Session 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between a superficial nephron and a juxtamedullary nephron?

A

Superficial nephrons only penetrate the outer medulla and they have no thin descending limb of the loop of Henle. In juxtamedullary nephrons the thin loop of Henle penetrates into the inner medulla and there is a long descending thin limb of the loop of Henle.

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2
Q

How do cortical nephrons build up pressure for filtration?

A

Much narrower afferent arteriole than efferent arteriole to increase preload into the kidney and therefore increases filtration pressure.

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3
Q

What types of nephron form vasa recta?

A

Juxtamedullary nephrons.

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4
Q

What types of nephron form peritubular capillaries?

A

Cortical nephrons.

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5
Q

How many segmental arteries are usually found in a kidney?

A

5

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6
Q

Describe the main features of peritubular capillaries.

A

Arise from efferent arterioles; each peritubular capillary network surrounds the PCT and is only associated with one nephron.

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7
Q

Is oncotic pressure in blood in the efferent articles higher or lower than in the afferent, why?

A

Higher, albumin levels are higher in comparison to the afferent arteriole due to filtration in the glomerulus.

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8
Q

What does the end product of filtration in the glomerulus resemble?

A

Blood plasma but without the large proteins and cells present.

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9
Q

What forces are involved in filtering plasma at the kidneys?

A
  • Hydrostatic pressure in the capillary
  • Hydrostatic pressure in the Bowman’s capsule
  • Oncotic pressure difference between the capillary and tubular lumen
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10
Q

What forms the filtration barrier in the kidneys?

A

Capillary endothelium, basement membrane, podocyte layer.

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11
Q

How are negatively charged proteins prevented from moving across the filtration barrier in the kidneys?

A

Basement membrane contains glycoproteins which have a negative charge, any proteins with a negative charge are repelled from movement across the membrane.

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12
Q

What is the purpose of filtration slits in the filtration barrier of the kidney?

A

To prevent large molecules and cells from getting through; insulin is the largest molecule which can fit through the slits normally.

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13
Q

How is filtration in the kidneys regulated?

A

Autoregulation via the myogenic response; autoregulation via tubular glomerular feedback.

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14
Q

Describe the myogenic response in the kidneys.

A

If blood pressure increases, smooth muscle cells respond to an increase in force created by the increased pressure by contracting more, less blood can move into the capillaries so hydrostatic pressure remains constant and GFR remains unchanged. Mechanism can maintain GFR when BP is within physiological limits.

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15
Q

Describe autoregulation via tubular glomerular feedback.

A

When GFR changes, tubular flow also changes so a different amount of NaCl reaches the distal tubule. Different [NaCl] is detected by the macula densa cells via concentration-dependent salt uptake through NaK2Cl channels and chemical signals are sent to the afferent arteriole to increase/decrease GFR. Adenosine and prostaglandins can also be released by the juxtaglomerular apparatus to cause vasodilation of the efferent/afferent arterioles.

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16
Q

What effect does adenosine have on the kidneys?

A

Causes vasodilation of the efferent arteriole.

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17
Q

What effect do prostaglandins have on the kidneys?

A

Cause vasodilation of the afferent arteriole.

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18
Q

When is tubular glomerular feedback utilised?

A

In acute changes in tubular flow.

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19
Q

Describe resorption in the proximal convoluted tubule of the kidney.

A

Isosmotic and driven by sodium uptake. All glucose and half of urea is usually reabsorbed here.

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20
Q

Why is 50% of urea reabsorbed in the PCT?

A

To allow regulation of osmolarity of urine.

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21
Q

How is sodium moved across the basolateral membrane in the kidney tubules?

A

Actively via 3Na-2K-ATPase.

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22
Q

How does sodium move across the apical membrane in the kidney tubules?

A

Passively along its concentration gradient through a variety of transporters.

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23
Q

Which transporters allow sodium movement across the apical membrane in the PCT of kidney tubules?

A

Na-H antiporter and Na-Glucose symporter (SGLUT).

24
Q

Which transporters allow sodium movement across the apical membrane in the loop of Henle of kidney tubules?

A

Na-K-2Cl symporter.

25
Q

Which transporters allow sodium movement across the apical membrane in the early distal tubule of kidney tubules?

A

Na-Cl symporter.

26
Q

Which transporters allow sodium movement across the apical membrane in the late distal tubule and collecting duct of kidney tubules?

A

ENaC.

27
Q

What happens if plasma glucose concentration is above the transport maximum for SGLUT?

A

Some glucose will spill into the urine, water will follow the glucose so the patient will present with polyuria and glucosuria.

28
Q

How is glucose reabsorbed in the PCT?

A

Moved across the apical membrane via SGLUT by using the sodium concentration gradient to power the pump. Moved across the basolateral membrane via facilitated diffusion into the peritubular capillaries.

29
Q

How are organic cations secreted in the kidney?

A

Cation enters tubular cells via passive carrier-mediated diffusion across the basolateral membrane using gradients set up by 3Na-2K-ATPase. Cation is secreted into the lumen via a H-OC exchanger driven by the H gradient from Na-H antiporters.

30
Q

What is the normal value of GFR in men and women?

A

Around 120 in men and 95 in women but decreases with age and varies with ethnicity, body size.

31
Q

How is GFR measured?

A

Measure a substance that isn’t altered as it travels through the nephron, e.g. creatinine or inulin.

32
Q

What is renal clearance?

A

The rate of elimination of a substance by the kidney and liver: GFR=Clearance=(UxV)/P

33
Q

What is eGFR?

A

An estimate of GFR used in clinical situations.

34
Q

What are cenobitic molecules?

A

Molecules which the body recognises as foreign.

35
Q

WHat relevance does clearance have on drug dosing?

A

Determines how long a drug will be therapeutically active, hence determines drug dosing regimes and the effectiveness of a drug.

36
Q

If the rate of removal of a drug is proportional to its free concentration in plasma, what does this imply about the pharmacokinetics of the drug?

A

It shows linear pharmacokinetics.

37
Q

What molecular factors affect the movement of drugs in and out of fluid and tissue compartments?

A

Lipophilicity; hydrophilicity; degree of binding to plasma proteins; degree of binding to tissue proteins.

38
Q

Why are tissue compartments modelled as one apparent fluid compartment?

A

Makes the model simple and tissue compartments usually have a very high capacity for drugs so they don’t behave like real fluid volumes.

39
Q

How is the apparent volume of distribution of a drug measured?

A

My measuring the actual plasma concentration of the drug and using it to calculate Vd.

40
Q

What does a high Vd imply?

A

A drug is lipophilic so leaves the plasma easily and therefore has a low clearance rate as little is available for excretion by the kidneys.

41
Q

What does a low Vd imply?

A

A drug is highly charged so is more confined to the plasma, therefore has a higher clearance rate as more drug is available for excretion by the kidneys.

42
Q

How are xenobiotics recognised by the liver?

A

Using phase I and phase II enzyme systems.

43
Q

What role does the liver have in removing xenobiotics?

A

Phase I and phase II enzyme systems recognise xenobiotics and act to increase their ionic charge so they become more readily excretable by the kidneys.

44
Q

What effect does decreased pH have on excretion of drugs?

A

Acidic urine allows acidic anions to become protonated and electrically neutral so they become more lipophilic and can diffuse back across the nephron more easily and less are excreted. It also makes weak bases more protonated so more is excreted in the urine.

45
Q

What effect does increased urinary pH have on the excretion of drugs?

A

Weak bases become deprotonated and electrically neutral so they become more lipophilic and less is excreted in the urine. It also prevents protonation of acidic anions so more will be excreted in the urine.

46
Q

Where are organic anion and cation transporters located in the kidneys?

A

In the PCT on both the apical and basolateral membranes.

47
Q

Which organic anion and cation transporters are found in the kidneys?

A

OAT and OCT transporters.

48
Q

How can half life of drugs be therapeutically increased in the kidneys?

A

By competitively binding to OATs and OCTs to reduce renal clearance of drugs.

49
Q

Problems with which systems can affect renal clearance?

A

Heart, renal or hepatic (HRH).

50
Q

How can cardiac problems affect clearance?

A

Reduced cardiac output causes a fall in GFR.

51
Q

How can renal problems cause reduced clearance?

A

Reduced renal vascular supply reduces GFR; renal failure/disease reduces clearance.

52
Q

How can liver problems impact on renal clearance?

A

Hepatic disease reduces drug metabolism by phase I and phase II enzyme responses so clearance reduces; in cirrhosis and hepatitis there is hyoalbunimea so increased availability of drugs normally bound to albumin and increased clearance of those drugs.

53
Q

Describe the features of inulin.

A

Fructose polysaccharide which is clinically inert so not broken down or altered. Inulin clearance=GFR.

54
Q

Why is inulin clearance not usually used to measure GFR?

A

It is expensive and cumbersome to measure so only used for experimental purposes.

55
Q

Are creatinine levels an over/underestimate of GFR? Why?

A

Usually 10-20% overestimate as around 10-20% of creatinine produced is secreted.