Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Series 66 > Session 2 > Flashcards

Session 2 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Series 66 flashcards
1
Q

National Conference of Commissioner on Uniform State Law (NCCUSL)

A

a national organization of lawyers devoted to unifying state laws, drafted the Uniform Securities Act (USA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Uniform Securities Act (USA)

A

is a model legislation for the separate states to adopt… (just an outline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Administrator

A

refers to the office or agency that has the complete responsibility for administering the securities laws of the state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Administrator’s power

A

1- over the registration of securities professional and securities
2- to make rules and issue orders
3- Can deny, suspend or revoke registration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cease and Desist Order

A

when a registered person has or is about to commit a violation to the USA…(Can be served before hearing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Stop Order

A

is used to deny effectiveness to, or suspend or revoke the effectiveness of any registration statement(only securities)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Summary Order 3 cases

A

1- postponing/ suspending (security) the registration of any security proceeding a final determination of a proceed problem
3-Denying/revoking a specific security exemption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the protocol that the administrator must follow for a summary order?

A

1- inform all interest parties
2- reason for the order
3- within 15 days after the written request a hearing will be granted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Final Orders

A

is one that ends litigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What three items must be placed on a Final Order?

A

1- appropriate prior notice to the interested parties
2- opportunity for hearing
3- written finding or facts and conclusions of law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Blue Sky Laws are also known as

A

State Securities Laws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Broker-Dealer

A

means any person engaged in the business of effecting transactions in securities for the account of others or own

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Who do BD register with?

A

State and SEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Agent

A

any individual who represents a BD or issuer in effecting or attempting to effect purchases or sales of securities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Investment Adviser (2)

A

1- paid to engage in the business of advising others (directly/publications) as to value of securities and what to do
2- paid to issue analyses or reports concerning securities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Who do investment advisors register with?

A

EITHER the SEC or State registered adviser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Investment Adviser Representative

A

any individual who represents a state-registered or federal covered investment adviser that give or solicit advisory services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Issuer

A

any person who proposes or has issued any securities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Who aren’t included to be issuers?

A

certificate of interest or participation in oil, pass or mining titles or leases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Nonissuer

A

indirect seller of a security that isn’t the issuer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Guaranteed

A

means that payment of principal, interest or dividends BUT NOT CAPITAL GAINS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Registrant

A

refers to those securities pros/issuers who are in the process or have registered with the Administrator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

National Securities Market Improvements Act of 1996 (NSMIA)

A

was created to promote efficiency in capital formation in the financial markets….these are federal covered securities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What four persons are subjective to state registration?

A

1- BD
2- Agents
3- Investment Advisers
4- Investment adviser representatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How much $ does a employee benefit plan have to have in order to be considered a institution?

A

At least a million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Persons not included in the definition of a BD? (3)

A

1- agents
2- issuers
3- banks, savings institutions and trust companies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

State exclusion of BDs include the two following examples:

A

1- have no place of business in the state and deal exclusively with the issuers of the security involved in the transactions w/ other BD and institutions
2- have no business in the state, but are licensed in their state that offer/sell securities to customer in the state only who are clients but not residents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How long does the BD have to register will a state that a new client moved to before BD can’t deal with them?

A

30 day period…new drivers/voter registration equals a move

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

BD registration with state and internet advertising? (2)

A

1- firm/person can only do business if registered in the state
2- Any follow up individual response dealing with effecting transactions will have the firm/person make sure they are registered w/ state
3- Website makes general statements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Net Capital Requirements

A

is established by the administrator and state requirement level can’t be higher than federal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

BD must disclose their capacity no later than…

A

trade confirmation or settlement date

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What type of employees for a BD do not have to be registered?

A

Clerical and administrative (ministerial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If a cold call intern received a 10 dollar bonus for every solicited client would they be considered an agent?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

DO agents have to register with the state?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

U4

A

is an agents registration form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Do agents have to be registered in a state for an unsolicited order if the clients lives in an outside state?

A

YES they can’t accept the order

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

If an agent is to move from Merrill to JP Morgan who must reach out to the administrator?

A

All three parties must

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Can an individual be an agent for two BD or issuers?

A

yes if…
1- BDs or issuers are affiliated by direct or indirect common control
2- administrator gives the okay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What must be on the application to the administer?

A

1- form and place of business
2- proposed method of doing business
3-a list of jurisdictions in which the applicant is registering
4- qualification and business history
5- adjudications by the SEC or any SROs
6- convictions of misdemeanors with securities
7- conviction of felony related or not
8- (for bd/ investment adviser only)financial conditions
9-any liens or bankruptcy for 10 years
NO FINGER PRINTS**

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Consent to Service Process

A

appoints the Administrator as the applicant’s attorney to receive and process non criminal securities related complaints against the applicant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

If a securities professional is registered in 6 states how many administrators must be notify with the consent to service process?

A

All six

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the renewal process date for all registered persons?

A

December 31st…ALWAYS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

If an application is withdrawn or denied does the individual get back the filling fee?

A

Yes BUT NOT ALL OFF IT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Application of license of the BD, agent, investment adviser becomes effective?

A

30 days after later of the complete app or date of the amendment AT NOON

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How long does it take for bd, individual to withdraw their registration?

A

30 days, but can be faster with a rush order

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Actions that fall outside of recommendations for BD?

A

basically anything to do with general research even if it has a buy/sell recommendation if okay for a website that the agent creates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Actions that fall outside of recommendations for BD?

A

anything that is customer specific (could be group) or urges the customers to purchase securities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Social Media classifications such as twitter and linkedin?

A

Twitter is retail comm (doesn’t need preapproval)

LinkedIn needs preapproval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

BD policies about social media should include: (4)

A

1- be writing and communicated firmwide
2- be written short and to the point
3- define the responsibilities of all concerned parties
4- describe the monitoring tools

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How often is a BD require to hold a meeting about social media conduct?

A

Annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Nonsecurities Investments (6)

A 
1- collectibles
2- fixed annuities
3- currencies
4- real estate
5- precious metals
6-grain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Common Enterprise

A

is when the fortune of the investor are interwoven with those either the person offering the investment or other investors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Issuer Transaction

A

is when all the money goes straight to the issuer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Nonissuer Transaction

A

is one where the sale doesn’t go to the issuer, directly or indirectly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Are Mutual fund transactions issuer or nonissuer?

A

ISSUER

56
Q

Categories of Federal Covered Securities (4)

A

1- securities issued by open or closed end investment companies
2- securities listed on any NY/Chi exchange and NASDAQ stock
3- securities in pursuit of being in Reg D (506 b/c)
4- out of state muni bonds(NY resident buys ohio muni)

57
Q

Methods of State Registrations of Securities (3)

A

1- Notice Filing
2- Coordination
3- Qualification

58
Q

Notice Filing

A

typically have lowest fees and is a way for the state to collect revenue

59
Q

Docs State Administrators could act for? (4)

A

1- Docs filed with their registration statements filed with the SEC
2- Docs filed as amendments to the initial federal registration statement
3- a report as to the value of such securities offered in the state
4- Consent to service of process

60
Q

Is the state administrator powerless to federal covered securities?

A

No if there is an appearance of fraud they can prevent the sale from occurring

61
Q

Registration by Coordination

A

is the most popular for nonfederal cover securities…if a registration statement has been filed under the Securities Act of 1933 in connection with the same offering

62
Q

In order to coordinate a federal with a state registration the following must be provided: (4)

A

1- (Optional) copies of the latest prospectus if state administrator asks for it
2-Copy of articles of incorporation and bylaws, underwriting agreement or a specimen copy of the security
3- (optional) copies of any other info filed by the issuer under the Security Act of 1933
4- each amendment to the federal prospectus promptly after it is filed w/ SEC

63
Q

Effective date will be the same for federal and state provided that: (3)

A

1-no issue with the state administrator
2- Has been on file between 10 to 20 days
3- Statement for price range as well as underwriting discounts have been on file for 2 business days

64
Q

Is it possible to increase the amount of shares being offered to the public without resubmitting the paperwork? How? (2)

A

Yes
1- the offering price stays the same
2- the commissions and discount price stays the same

65
Q

Exempt Transaction

A

is exempt from the regulatory control of the state Administrator

66
Q

It is unlawfully for any person to offer/sell any security in this state unless:

A

1-it is registered under the act
2- security or transaction is exempted under the act
3-it is federal covered security

67
Q

Exempt Securities Include

A 
1-Insurance Companies
2- Public Utility Securities
3-Federal Covered Securities
4-Certain Money market
5-Securities issued by cooperatives
6-Securities issued by nonprofit
68
Q

What is a promissory note exempted?

A

when it is valued at more than 50,000 and has one of the highest ratings

69
Q

What are exempted from the USA, but not exempted from the federal registration?

A

1-foreign gov’t
2-insurance companies
3-federal covered securities

70
Q

What type of bank’s securities are exempted from both state and federal?

A

Regulated banks

71
Q

Isolated Nonissuer Transaction

A

is an exempted transaction where it doesn’t involve securities professionals and is a sell between two parties

72
Q

Unsolicited Brokerage Transactions

A

is an exempted transaction that is the most popular where a clients calls FA to buy/sell security

73
Q

Underwriter Transactions

A

is an exempted transaction is between issuer and BD performing in the capacity of the underwriter plus underwriters themselves

74
Q

Bankruptcy, guardian or conservator transactions

A

is an exempted transaction transactions by an executor, administrator, sheriff, marshal, receiver, guardian or trustee in bankruptcy are exempt

75
Q

Intuitional Investors Transactions

A

is an exempted transaction primarily transactions with financial institutions such as banks, insurance companies and investment companies and there is no min order size used to define these trades

76
Q

Limited Offering Transactions

A

is an exempted transaction that is private placement directed at no more that 10 offerees people other than institutional investors during the previous 12 months

77
Q

For private placement non intuitional investors must sign:

A

a Investment letter attesting to the fact that they are purchasing the security for investment purposes (Sellers job)

78
Q

Preorganization Certificates is exempted( postponed) if:

A

1- no commission is paid or given directly or indirectly for soliciting any subscribers
2-the number of subscribers doesn’t exceed 10
3-no payments is made by any subscriber

79
Q

Transactions with Existing Security Holders

A

is exempted transactions as long as no commissions are paid directly or indirectly

80
Q

Nonissuer Transaction by pledgees

A

if I pledge stock as collateral for a loan and I got bankrupted the company will sell my stock to recoup some loses and this is exempted transaction

81
Q

Administrator may deny or revoke registration exemption for:

A

1- any security by an person organized and operated not for private profit but exclusively for religion, ed, charitable, fraternal
2-an investment contracted issued in connection with employee stock purchase, savings, pension….

82
Q

Registrant

A

is the person registering the securities

83
Q

State Administrators require every issuer to supply the following info on their registration statement: (6)

A

1- amount of securities to be issued in the state
2- States in which the security is to be offered, but not the amounts offered in those other states
3- any adverse order or judgment concerning the offering by regulatory authorizes
4- Anticipated effective date
5- Anticipated use of funds
6- any docs filed with the Administrators within 5 years that is current

84
Q

Other than an issuer who else must file a registration statement?

A

1- Selling Stockholder

2- BD

85
Q

Filing Fee

A

is paid by the issuer when filing the registration…usually percentage of total offering price

86
Q

Ongoing Reports

A

the Administrator may require the person who filed the registration to give QUARTERLY reports to keep info current and to inform the Administrator of the progress of the offering

87
Q

The Administrator may require the securities to be placed in escrow if the security is issued:

A

1-within the past three years
2- to a promoter at a price that’s much different than the offering price
3- to any person for a consideration other than cash

88
Q

Special Subscription Form

A

that the registration only be sold on a form specified by the administrator and that a copy of the form/subscription be filed with the Administrator or preserved for three years

89
Q

Withdrawal of Registration Statement

A

can only be done after 1 year after the effective date and if any securities are left outstanding need the Administrator approval

90
Q

What is the difference between fraudulent and unethical practice?

A

Fraudulent- punishment is jail

Unethical Practice- is a fine

91
Q

State securities law have fraud defined to for any person, when engaged in the offer sale, or purchase of any security directly/indirectly:

A

1- employ any device, scheme or artice to defraud
2- make any untrue statement of a material fact or omit
3- engage in any act, practice or course of business that operates as fraud or deceit on a person

92
Q

It is unlawful for any person who receives any consideration from another person for advising the value of a securities or their purchase/sale to:

A

1- employ any device, scheme or artifice to defraud the other person
2-engage in any practice or course of business which does or would operate in fraud or deceit upon

93
Q

Material

A

is info used by a prospective purchaser to make an informed investment decisions

94
Q

Examples of untrue/misleading statements:

A

1- inaccurate market quotations
2-misstatement of an issuer’s earning or projected earnings or dividends
3- inaccurate statement regarding the amount of commissions, markup or markdown
4- Imply you have inside info about a company
5- telling a customer that a securities will be listed on an exchange before its known
6- Informing the security is approved
7-promising a service without being qualified to perform them
8-saying the state Administrator approves the BD
9-misrepresenting the status of customer account

95
Q

Delivery Delays

A

engaging in a pattern of unreasonable and unjustifiable delays in the delivery of securities purchased by customer and/or payment upon request of free credit balance

96
Q

Free Lunch Seminars

A

attendees are giving free lunch and are giving an educational piece about products NO SELLING at events

97
Q

Margin Docs

A

executing any transactions in a margin acct w/o securing from the customers a properly executed written margin agreements after the initial transaction in the account

98
Q

Improper Hypothecation

A

hypothecation without have the customer’s WRITTEN permission

99
Q

Unreasonable Commissions/markups

A

completing a transaction not at the market price that in the market

100
Q

Timely Prospectus Delivery

A

failing to furnish that a customer purchased in an offering…must be given on confirmation date

101
Q

Unreasonable Serving Fees

A

charging for unreasonable and inequitable fees for service performed

102
Q

Disclosure of Fees made easier for customers:

A

1- Fees are typically disclosed when a customer account is open. If fee schedule changes notify clients
2- Minimize the fine print or make the fees clear
3- Use standardized and uncomplicated terms to describe service and maintenance fees to help clients

103
Q

Typical BD Fees

A 
1-issuance of stock certificate
2-  transferring an account
3- wiring funds
4- margin account interest
5-account maintenance fees
6- safekeeping of funds/securities
7-postage and handling
104
Q

Dishonoring Quotes

A

cannot state price to customer without the intent for the BD to sell or purchase atleast 100 shares at the price

105
Q

Market Manipulation

A

effecting any transaction in any security by means of manipulative, deceptive or fraudulent device

106
Q

Matched Orders

A

occur when an order to buy or sell securities is entered with knowledge that a matching order on the oppo side of the transaction has been entered…this does two things (1) creates an appearance of false trading

107
Q

Wash Trade

A

is an order to buy/sell securities resulting in no change of beneficial ownership for the purpose of create false activity

108
Q

Guaranteeing Against Loss

A

telling the clients that the FA will make up the difference if a clients loses money

109
Q

Deceptive Advertising Practice

A

using any advertising or sales presentation in such a fashion as to be deceptive or misleading

110
Q

Can a underwriter/selling group withhold shares of a public offering?

A

NO

111
Q

Responding to Complaints

A

failure or refusal to furnish a customer, upon reasonable request information to which he is entitled or respond to a formal written request or complaint (must be answered if written)

112
Q

Backdating Records

A

all records and documents must reflect their actual dates

113
Q

Selling Away

A

effecting securities transactions not recorded on the regular books or records of the BD which the agents represents, unless the transactions are authorized in writing by the BD proper to execution

114
Q

Fictitious Accounts

A

establishing or maintaining an account containing fictitious info in order to execute transactions which would otherwise be prohibited

115
Q

Sale or Sell

A

is any transfer of a security which money or some other valuable consideration is involved

116
Q

Offer or Offer to Sell

A

every attempt or offer to dispose of, or solicitation of an offer to buy, a security or interest in a security for value

117
Q

Examples of Offer or offer to sell (3)

A

1-any security given or delivered with like a bonus
2-a purported gift of assessable stock is considered to involve an offer and a sale
3-a sale or order of a warrant or right to purchase or subscribe to another security

118
Q

Assessable Stock

A

when gifted the administrator has jurisdiction over the transaction because theres a potential future obligation of a demand for par value

119
Q

Examples of exclusions from the definition of Sale/Sell and offer/offer to sell:

A

1- bona fide pledge (pledge stock as collateral for loan)
2- gift of nonassessable stock
3- stock dividend whether given by issuer or not
4- after a class vote by the stockholder for merger, consolidation reclassification
5- award in lawsuit for the company to gift shares

120
Q

USA describes legal jurisdiction as

A

as any offer to buy or sell an security as wells as any acceptance of the offer if the offer:
1-orginated in the administrator’s state
2-directed to the administrator’s state
3-accepted in the administrator’s state

121
Q

USA states that an offer(publishing and broadcast) wouldn’t not be under control of the Administrator if:

A

1- a TV or radio broadcast that originated outside of the state
2- a bona fide newspaper or periodical published outside of the state
3- a newspaper or periodical published inside the state by more than 2/3 of it circulation outside of the state last year

122
Q

Difference between a rule and an order

A

Rule applies to everyone and an order is a specific instance

123
Q

How many days does a person have to challenge the Administrator’s order?

A

Within 60 days

124
Q

Can a Sate Administrator alter laws?

A

No they may not

125
Q

Are rules and orders added to the USA model?

A

No they aren’t

126
Q

Administrator has the power to do the following in conducting an investigation: (4)

A

1- require statements in writing as to all matters relating to the issue under investigation
2- publish and make public the facts and circumstances concerning the issuer to be investigated
3- subpoena witness and compel their attendance and testimony
4-take evidence and require the production of books, papers and all other relevant documents

127
Q

Contumacy

A

is refusal of the person to respond to a subpoena of an Administrator…the Administrator will go to the appropriate court in the state

128
Q

Administrator may issue a cease and desist order at the discretion if: (2)

A

1- with or without a prior hearing against person(s) engaged in the prohibited activity
2- bring action in the appropriate court to obtain enforcement of the order through the issuance of a temporary or permanent injunction

129
Q

Administrator will summarize a suspension the following points: (3)

A

1- give prior notice to the affected persons
2- granting an oppo for a hearing
3- provide findings of facts and conclusion of laws

130
Q

If a person was convicted of a misdemeanor in State A moves to State B where the action was a felony and then the person applies for registration what will happen?

A

The action that took place in State A will have to be viewed as a misdemeanor in State B

131
Q

No order to deny, suspend or revoke may be entered without: (3)

A

1- appropriate prior notice to the applicant or registrant
2- Oppo for hearing
3- written findings of fact and conclusion of law

132
Q

Administrator acting summarily means:

A

that he may order, w/o having to go through the hearing process, a postponement or suspension of a registration pending final determination

133
Q

If an applicant receives a suspension or postponement from the Administrator how long do they have to respond for a hearing?

A

Within 15 days

134
Q

How long does the applicant have to withdraw from the Administrator?

A

30 days after the Administrator receives it

135
Q

If the registration is withdrawn does the Administrator have jurisdiction over you?

A

yes for a year period

Series 66 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions