Session 10 Flashcards

1
Q

What is meant by the mesangium and mesangial cells?

A
  • In the glomerulus of the kidney, the mesangium is a structure associated with the capillaries. It is continuous with the smooth muscles of the arterioles – it is outside the capillary lumen but surrounded by capillaries (contained by the basement membrane which surrounds both the capillaries and the mesangium).
  • Mesangial cells are specialized cells around blood vessels in the kidneys, at the mesangium. They are specialized smooth muscle cells that contact and function to regulate blood flow through the capillaries. There are 2 types – extraglomerular mesangial cells and intraglomerular mesangial cells.
  • Intraglomerular mesangial cells have 3 central roles: filtration, structural support and phagocytosis.
  • Extraglomerular mesangial cells are part of the Juxtaglomerular apparatus (along with macula densa of DCT and juxtaglomerular cells of the afferent arterioles) which regulates BP through RAAS. Extraglomerular mesangial cells are also known as Lacis cells. Their specific function is not well understood though it has been associated with secretion of erythropoietin.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the basic structural patterns of glomerular injury (consider site of injury)

A

[*] Pathology of any one part of the nephron can secondarily affect the others i.e. if you damage the glomerulus, the tubules will atrophy and if you damage the tubules, feedback will make the glomerulus shut down => acute renal failure

[*] The site of glomerular injury determines a patient’s clinical presentation.

The injury may be primary (just affecting the glomerulus) or secondary (systemic disease that has in turn damaged the glomerulus).

There are four sites of glomerular injury:

Subepithelial

  • Anything that effects podocytes/podocyte side of glomerular basement membrane
  • The podocytes have interdigitating foot processes with adjacent cells, forming a complex network of intercellular junctions

Within Glomerular Basement Membrane (made up of Type IV collagen)

Subendothelial

  • inside the Basement membrane

Mesangial/paramesangial

  • Supporting capillary loop
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe Proteinuria and Nephrotic Syndrome

A

[*] Proteinuria: Proteinuria is the presence of excess serum proteins (<3.5g filtered every 24hours) in urine. The presence of protein in urine is due to podocyte damage, the widening fenestration slits causing protein to be ‘leaked’ when it would normally not be filtered. Proteinuria is a ‘less severe’ Nephrotic Syndrome.

[*] Nephrotic Syndrome Over 3.5g of Protein is filtered in 24hrs is known as Nephrotic Syndrome.

  • As a lot of protein is being filtered, oncotic pressure is reduced giving generalised oedema. Podocyte/Subepithelial damage is the likely site of injury.
  • Proteinuria, peripheral oedema, hyperlipidaemia – normally kidney function is ok, normal GFR, creatinine and urea levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the common causes of Proteinuria / Nephrotic Syndrome?

A

[*] Common Primary Causes of Proteinuria/Nephrotic Syndrome

  • Minimal Change Glomerulonephritis (GN)
  • Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)
  • Membranous Glomerulonephritis

[*] Common Secondary Causes of Proteinuria/Nephrotic Syndrome

  • Diabetes Mellitus (microvascular complications affect kidneys)
  • Amyloidosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Minimum Change Glomerulonephritis?

A
  • Commonest cause of nephrotic syndrome in childhood/adolescence. Presents in childhood/adolescence with incidence reducing with increasing age. It causes heavy proteinuria or Nephrotic syndrome.
  • The disease responds well to steroids, but may reoccur once weaned off treatment. There is usually no progression to renal failure and is normally purely protein loss from the kidney.
  • Minimal Change Glomerulonephritis is named as such because when looking at the glomeruli under a light microscope they appear to be completely normal.
  • However, under an electron microscope, the damage to podocytes is evident, widening fenestration slits and allowing protein to ‘leak’ through. Podocytes’ foot processes disappear – they retract into the cell bodies in response to cell damage, impairing filter function.
  • Pathogenesis is unknown. Unknown circulating factor damaging podocytes.
  • No immune complex (of host antibodies and antigens deposition)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is FGFS?

A
  • Focal – Involving less than 50% of glomeruli on light microscopy
  • Segmental – Involving part of the glomerular tuft
  • Glomerular
  • Sclerosis – Scarring
  • Presents in adulthood and is less responsive to steroids than minimal change glomerulonephritis. Podocytes undergo damage and subsequent scarring (Glomerulosclerosis), so protein is present in the urine.
  • A circulating factor is responsible for the damage, evidenced by the fact that transplanted kidneys undergo the same damage.
  • Minimal change FSGS can progress to renal failure, but the pathogenesis is unknown.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is Membranous Glomerulonephritis?

A
  • The commonest cause of Nephrotic syndrome in adults and rarely occurs in children. Results from immune complex deposits in the sub-epithelial space and probably has an autoimmune basis (autoantibody to podocytes – Phospholipase A2 receptor (PLA2R) autoantibody). The podocytes have been damaged by complement activation.
  • However there is also evidence that it [Text Box: o Capillary loop far too thick o Basement membrane looks ‘speckley’ –irregular spiky] may be secondary, as it is associated with other conditions, particularly malignancies e.g. lymphoma.

Follows the rule of thirds:

  • 1/3 just get better
  • 1/3 ‘Grumble along’, proteinuria but are fine
  • 1/3 Progress to renal failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Nephritic Syndrome?

A

Renal failure due to the leaking of filter. Associated with hypertension, low GFR, oedema due to fluid overloading, haematuria (lets blood through)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is IgA Nephropathy?

A
  • The commonest Glomerular Nephropathy, which can occur at any age, characterised by the deposition of IgA antibody in the Glomerulus. It is classically present with visible/invisible haematuria and has been shown to have a relationship with mucosal infections (IgA protects mucosal surfaces). It can present at the same time as a respiratory tract infection.
  • It has variable histological features and course. Some, but not all, patients have proteinuria, and a significant proportion of patients, but not all, progress to renal failure. It is unknown why this variation occurs.
  • Immune complexes in the circulation get trapped in the mesangium – deposition of circulating IgA-containing immune-complexes
  • Mesangial proliferation => expansion of mesangium => replaced by collagen and scarring may occur (fibrous repair). There is no effective treatment.
  • But it does not seem to come back in a damaging way after transplant – doesn’t seem to cause renal failure.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe 2 common heriditary nephropathies

A

There are two hereditary nephropathies, Thin GBM Nephropathy and Alport Syndrome that are relatively common

  • The two are not completely distinct however, with a grey area between them. It has been found that they both have a defective gene responsible for producing Type IV collagen however the 2 mutations are different leading to 2 different abnormalities

Thin GBM Nephropathy

  • Benign Familial Nephropathy
  • Isolated Haematuria
  • Thin GBM
  • Benign Course
  • ‘Just a little bit of blood in urine – no significant protein loss in urine.
  • Doesn’t require treatment

Alport Syndrome

  • X linked
  • Abnormal collagen IV
  • Associated with deafness
  • Abnormal appearing GBM
  • Progresses to renal failure.
  • Early onset, blood in urine.
  • Doesn’t occur in transplant patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe microvascular nephropathy in Diabetes Mellitus

A
  • Progressive proteinuria
  • Progressive renal failure
  • Microvascular (Damages glomerulus directly)
  • Mesangial sclerosis => collagen deposits and accumulation in the glomerular loop => nodules (lumps of scar tissue) => eventually leads to renal failure
  • Basement membrane thickening to 4-5x normal which causes nephrotic syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe Goodpasture Syndrome

A
  • Relatively uncommon, but clinically important as it is very rapidly progressing Glomerular Nephritis (very rapid, acute, sudden onset of kidney failure – of severe nephritic syndrome)
  • The disease is brought about by an autoantibody to collagen IV in basement membranes, and classically described association with pulmonary haemorrhage (only in smokers) – attacks lung tissue as well as kidney but lung damage only occurs in smokers.
  • It is treatable by immunosuppression and plasmaphoresis (removing autoantibody from basement membrane) if caught early.
  • Characterised by IgG deposition but no Extracellular Matrix deposit.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe Vasculitis

A
  • Group of systemic disorders
  • No immune-complex/antibody deposition
  • An inflammation of blood vessels that will therefore affect the highly vascularised kidney. => nephritic presentation.
  • Blood vessels are attacked directly in the glomerulus by Anti Neutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibody (ANCA) – an autoantibody leading to inappropriate activation of neutrophils which start damaging blood vessels.
  • Treatable with immunosuppression therapy if caught early (before patient is on diagnosis). Urgent biopsy service required.
  • The crescent pattern of glomeruls nephritis (due to the inflammatory cell infiltrate) – classically caused by Goodpasture’s and Vasculitis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the basic mechanisms/factors response for the different expression of immune complex mediated disease

A

[*] Subepithelial Deposits: Antigens lodged in situ in the filter and abnormally recognised on podocytes, circulating IgG (antibodies) binds to it, forming immune complexes in the glomerulus (Not circulating immune complexes causing damage).

  • E.g. Membranous Glomerulonephritis

[*] Mesangial Deposits: Immune complexes can be deposited directly in the mesangium, as there is no podocytes or basement membrane to act as a barrier.

  • E.g. IgA Nephropathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the epidemiology of prostate cancer

A
  • Prostate cancer is the most common cancer in men in the UK. It is also the second most common cause of death from cancer in men.
  • However, most men who are diagnosed with prostate cancer, have localised disease and are more likely to die with it than of it.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the risk factors for prostate cancer, correlations with age and risk factor management

A

[*] Risk factors for prostate cancer

Age

  • There is a correlation with increasing age.
  • Uncommon in men younger than 50.

Family History

  • 4x increased risk if one 1st degree relative is diagnosed with Prostate Cancer before age 60
  • After age 60 any diagnosis was probably age related
  • BRCA2 gene mutation

Race

  • Incidence in Asian < Caucasian < Afro-Caribbean (Black)

[*] Correlations with increasing age

  • Urinary symptoms
  • Benign enlargement of prostate
  • Prostate cancer

CORRELATIONS do not mean urinary symptoms are caused by Prostate Cancer.

[*] NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management:

  • Does not recommend mass population screening with PSA (Prostate Specific Antigen) testing
  • Supports opportunistic screening if patients are counselled (e.g. patients approaching GP, concerned about family history and aware of PSA)
17
Q

What are the issues with PSA screening?

A
  • Over-diagnosis
  • Over-treatment (side effect of ‘unnecessary’ treatments e.g. incontinence, erectile dysfunction)
  • Quality of life – co-morbidities of established treatments
  • Other causes of raised PSA

Infection
Inflammation
Large prostate (benign hyperplasia)

  • Having a raised PSA does not mean you have prostate cancer (benign and malignant cells produce prostate)
  • Having a normal PSA test doesn’t mean you don’t have cancer.
18
Q

Describe the usual presentation of prostate cancer

A

[*] Vast majority asymptomatic

[*] Urinary symptoms

  • Benign enlargement of prostate
  • Bladder over activity
  • +/- CaP

[*] Bone pain : in Advanced metastatic disease

[*] Unusual: Haematuria - In advanced prostate cancer

[*] Males with prostate cancer frequently present following a raised serum prostate specific antigen (PSA) test and/or abnormal digital rectal examination.

19
Q

Describe the Diagnostic Pathway of Prostate Cancer

A

[*] A Digital Rectal Examination (DRE) and Serum PSA (Prostate specific antigen) are used to assess whether or not a biopsy of the prostate is necessary.

[*] If it is, it is carried out via a TRUS (TransRectal UltraSound) guided biopsy of prostate- normally take ~12 biopsies from different parts of the prostate

[*] Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) are treated with a TransUrethral Resection of Prostate (cutting away a section of the prostate gland – often used to treat prostate enlargement)

20
Q

What are the factors influencing treatment decisions for Prostate Cancer?

A
  • Age (in older patients, treatment might sometimes do more harm than good especially if they have co-morbidities)
  • DRE
  • Localised (T1/2)
  • Locally advanced (T3)
  • Advanced (T4)
  • PSA Level
  • Biopsies
  • Gleason Grade (low magnification, based on microscopic appearance)
  • Extent
  • MRI scan and Bone scan
  • Nodal/Visceral Metastases
21
Q

What are the treatments for localised Prostate Cancer?

A

Established

    • Surveillance – if the cancer is low risk, i.e. the Gleason score is quite low sometimes it is appropriate just to watch the cancer, as treatment may do more damage than good.
    • Radical Prostatectomy – Open, laparoscopic or robotic
    • Radiotherapy – External beam or low dose brachytherapy (implanted beads – radio source is placed inside or next to area requiring treatment – internal radiotherapy)

Developmental

    • High Intensity Focused Ultrasound (HIFU)
    • Primary Cryotherapy – Freeze the prostate
    • Brachytherapy – High dose rate

Treatment of Locally Advanced Prostate Cancer

    • Surveillance
    • Hormones
    • Hormones & Radiotherapy
22
Q

What are the treatments for Metastatic Prostate Cancer

A
  • Hormones – Surgical castration (removal of the testicles), medical castration (LHRH agonists). Luteinizing Hormone-Releasing Hormone agonists bind to the pituitary’s glands receptors whereas normal LHRH would have been metabolized so the pituitary gland stops telling the testicles to make testosterone. The level of hormone then drops by 90 to 95%, which is castration level.
    • Palliation – Single-dose radiotherapy, bisphosphonates (to reduce bone pain), chemotherapy
23
Q

For patients with urological haematuria of malignant origin, you should understand the differential diagnosis

A

[*] Haematuria is classified as Visible or Non-Visible.

[*] If Haematuria is visible, on investigated there is a 20% chance a malignancy is present (e.g. kidney, ureter).

[*] haematuria can be symptomatic or asymptomatic. It is detected via microscopy or urine dipstick (peroxidation of haem). (1+ dipstick haematuria in the absence of spurious causes should be investigated).
[*] Urological

Cancer

    • Renal cell carcinoma (RCC)
    • Upper tract transition cell carcinoma (TCC)
    • Bladder cancer
    • Advanced prostate cancer

Other

  • Stones
  • Infection
  • Inflammation
  • Benign prostatic hyperplasia (large)

Nephrological (Glomerular)

24
Q

For patients with urological haematuria of malignant origin, you should understand the principles of investigation

A

[*] History

  • Smoking, Occupation (bladder cancer is linked with some older industries i.e. textiles), painful or painless, other lower urinary tract symptoms and family history need to be asked about.

[*] Examination

  • BP
  • Abdominal mass
  • Varicocele – collection of veins in the scrotum (‘bag of worms’)
  • Leg swelling
  • Assess prostate by DRE (male) – Size, texture

[*] Investigations

  • Urine culture and cytology (abnormal cells), full blood count, ultrasound, flexible cystoscopy
25
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Bladder Cancer

A
  • Bladder Cancer is the 7th most common cancer in the UK, but its incidence is decreasing in part because of reduced smoking.
  • But presentation is often more advanced in women (in part because post-menopausal women are treated more frequently for recurrent UTIs, where the underlying pathology is due to the bladder cancer)
  • The male to female ratio is 2.5:1, and 90% are Transitional Cell Carcinomas (TCC)
26
Q

Describe the risk factors of bladder cancer

A

Smoking

  • 4x Increased Risk

Occupational exposure (20 year latent period)

  • Rubber or plastics manufacture (Arylamines)
  • Handling of carbon, crude oil, combustion (Polyaromatic hydrocarbons)
  • Painters, mechanics, printers, hairdressers

Schistosomiasis (e.g. Egypt)

27
Q

Describe the initial definitive treatment and staging of bladder cancer

A

Initial Definitive Treatment

  • TURBT (Transurethral Resection of Bladder Tumour) is the treatment that many patients will need to have performed after diagnosis of non-muscle invasive bladder cancer and the aim is to remove the cancerous growth and seal the tissue around where the growth was to try and prevent it returning.
  • Superficial TURBT
  • Separate deep TUR of muscle
  • Single intravesical instillation of mitomycin C (chemical treatment aims to reduce recurrence)

Staging

  • 75% of Cancers are superficial (Ta/T1)
  • 5% are Tis (In situ)
  • 20% are muscle invasive (T2, T3, T4)
28
Q

Describe the treatment of bladder cancer

A

High risk non-muscle invasive TCC (G3/Tis/T1)

  • Check cystoscopies
  • Intravesical chemotherapy/immunotherapy

Low risk non-muscle invasive TCC (G1/G2/Ta)

  • Check cystoscopies
  • +/- intravesical chemotherapy

Muscle Invasive TCC

  • Neoadjuvant chemo +
  • Potentially curative

Potentially curative

  • Radical cystectomy or radiotherapy (+/- chemotherapy)

Not curative

  • Palliative chemotherapy/radiotherapy
29
Q

What is a Radical Cystectomy?

A

The removal of the urinary bladder. A piece of Ileum (a loop of the bowel) may be used to make a conduit from the ureters to the abdomen, where urine can be collected in a bag. May also attempt to reconstruct the bladder from a piece of small intestine.

30
Q

Describe the Epidemiology, Risk Factors and potential metastases of Renal Cell Carcinoma

A

Epidemiology

  • Renal Cell Carcinoma is the 8th most common cancer in the UK, making up 95% of all upper urinary tract tumours. The incidence and mortality are increasing. There is a Male to Female ratio of 3:2, and 30% of RCC have metastases on presentation.

Risk Factors

  • Smoking doubles risk
  • Obesity
  • Dialysis

Metastases

  • Metastases of RCC can spread to lymph nodes, up the renal vein and vena cava into the right atrium and into the subcapsular fat (Perinephric spread).

Most tumours are detected by ultrasound and staged by CT

31
Q

Describe the treatment for Localised RCC

A

Established

  • Surveillance
  • Radical nephrectomy

Removal of kidney, adrenal, surrounding fat, upper ureter

  • Partial nephrectomy – removal of kidney tumour with a thin rim of normal kidney with the two aims of curing the cancer and preserving as much kidney as possible. Should be attempted when there is a kidney tumour in a solitary kidney, when there are kidney tumours in both kidneys, or when removing the entire kidney could result in kidney failure and the need for dialysis.

Developmental

  • Radiofrequency Ablation (removal of tumour from the surface of kidney via an erosive process – technique uses high-energy radio waves to heat the tumour. Electrical current is passed through the tip of the probe to heat the tumour and destroy the cancer cels).
  • Cryotherapy (Cryoablation): freezing the tumour to destroy it.
32
Q

Describe the palliative treatment for metastatic RCC

A
  • Molecular therapies targeting angiogenesis are now 1st choice e.g Sunitinib, sorafenib, pazopenib.
  • Immunotherapy (chemo- and radiotherapy resistant)
33
Q

Describe the epidemiology, aetiology, investigations and treatment for transitional cell carcinomas

A

Epidemiology

  • Only 5% of all malignancies of upper urinary tract (Rest are RCC).
  • 5% are due to the spread of cancer from the bladder up the ureter.
  • 40% of cancers of the upper urinary tract spread to the bladder.

Aetiology

  • Smoking, phenacetin (pain relieving and fever-reducing widely used until FDA ban in 1983), Balkan’s nephropathy

Investigation

  • Ultrasound

Hydronephrosis – Swelling of kidney due to backup of urine

  • CT Urogram
Filling defect (consistent with TCC)
Ureteric structure
  • Retrograde pyelogram – Inject contrast into the ureter
  • Ureteroscopy

Biopsy
Washings for cytology

Treatment

  • Nephro-ureterectomy – Removal of the kidney, fat, ureter and cuff of bladder