Session 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What sets the resting membrane potential in cells?

A

Permeability of a cell to K+

K+ cells move out of the cell down their concentration gradient

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2
Q

Is there more Na+ within a resting cell or outside?

A

Outside

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3
Q

What are the rough concentrations of K+ intracellularly and extracellularly?

A

140 mM - IN

4 mM - OUT

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4
Q

Is a relatively small or big movement of ions responsible for the negative resting membrane potential?

A

Small

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5
Q

What is the rough value for Ek?

What is the rough resting membrane potential of a cardiac myocyte?

Why are the two values not the same?

A
  • 95 mV
  • 90 to -85 mV

There is very small permeability to other ion species such as Na+ at rest

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6
Q

An action potential in a cardiac myocyte triggers…

A

An increase in cytosolic Ca2+ allowing actin and myosin interaction, generation of tension and contraction

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7
Q

What is the rough resting membrane potential of a ventricular myocyte?

A

-90 mV

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8
Q

What happens first as a result of depolarisation in a ventricular myocyte?

A

Voltage gated Na+ channels open and then inactivate

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9
Q

What is the most positive membrane potential that a ventricular myocyte reaches during an action potential?

A

~+30 mV

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10
Q

What happens after the opening of voltage gated Na+ channels in a ventricular myocyte action potential leading to a plateau phase in the action potential curve?

What causes the plateau?

A

There is a transient outward K+ current
Opening of voltage gated Ca2+ channels (and some K+ channels)

There is a balance between ECa and Ek as there is the movement of both ions

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11
Q

What happens after the plateau phase during the action potential of a ventricular myocyte?

A

Ca2+ channels inactivate

V-gated K+ channels open

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12
Q

After the membrane potential returns to normal resting levels in a ventricular myocyte there is a longer period where…

A

The cell is not excitable

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13
Q

RMP is due to ______________ ____ channels

A

Background K+

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14
Q

The upstroke of a cardiac action potential is due to the…

A

Opening of voltage gated Na+ channels (which then inactivate)

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15
Q

There is initial repolarisation in a cardiac action potential due to…

A

Transient outward K+ channels

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16
Q

The plateau phase of a cardiac action potential is due to…

A

Opening of voltage gated Ca2+ channels balanced with K+ efflux

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17
Q

Repolarisation in a cardiac action potential is due to…

A

Efflux of K+ through voltage gated K+ channels

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18
Q

Which type of Ca2+ channels open during the plateau phase of a radial action potential?

A

Voltage gated L type calcium channels

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19
Q

What is meant by the pacemaker action potential?

A

Refers to the action potential in cells of the pacemaker (SA node)

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20
Q

The SA node contain specialised myocytes, how do they differ from typical myocytes? (2)

A

They don’t contain much contractile machinery

They spontaneously depolarise

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21
Q

Describe the resting membrane potential of a pacemaker cell

A

Spontaneously depolarise so not as negative as usual

~-60mV

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22
Q

What is the pacemaker potential?

A

The initial slope to threshold in pacemaker cells as a result of the funny current resulting in an influx of Na+

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23
Q

The pacemaker potential involves which channels?

HCN channels are activated by…

A

HCN channels

Hyperpolarisation- the more negative the more it activates

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24
Q

HCN channels can also be described as…

A

‘Slow’ sodium channels

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25
Q

What is the upstroke in a pacemaker action potential due to?

A

Opening of voltage gated L-type Ca2+ channels

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26
Q

Which type of calcium channels are opened during the SA node action potential?

A

L-type calcium channels

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27
Q

What is the repolarisation of an SA node action potential a result of?

A

Closure of calcium channels and opening of voltage gated K+ channels

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28
Q

Which cells in the heart are fastest to depolarise? What is the consequence of this?

A

Cells in the SA node

These cells set the rhythm and act as the pacemaker

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29
Q

Triggering of action potentials results in contraction.

If action potentials fire too slowly…

If action potentials fail…

If action potentials fire too quickly….

If electrical activity becomes random…

A

Bradycardia

Asystole

Tachycardia

Fibrillation

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30
Q

Plasma K+ concentration must be controlled within a tight range. What is this range?

A

3.5-5.5 mM/L

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31
Q

Which organ in the body is most affected by too high/low potassium levels?

A

Heart

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32
Q

What plasma K+ levels can be described as…

I) Hypokalaemia
II) Hyperkalaemia

A

I) < 3.5 mM/L

II) > 5.5 mM/L

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33
Q

Why are cardiac myocytes particularly sensitive to changes in [K+]?

A

They have a very negative resting membrane potential close to Ek

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34
Q

What effect does hyperkalaemia have on action potentials of cardiac myocytes?

A

Hyperkalaemia depolarises the myocytes and slows down the upstroke of the action potential

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35
Q

What causes the depolarisation of myocytes seen in hyperkalaemia?

A

Ek becomes less negative, so more easily depolarised

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36
Q

What causes the slowing in the uptake of the action potential seen in hyperkalaemia?

A

Inactivation of voltage gated Na+ channels due to membrane depolarisation

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37
Q

What is a serious risk associated with hyperkalaemia? What initially happens to the excitability of a cardiac myocyte during hyperkalaemia?

A

Heart can stop - asystole

Initially there is an increase in excitability

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38
Q

Give the reference ranges for mild, moderate and severe hyperkalaemia

A

Mild 5.5 - 5.9

Moderate 6.0 - 6.4

Severe > 6.5

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39
Q

What is the treatment for hyperkalaemia?

A

Calcium gluconate

Insulin + glucose

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40
Q

How does calcium gluconate work in the treatment for hyperkalaemia?

How does insulin + glucose work in the treatment for hyperkalaemia?

A

Makes the heart less excitable

Promotes K+ into cells

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41
Q

What effect does hypokalaemia have on the action potential in cardiac myocytes?

A

Lengthens the action potential by delaying repolarisation

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42
Q

Why is repolarisation delayed in hypokalaemia?

A

Some K+ channels are less active when there is low potassium levels

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43
Q

What is the possible consequence of the longer action potentials as a result of hypokalaemia?

A

Early after depolarisations —> Oscillations in membrane potential —-> VENTRICULAR FIBRILLATION

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44
Q

Describe excitation-contraction coupling

A

Depolarisation opens L-type Ca2+ channels in T-tubule system
Localised Ca2+ entry opens CICR channels in the SR
Both channels are closely linked

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45
Q

How much calcium enters a cardiac myocyte during an action potential…

I) Across the sarcolemma (L-type Ca2+ channels)
II) From the SR (CICR channels)

As percentages

46
Q

By which mechanism do cardiac myocytes contract? Describe the mechanism

A

Sliding filament mechanism

Ca2+ binds to troponin C, causing a conformational change shifting tropomyosin to reveal myosin binding site on actin filament

47
Q

What happens to the calcium levels in cardiac myocytes during relaxation? Which channels are involved in achieving this?

A

They return to resting levels

Most is pumped back to the SR via the SERCA
Some exits across the sarcolemma via Ca2+ ATPase and NCX

48
Q

How is the tone of blood vessels controlled?

A

By contraction and relaxation of vascular smooth muscle cells in the tunica media of blood vessels

49
Q

Tunica media is present in which blood vessels?

A

Arteries
Arterioles
Veins

50
Q

How does excitation-contraction coupling work in smooth muscle?

A

Activation of myosin light chain allows interaction with actin. Calcium binds to calmodulin. Ca/Calmodulin complex binds to MLCK and activates it. MLCK phosphorylates the myosin light chain to enable actin-myosin interactions.

51
Q

The _________________ of the __________ __________ _________ allows actin/myosin interactions in smooth muscle

A

Phosphorylation

Myosin light chain

52
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for the activation/phosphorylation of the regulatory myosin light chain?

A

MLCK - myosin light chain kinase

53
Q

What activates MLCK?

A

The binding of the calcium/calmodulin complex

54
Q

What happens in smooth muscle as Ca2+ levels begin to decline?

A

Relaxation - MLC phosphatase de phosphorylates the myosin light chain

55
Q

MLCK itself can be phosphorylated by…

What effect does this have?

A

Protein kinase A (PKA)

Inhibits MLCK and prevents contraction

56
Q

What are the 2 divisions of the autonomic nervous system? In which conditions is each division more dominant?

A

Sympathetic
Parasympathetic

Fight or flight - STRESS
Rest or digest - BASAL conditions

57
Q

Give an example of 2 physiological functions regulated by the ANS

A

Blood pressure

Heart rate

58
Q

What is the sympathetic effect on the pupil of the eye? What is the parasympathetic effect on the pupil of the eye?

Which receptor is responsible for each effect?

A

Dilation - a1

Contraction - m3

59
Q

What is the sympathetic effect on the airways of the lungs? What is the parasympathetic effect on the airways of the lungs?

Which receptor is responsible for each effect?

A

Relaxation - B2

Contraction - m3

60
Q

What is the sympathetic effect on the heart? What is the parasympathetic effect on the heart?

Which receptor is responsible for each effect?

A

Increased heart rate, Increased force of contraction - B1

Decreased heart rate - m2

61
Q

What is the sympathetic effect on sweat glands? What is the parasympathetic effect on sweat glands?

Which receptor is responsible for each effect?

A

Localised secretion - circulating adrenaline at a1 receptors
Generalised secretion - acetylcholine at m3 receptors

NO EFFECT FROM PARASYMPATHETIC

62
Q

Can sympathetic activity to the heart be increased without increasing activity to the GI tract?

A

Yes, sympathetic drive to different tissues is independently regulated in

63
Q

Name three things the ANS is responsible for controlling in the CVS

A

Heart rate
Force of contraction of the heart
Peripheral resistance of blood vessels

64
Q

Does the ANS initiate the electrical activity in the heart?

A

No

Pacemaker cells spontaneously depolarise

65
Q

Will a denervated heart still beat?

A

Yes, but at a faster rate

66
Q

Why does the heart beat at a faster rate when denervated?

A

Under normal conditions, the heart is largely under parasympathetic control

67
Q

Which nerve fibres provide the parasympathetic input to the heart?

A

Preganglionic fibres from the 10th cranial nerve - vagus nerve

68
Q

The vagus nerve is the ______th _________ nerve

A

10th cranial nerve

69
Q

Parasympathetic preganglionic fibres from the vagus nerve synapse with…

A

Postganglionic cells on epicardium surface or at the SA and AV node

70
Q

Where do parasympathetic fibres synapse when providing input to the heart?

A

At the epicardial surface

At the SA/AV node

71
Q

Postganglionic parasympathetic fibres release ______ acting on which receptors in the heart?

What effect will this have on the heart?

A

ACh

M2-muscarinic receptors

Decreased heart rate by decreasing AV node conduction velocity

72
Q

Which sympathetic nerve fibres provide input to the heart?

These nerve fibres innervate… (3)

These nerve fibres release which neurotransmitter?

A

Postganglionic fibres from the sympathetic trunk

SA node, AV node, myocardium

Noradrenaline

73
Q

Sympathetic nerve fibres in the heart release ________ acting on which receptors?

What effect will this have on the heart?

A

Noradrenaline

Mainly B1 (some B2,B3)

Increased heart rate
Increased force of contraction

74
Q

What effect does sympathetic or parasympathetic activity have on the pacemaker potential of an SA node action potential?

A

Sympathetic - Increases slope

Parasympathetic - Decreases slope

75
Q

What type of GPCRs are the B1 receptors found in the heart?

What do these receptors do?

A

G-alphaS

Result in increased activity of adneylyl cyclase and increased production of cAMP

76
Q

How does sympathetic activity increase the slope of the pacemaker potential?

A

Results in increased production of cAMP - cAMP is a cyclic nucleotide which stimulates the HCN channels to speed up the pacemaker potential and therefore the heart rate

77
Q

What type of GPCRs are the M2 receptors found in the heart?

What do these receptors do?

A

G-alpha-i

Decreased activity of adenylyl cyclase and therefore cAMP?

78
Q

How does increased parasympathetic activity decrease the slope of the pacemaker potential?

A

Less cAMP for HCN channels so slower pacemaker potentials and slower heart rate

79
Q

How does noradrenaline increase the force of contraction in the heart? (3)

A

Noradrenaline —> B1 receptors —> cAMP —> PKA

PKA phosphorylates Ca2+ channels resulting in increased Ca2+ entry
Increased uptake of Ca2+ in SR at rest
Increased sensitivity of contractile machinery to Ca2+

80
Q

Do most blood vessels receive sympathetic or parasympathetic innervation?

What is an exception to this?

A

Sympathetic

Erectile tissue

81
Q

Most arteries and veins have which type of receptor?

A

a1-adrenoreceptors

82
Q

Apart from a1-adrenoreceptors, vessels in which parts of the body may contain other receptors?

Which receptors are these?

A

Heart
Liver
Skeletal muscle

B2-adrenoreceptors

83
Q

What feature of blood vessels allows them to dilate at all?

A

Vasomotor tone

84
Q

What provides the vasomotor tone seen in blood vessels? (2)

A

Basal sympathetic output and the smooth muscle cells themselves

85
Q

Some blood vessels have ______________________ as well as a1-adrenoreceptors

A

B2-adrenoreceptors

86
Q

a1-adrenoreceptors typically use which neurotransmitter?

A

Noradrenaline

87
Q

Which receptors does circulating adrenaline preferentially bind to?

A

B2-adrenoreceptors

88
Q

Does circulating adrenaline activate a1-adrenoreceptors as well as B2-adrenoreceptors?

A

At higher concentrations

89
Q

What effect does activating B2-adrenoreceptors and a1-adrenoreceptors have on vascular smooth muscle?

A

B2-receptors - vasodilation

a1-receptors - vasoconstriction

90
Q

How does activation of B2-adrenoreceptors cause vasodilation?

A

Increased cAMP —> PKA —> Inhibits MLCK —> Relaxation of smooth muscle

91
Q

How does activation of a1-adrenoreceptors cause vasoconstriction in vascular smooth muscle?

A

Stimulates IP3 production, increase in intracellular calcium from stores and extracellular influx —> Contraction of smooth muscle

92
Q

Which tissues produce the most metabolites?

What effect can local increases in metabolites have on blood vessels?

Where in the body do metabolites play a more important role than B2-adrenoreceptors in vasodilation/adequate perfusion?

A

Active tissues

A strong vasodilator effect

In skeletal/coronary muscle

93
Q

Changes in the state of the CVS are communicated to the brain via _______________ nerves

94
Q

Which receptors detect changes in the CVS on the high pressure side of the system?
Which receptors detect changes in the CVS on the low pressure side of the system?

They both alter the activity of __________ nerves

A

Baroreceptors

Atrial receptors

Efferent

95
Q

What are baroreceptors? Where are they found? (2)

A

Nerve endings that are sensitive to stretch

Found in the carotid sinus and aortic arch

96
Q

Baroreceptors are sensitive to _________

97
Q

What effect does increased arterial pressure have on baroreceptors?

A

Stretches the receptors resulting in increased firing

98
Q

The baroreceptor reflex is important for maintaining blood pressure over…

A

Short term

99
Q

Persistent increases in blood pressure have what effect on baroreceptors?

A

Can result in them ‘resetting’ to higher levels

100
Q

What are sympathomimetics?

A

Drugs that promote stimulation of sympathetic nerves

101
Q

Give 4 examples of sympathomimetics

A

Adrenaline in cardiac arrest
B1 agonist (Dobutamine) given in cardiogenic shock
Adrenaline in anaphylactic shock
B2 agonist (Salbutamol) given in asthma

102
Q

Give an example of a…

B1 agonist
B2 agonist

A

Dobutamine

Salbutamol

103
Q

Cardiogenic shock can be simplified as…

A

Pump failure

104
Q

Give 2 examples a-adrenoreceptor antagonists

A

Prazosin - a1 antagonist

Anti-hypertensive agents - inhibit NA action on vascular smooth muscle a1 receptors causing vasodilation

105
Q

Give an example of an a1 antagonist

106
Q

Give 2 examples of B-adrenoreceptor antagonists

A

Propranolol

Atenolol

107
Q

What is propranolol? What effects does it have in the body?

A

Non-selective B1/B2 antagonist

Slows heart rate, reduces force of contraction, causes bronchoconstriction

108
Q

What is atenolol? What benefits does this have over propranolol?

A

Selective B1 antagonist

Less risk of bronchoconstriction

109
Q

Give an example of a muscarinic agonist

A

Pilocarpine

110
Q

What is pilocarpine commonly used in the treatment of? How does it work?

A

Glaucoma

Activates the constrictor pupillae muscle

111
Q

Give an example of a muscarinic antagonist

A

Atropine

Tropicamide

112
Q

What effects do atropine/tropicamide have on the body? In what way can they be used for examination purposes?

A

Increase heart rate
Cause bronchial dilation

To dilate the pupils for examination of the eye