Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

1 USMLE Step 2 -- DEDICATED !!! > Set 1 > Flashcards

Set 1 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

Postereolateral knee injury is injury to what? What is the diagnostic test?

A

Injury to ACL

Lachman tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Vertigo + Tinnitus. Dx? Tx?

A

Meniere Disease

Tx = Limit intake of salt, caffeine, nicotine and alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Positive Dix-Hallpike Manuever. Dx? Tx?

A 
Dx = Binign Proxysmal Positional Vertigo
Tx = Epley and Semont Maneuvers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In DKA what happens to pottasium?

A

Patient is hypokalemic, due to renal lose of potassium. However the pottassium serum level may look normal because the acidosis causes potassium to leave cells and enter the serum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Formal vision screening during well-child visit is recommended at what age?

A

4 yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Rotavirus vaccine is recommended when.

A

2-8 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

2 risk factors for newborn Respiratory Destress Syndrome.

A

Prematurity

Maternal Diabetes Mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What symptoms make you suspect possible Acute Lymphoblastic Lukemia

A

Bone Pain
Lymphadenopathy
Hepatosplenomegaly
Petechiae (from thrombocytopenia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Treatment of premature ventricular contractions

A

Increase metaprolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the criteria for placing an Automatic Implantable Cardioverter-Defibrulator

A

Ventricular arrhythmias (e.g. ventricular tachycardia) in patients with ejection fraction < 35%. Or if Pt had previous MI then EF<30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Under what length is a cervix considered short? And what is the management?

A

2cm

Management: IF previous preterm labor then cerclage. IF no previous preterm labor then vaginal progesterone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Diastolic collapse with elevated right ventricular pressure. Dx?

A

Cardiac tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Dilated left ventricle with apical hypokenesis. Dx?

A

Cardiogenic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Inferior vena cava engorgement. Dx?

A

Cardiogenic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Dilated right ventricle and hypokenesis. Dx?

A

Pulmonary embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the antibiotic for aspiration ammonia?

A

Clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Diagnosis for a patient that comes in with pulmonary symptoms, gastrointestinal symptoms, and hyponatremia. And what is the treatment?

A

Legionella

Fluoroquinolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If you rapidly correct hyponatremia what can happen? If instead you rapidly correct hypernatremia what can happen?

A

Hyponatremia correction = demyelination

Hypernatremia correction = cerebral edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What cancer produces parathyroid hormone related protein?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What cancer produces SIADH?

A

Small cell lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If you have pulmonary symptoms in a patient, the sputum is stained and reveals weakly acid-fast bacteria. What is your differential and how do you identify the proper organism? What is the difference in the treatment?

A 
Nocardia = Filamentous branching - Tx=TMP-SMX
Actinomyces = No branching - Tx = Penicillin
Mycobacteria = Strongly acid-fast, unlike the two above that her weakly acid-fast
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are premature atrial complexes? What are precipitating factors of premature atrial complexes?

A

When an atrial contraction is initiated somewhere other than the Sino atrial node. This causes a premature atrial contraction. It can be identified on an EKG by an usual P-wave. Premature atrial complexes can be caused by factors such as stress, alcohol, smoking, caffeine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Seratonin Syndrome symptoms. List 4.

A

Mydriasis
Hyperreflexia
Tachycardia
Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

SSRIs should be discontinued __(time)__ before beginning an MAOI

A

2 wks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

3 symptoms of disseminated gonococcal infection

A

Fever
Polyarthralgia
Pustular rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Most common cause of death in End Stage Renal Disease

A

Cardiovascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Phenelzine. What type of drug is this?

A

MAOI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is phencyclidine?

A

PCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How is the mitral valve affected in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? How does it relate to the murmur?

A

During systole, the mitral valve leaflets move anteriorly toward the interventricular septum. The contact between the mitral valve and thick septum causes the left ventricular outflow obstruction, which causes a systolic murmur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Nephrotic syndrome increases risk for what 3 complications? Describe the mechanism?

A

Nephrotic syndrome = proteinuria
Low protein levels cause increased liver protein and lipid synthesis.
Hyperlipidemia causes increased risk for complication of: ATHEROSCLEROSIS

In nephrotic syndrome, antithrombin III is lost in the urine. This leads to hypercoagulability and increased risk of MI / STROKE.

Nephrotic syndrome also causes loss of immunoglobulins in urine, which increases risk of INFECTION.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Typical symptom of central retinal vein occlusion.

A

Sudden unilateral visual impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Typical symptoms of macular degeneration

A

Central vision impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Rocky Mountain spotted fever symptoms? organism? Tx?

A 
Symptoms = Rash on palms and soles
Organism = Rickettsia rickettsii
Tx = Chloramphenicol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is Lhermitte sign and what is it associated with?

A

Lhermitte sign is an electrical sensation that runs down the back and limbs. It is most associated with Multiple Sclerosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

If someone has hypercalcemia and hypertension what should you suspect?

A 
Hypercalcemia = Hyperparathyroidism
Hypertension = Pheochromocytoms
Together = MEN2A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What labs do you look at to diagnose Histoplasma infection?

A

Pancytopenia (due to bone marrow infiltration)

High AST, ALT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What kind of decelerations are seen with umbilical cord compression?

A

Variable decelerations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

vWF deficiency. What is the platelet count?

A

Platelet count is NORMAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Ptosis, which improves with application of ice pack. Dx>

A

Myasthenia Gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Lamber-Eaton is a associated with what condition?

A

Small Cell Lung Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Special tests for Hereditary Spherocytosis

A

Eosin-5-maleimide binding

Acidified Glycerol Lysis Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the level of WBCs in CLL?

A

> 100,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What do you see on peripheral smear of ALL?

A

Small lymphocytes without much cytoplasm, lots of chromatin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Hairy cell leukemia. Does it have lymphadenopathy or splenomegaly?

A

Splenomegaly

45
Q

ALL: Does it have lymphadenopathy or splenomegaly?

A

Lymphadenopathy

46
Q

CLL: Does it have lymphadenopathy or splenomegaly?

A

Lymphadenopathy

47
Q

Define the following:
Depersonalization/derealization disorder
Dissociative amnesia
Dissociative identity disorder

A

Depersonalizatio/derealization disorder = feeling of detachment or experiencing surroundings as unreal. However identity testing is intact.
Dissociative amnesia = inability to recall important personal information
Dissociative identity disorder = Multiple personality disorder

48
Q

Upper GI bleeding leads to what effect on BUN/CR and why?

A

BUN/CR is increased, because upper GI bleeding causes increased urea production (due to intestinal breakdown of hemoglobin) and increase urea reabsorption (due to hypovolemia from bleeding)

49
Q

How to differentiate between lactational mastitis and breast abscess?

A

Both present with fever and unilateral breast pain

However breast abscess presents with fluctuance on physical exam, while lactational mastitis is not fluctuant.

50
Q

Peau d’orange. Dx?

A

Inflammatory Breast Cancer

51
Q

In infectious mononucleosis what hematologic lab values do some patients develop and why?

A

Anemia and Thrombocytopenia

Due to cross reactivity of anti-EBV antibodies and antibodies to RBCs and platelets.

52
Q

How to differentiate between fibrocystic changes and fibroadenoma?

A

Fibrocystic changes = multiple masses

Fibroadenoma = solitary mass

53
Q

Watershed areas of the colon

A

Splenic flexure

Rectosigmoid junction

54
Q

Name 2 ototoxic medications

A

Loop diuretics

Aminoglycosides

55
Q

What are FSH and LH levels in Sheehan syndrome?

A

Sheehan = hypopituitarism

Low FSH and LH

56
Q

Difference between symptoms of Open Angle Glaucoma and Closed Angle Glaucoma

A

Open angle = gradual loss of peripheral vision

Closed angle = acute severe pain, blurry vision, nausea, vomiting

57
Q

Dactylitis (sausage fingers) and nail changes. Dx?

A

Psoriatic arthritis

58
Q

What is crystalline arthritis?

A

This refers to gout and pseudogout

59
Q

Grotton’s papules. What are they? What is the diagnosis?

A

Grotton’s papules = violacious scaly plaques on the MCP joints.
Dx = Dermatomyositis

60
Q

Charcot joint. What is it? What diseases is it associated with?

A

Charcot joint = neuropathic arthropathy

Associated with diabetic peripheral neuropathy, syphillis and alcoholism.

61
Q

Most specific lab test for rheumatoid arthritis

A

Cyclic citrulinated peptide antibody

62
Q

What is the difference between X-RAY imaging of osteoarthritis vs. rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Osteoarthritis = Osteophytes & Joint space narrowing

Rheumatoid arthritis = Periarticular erosions

63
Q

What are the special hemoglobins that you see in alpha and beta thalassemia?

A

Alpha-Thal = Beta(4) (i.e. HbH) or Gamma(4) (i.e. Hemoglobin Barts)

Beta-Thal = HgBA2 (>3.5%)

64
Q

Antimitochondrial antibody. Diagnosis?

A

Primary biliary cholangitis

65
Q

Which biliary tract disease is assoiciated with ulcerative cholitis?

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

66
Q

What are complications of Primary Biliary Cholangitis?

A

Malabsorption (leads to Osteoporosis and Osteomalacia)

Hepatocellular Carcinoma

67
Q

What are complication of Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis?

A

Cholangiocarcinoma

Gallbladder Cancer

68
Q

What kind of drugs cause neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Dopamine antagonist medications (e.g. Haloperidol)

69
Q

What is the difference between the time course of bacterial vs viral rhinosinusitis?

A

Viral rhinosinusitis improves within 5-10 days.

Bacterial rhinosinusitis can have fever >3days or persistent symptoms >10 days, requiring antibiotics

70
Q

What does Moraxella catarrhalis cause?

A 
Otitis media (in children)
COPD exacerbation
71
Q

What are 2 ultrasound findings of congenital toxoplasmosis?

A

Diffuse intracranial calcifications

Bilateral ventriculomegaly

72
Q

How to differentiate between extraperitoneal bladder injury and intraperitoneal bladder injury?

A

Extraperitoneal bladder injury is more common with pelvic fracture. Commonly presents with gross hematuria.

Intraperitoneal bladder rupture results in intraperitoneal leakage of urine. It results in chemical peritonitis, which presents with symptoms of diffuse abdominal pain, guarding, rebound.

73
Q

Difference between medial tibial stress syndrome (shin splits) and tibial stress fracture. Typical patient and physical exam.

A

Shin splits occur in overweight patients and present as diffuse tenderness on physical exam.
Stress fractures occur more often in underweight patients and present as point tenderness on physical exam.

74
Q

Name of infection after cataract surgery

A

Postoperative endophthalmitis

75
Q

How does positioning affect varicocele?

A

Increases on standing, decreases when supine

76
Q

What drugs to use to treat the tremor of Parkinson’s.

A

Use the anticholinergics: Benztropine or Trihexyphenidyl

These improve tremor and rigidity, but do not help bradykinesia.

77
Q

Symptoms of presbycusis

A

Bilateral hearing loss associated with advanced age.

Tinnitus

78
Q

Symptoms of ostosclerosis

A

Conductive hearing loss

79
Q

Special named conjugate hyperblirubinemia. Which one is more severe?

A

Dubin-Johnson syndrome
Rotor syndrome
(Dubin is more severe with a black liver, but both are benign)

80
Q

Special named unconjugated hyperbilirubinmia. Which one is more sever?

A

Crigler-Najjar
Gilbert
(Crigler-Najjar is more severe with absent UDP-glucuronosyltransferase, while in Gilbert it is just decreased)

81
Q

Acute stress disorder vs Adjustment Disorder

A

Acute stress disorder is the precursor to PTSD. Acute stress disorder lasts 3 days to 1 month, while PTSD is more than 1 month.

Adjustment disorder is defined as emotional symptoms that do not meet criteria for major depression. They occur within 3 months of an identifiable stressor and last less than 6 months.

82
Q

When to give TMP-SMX prophylaxis to HIV patients. What does it prevent?

A

CD4<200

prevents Pneumocystis pneumonia & Toxoplasmosis

83
Q

When to give Azithromycin or Clarithromycin to HIV patients. What does it prevent?

A

CD4<50

prevents Mycobacterium avium complex

84
Q

HIV patient with EBV DNA in CSF & a solitary ring-enhancing lesion on MRI. Dx? CD4 count?

A

CNS lymphoma

CD4<100

85
Q

HIV patient with nonenhancing areas of demyelination on MRI. Dx? CD4 count?

A

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy due to JC virus.

CD4<200

86
Q

How to tell apart Primary Hyperparathyroidism from Familial Hypocalciuric Hypercalcemia.

A

Both may present with high Calcium and high/normal PTH. However in Primary Hyperparathyroidism the Urine(Calcium)/Creatinine ratio > 0.02. In Familial Hypocalciuric Hypercalcemia Urine(Ca)/CR < 0.01

87
Q

What is Euthyroid Sick Syndrome? Mechanism? Tx?

A

Euthyroid Sick Syndrome is low T3, but normal T4 and TSH. It occurs in acutely ill patients. Occurs due decreased peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.
Treatment is not recommended, treat the underlying condition.

88
Q

What test is used to determine the dose of anti-D immune globulin after delivery.

A

Kleihauer-Betke test (measure amount of fetal cells in maternal circulation)

89
Q

What drugs can increase the risk of lithium toxicity?

A 
Thiazides
ACEI
NSAIDs
Tetracyclines
Metronidazole
90
Q

Symptoms of Lithium toxicity

A

GI symptoms: Neausea, vomiting, diarrhea

Neuro symptoms: confusion, ataxia, tremor, seizures

91
Q

Drugs that cause Acute Interstitial Nephritis

A 
5 Ps
Pee (diuretics)
Pain-free (NSAIDs)
Penecillins and other Abx: Cephalosporins, TMP-SMX
PPIs
rifamPin
92
Q

Symptoms of Acute Interstitial Nephritis

A 
Hematuria
Pyuria
Costovertebral tenderness
Fever
\+/- Arthralgias
93
Q

Durgs that cause Acute Tubular Necrosis. And other causes.

A 
Drugs:
Aminoglycosides
Radiocontrast agents
Lead
Cisplatin
Ethylene glycol
Other causes:
Crush injury (myoglobinuria)
Hypotension
Shock
Sepsis
94
Q

Causes of renal papillary necrosis.

A 
Mn* SAAD
Sickle cell
Acute pyelonephritis
Analgesics (NSAIDs)
Diabetes mellitus
95
Q

What are the different casts of intrinsic renal disease subtypes.

A

Glomerulonephritis = RBC casts
Acute Interstitial Nephritis = WBC casts
Acute Tubular Necrosis = muddy brown casts

96
Q

Drug used to decrease cravings in Alcohol Use Disorder.

A

Naltrexone

97
Q

First-line pharmacologic therapies for smoking cessation

A

Bupropion

Varenicline

98
Q

What diuretic will decrease calcium in urine and thus decrease likelihood of nephrolithiasis?

A

Thiazide diuretics

99
Q

At what point in pregnancy is the 1 hr glucose challenge test performed?

A

24-28 wks

100
Q

Compare the risk to the fetus from maternal hypertension vs gestational diabetes.

A

Maternal hypertension = microsomia and oligohydramnios (AFI<5)
Gestational diabetes = macrosomia and polyhydramnios (AFI>24)

101
Q

What cervical length results in increased risk of preterm labor.

A

< 2.5 cm

102
Q

Management of placenta previa

A

C-section by 37 wks

103
Q

Periodic acid-Schiff stain is used to diagnose what disease? What are the symptoms?

A

Whipple disease caused by Tropherema Whipplei

Symptoms = Malabsorptive diarrhea, migratory arthritis, lymphadenopathy, fever

104
Q

Symptoms of theophylline toxicity

A

CNS (headache, insomnia, seizure)
GI (Nausea, vomiting)
Cardiac (Arrhythmias)

105
Q

Patients with Turner syndrome that become pregnant (rare) have increased risk of what?

A

Aortic dissection

106
Q

PCOS: the drug and the mechanism to treat infirtility

A

Clomiphene citrate stimulates ovulation. In PCOS, the high estrone levels cause short GnRH pulses, which cause LH/FSH misbalance, which causes lack of LH surge, which poor folicle maturation and oocyte release (anovulation).

107
Q

Back pain, weight loss and smoking history. Next step in management?

A

CT Abdomen

b/c suspecting pancreatic cancer

108
Q

When to do sacroiliac joint imaging.

A

When you suspect Ankylosing Spondylitis

It present in males < 40 with back pain that is worse at night

1 USMLE Step 2 -- DEDICATED !!! (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions