A. Yersinia pestis
Described to cause community-acquired atypical pneumonia that can occur singly or cause outbreaks in families and military recruit camps:
A. Mycoplasma pnuemoniae
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Ureaplasma urylyticum
A. Mycoplasma pnuemoniae
Causative agent for Cat Scratch Disease:
A. Bartonella henselae
B. Bartonella quintana
C. Bartonella alsatica
D. Bartonella bacilliformis
A. Bartonella henselae
This step in viral replication is also termed as adsorption:
A. Attachment
B. Penetration
C. Viral entry
D. Uncoating
A. Attachment
What compound is present if there is a red color on the Voges
Proskauer test?
A. Acetoin
B. Glucose
C. Amino acids
D. Lactose
A. Acetoin
Identify the organism:
• MAC: non-lactose fermenter, swarming colonies with characteristic smell
• IMViC: -, +, -, -
• ONPG: +
• Urea: +
A. Proteus vulgaris
B. Proteus mirabilis
C. Escherichia coli
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Proteus mirabilis
This virulence factor of Pseudomonas is a polysaccharide polymer that inhibits phagocytosis:
A. Capsule
B. Pili
C. Alginate
D. Catalases
C. Alginate
This test differentiates Vibrios from Aeromonas:
A. String test
B. Quellung test
C. CAMP test
D. Growth on CIN agar
A. String test
Which of the following organisms exhibit satellite phenomenon?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Haemophilus ducreyi
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Haemophilus influenzae
Small coccobacilli that resemble fine grains of sand:
A. Brucella
B. Moraxella
C. Bordatella
D. Francisella
A. Brucella
Young colonies are small and shiny and resemble drops of mercury:
A. Brucella
B. Moraxella
C. Bordatella
D. Francisella
C. Bordatella
Diagnosis of botulism:
A. Elek test
B. Culture
C. Demonstration of toxin
D. Gram staining
C. Demonstration of toxin
What toxin is produced by Clostridium tetani?
A. Enterotoxin
B. Tetanospasmin
C. Exotoxin A
D. Clostridium toxin
B. Tetanospasmin
Causative agent of a gastrointestinal disease that causes bowel necrosis and inflammation in low-birth-weight infants:
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Clostridium perfringes
C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Clostridium difficile
B. Clostridium perfringes
Causative agent of donovanosis:
A. Klebsiella granulomatis
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Yersinia pestis
A. Klebsiella granulomatis
This organism has a predilection to the gallbladder:
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Salmonella choleraesuis
C. Salmonella enteritidis
D. Salmonella typhimurium
A. Salmonella typhi
This organism multiplies in the Peyer’s patches:
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Salmonella choleraesuis
C. Salmonella enteritidis
D. Salmonella typhimurium
A. Salmonella typhi
What organism is associated with complicated UTI?
A. Proteus mirabilis
B. Proteus vulgaris
C. Escherichia coli
D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
A. Proteus mirabilis
This pigment is the key to identification of Serratia marcesens:
A. Prodigiosin
B. Staphyloxanthin
C. Pyocyanin
D. Violacein
A. Prodigiosin
AL, 25 years old, male, came in due to complaints of abdominal cramps and fever for the past 4 days. He said that he developed watery stools that eventually became bloody stools since yesterday.
What is the most likely organism that will be isolated?
A. Shigella dysenteriae
B. Escherichia coli
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D.Salmonella typhi
A. Shigella dysenteriae
This serotype is associated with cholera pandemics:
A.Vibrio cholerae 01
B. Vibrio cholerae 0139
C. Vibrio cholerae 01 biotype El Tor
D. Vibrio cholerae 01/0139
C. Vibrio cholerae 01 biotype El Tor
What is being released during cell lysis in your string test?
A. DNA
B. RNA
C. Capsule
D. Lipopolysaccharide
A. DNA
This is the causative agent of Hansen disease:
A. Mycobacterium africanum
B. Mycobacterium leprae
C. Mycobacterium microti
D. Mycobacterium bovis
B. Mycobacterium leprae
Specimen/s stored at refrigerator temperature if there is delay:
1. Urine
2. Viral specimens
3. Sputum
4. Serum for serology
A. 1 AND 3
B. 2 AND 4
C. 1,2, AND 3
D. 4 ONLY
E. AOTC
C. 1,2, AND 3
Specimen requisition:
1. Patient’s name
2. Date of collection
3. Source
4. Doctor
A. 1 AND 3
B. 2 AND 4
C. 1,2, AND 3
D. 4 ONLY
E. AOTC
D. 4 ONLY
Rejection of unacceptable specimens:
1. Improperly stored specimen
2. Transport time less than 2 hours
Improperly labelled specimen
4. Fixation with formalin
A. 1 AND 3
B. 2 AND 4
C. 1,2, AND 3
D. 4 ONLY
E. AOTC
A. 1 AND 3
Common direct fungal stain/s:
КОН
2. Gram stain
3. Calcofluor white
4. Auramine rhodamine
A. 1 AND 3
B. 2 AND 4
C. 1,2, AND 3
D. 4 ONLY
E. AOTC
A. 1 AND 3
Present in gram positive bacteria:
1.Outer membrane
2.Inner membrane
3. Periplasmic space
4.Techoic acids
A. 1 AND 3
B. 2 AND 4
C. 1,2, AND 3
D. 4 ONLY
E. AOTC
B. 2 AND 4
DNA virus/es with linear DNA:
1. Parvovirus
2. Hepadnavirus
3.HPV
4. Papillomavirus
A. 1 AND 3
B. 2 AND 4
C. 1,2, AND 3
D. 4 ONLY
E. AOTC
A. 1 AND 3
Can establish latency:
1. EBV
2. HSV-1
3. VZV
4. HSV-6
A. 1 AND 3
B. 2 AND 4
C. 1,2, AND 3
D. 4 ONLY
E. AOTC
D. 4 ONLY
RNA viruses that replicate in the cytoplasm: A
1. Influenza virus
2. Reovirus
3. Retrovirus
4. RotaVirus
A. 1 AND 3
B. 2 AND 4
C. 1,2, AND 3
D. 4 ONLY
E. AOTC
A. 1 AND 3
Staining methods for Pneumocystis jirovecii:
1. Lactophenol cotton blue
2. Giemsa
3. Hand E
4. Calcofluor white
A. 1 AND 3
B. 2 AND 4
C. 1,2, AND 3
D. 4 ONLY
E. AOTC
B. 2 AND 4
Toxin/s of Staphylococcal food poisoning:
1.Enterotoxin D
2. Enterotoxin C
3. Enteroxin A
4. Enterotoxin B
A. 1 AND 3
B. 2 AND 4
C. 1,2, AND 3
D. 4 ONLY
E. AOTC
A. 1 AND 3
Complication/s of Streptococcal infection:
1. Strep throat
2. Glomerulonephritis
3. Impetigo
4. Rheumatic fever
A. 1 AND 3
B. 2 AND 4
C. 1,2, AND 3
D. 4 ONLY
E. AOTC
B. 2 AND 4
Causes bacterial meningitis:
1.Neisseria meningitis
2.Streptococcus pneumoniae
3. Hemophilus influenzae
4. Klebsiella pneumonia
A. 1 AND 3
B. 2 AND 4
C. 1,2, AND 3
D. 4 ONLY
E. AOTC
C. 1,2, AND 3
Factor/s that limit sterilization, disinfection, or decontamination:
1. Exposure time
2. Organic load
3. Presence of biofilm
4. Presence of cell wall
A. 1 AND 3
B. 2 AND 4
C. 1,2, AND 3
D. 4 ONLY
E. AOTC
C. 1,2, AND 3
Approach to identification of Clostridium tetani:
1. Rods with terminal spores
2. Gram-negative, spore-forming bacilli
Swarming colonies
4. Gram-positive, nonspore-forming bacilli
A. 1 AND 3
B. 2 AND 4
C. 1,2, AND 3
D. 4 ONLY
E. AOTC
A. 1 AND 3
This/These finding/s is/are seen in tertiary syphilis:
1. Neurosyphilis
2. Rashes on the palms and soles of the feet
3. Gummas
4.Saber shin
A. 1 AND 3
B. 2 AND 4
C. 1,2, AND 3
D. 4 ONLY
E. AOTC
A. 1 AND 3
This/These agar media is/are found to work best for recovery of Bordatella pertussis: D
1. Stainer-Scholte
2. Bordet-Gengou
3. Modified Jones-Kendrick charcoal
4. Regan-Lowe
A. 1 AND 3
B. 2 AND 4
C. 1,2, AND 3
D. 4 ONLY
E. AOTC
D. 4 ONLY
Risk factors associated with coagulase-negative Staphylococci:
1.Prosthetic device implants
2.Catheterization
3.Immunosuppressive therapy
4.Needle stick injury
A. 1 AND 3
B. 2 AND 4
C. 1,2, AND 3
D. 4 ONLY
E. AOTC
C. 1,2, AND 3
This virulence factor is not present in any other Streptococci
Lancefield groups:
1. Streptolysin O
2. Streptolysin S
3. Hyaluronidase
4. M protein
A. 1 AND 3
B. 2 AND 4
C. 1,2, AND 3
D. 4 ONLY
E. AOTC
D. 4 ONLY
Approach to identification of Listeria monocytogenes:
1.Tumbling motility on nutrient broth
2.Umbrella pattern on semisolid media at room temperature
3.Cold enrichment
4.CAMP negative
A. 1 AND 3
B. 2 AND 4
C. 1,2, AND 3
D. 4 ONLY
E. AOTC
C. 1,2, AND 3
Factor/s needed for growth of Haemophilus spp. on culture media:
1.Hemin
2.X factor
3.NAD
4.Blood
A. 1 AND 3
B. 2 AND 4
C. 1,2, AND 3
D. 4 ONLY
E. AOTC
C. 1,2, AND 3
