Series 7 chapters 6-10 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Types of corporate bonds

A

all debt is backed by corps full faith and credit 1. secured bonds (claim to specific asset) 2. unsecured bonds aka general creditor aka debentures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

types of secured bonds

A
  1. mortgage bonds (secured by first or second mortgage on real property) 2. equipment trust certificates (backed by equipment, trustee has title to the equipment, plains, trains, trucks) 3. collateral trust bonds (backed by securities of another company)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

if issuer defaults, these bond holders have the same claim to the company’s assets as any other general creditor

A

Unsecured bonds / debentures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

order of liquidation

A
  1. secured creditors 2. expenses 3. unsecured / general creditor / debenture 4. secondary or subordinated creditors 5. preferred stock 6. common stock
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

type of bond, where interest is payable only if income is sufficient, normally issued by companies in reorganization. only promises to repay principal at maturity, not interest unless sufficient income

A

Income Bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Bonds with low rating (below investment grade) that must over a higher yield due to the greater risk of default. Bonds rated lower than Moodys Baa3 or SP BBB

A

High yield bonds aka junk aka low grade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

type of bond issued with low coupon rates that increase at regular intervals, issuers generally have right to call the bonds on the dates the coupon will be adjusted

A

stepped coupon bonds, aka dual coupon bonds or step up coupons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Type of bond issued at deep discount, matures at face value and difference is considered interest. the investors carrying value (cost basis) must be accreted yearly. trades flat without accrued interest. not subject to reinvestment risk. suitable for an investor who is planning for specific future need

A

Zero coupon bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

type of debt issued by a foreign national government. credit based on issuing government, county’s repayment ability is reflected in the yield

A

sovereign debt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

type of debt where principal and interest are paid in USD but are issued outside the US

A

eurodollar bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

type of debt that allows foreign entities for borrow money in the US market place. registered with the SEC and sold primarily in the US

A

yankee bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

type of debt sold in one country by denominated in the currency of another country

A

eurobonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

generally offered by a BD and has different characteristics of bank CDs. not FDIC insured, fees, and commissions may apply, limited secondary market

A

brokered CDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

short term money market instrument, unsecured debt obligations of corps (270 days or less)

A

commercial paper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

type of bond that gives the investor the ability to convert the par value of the bond into a predetermined number of shares of common stock. provide safety of principal and potential for stock growth and allows issuer to pay lower coupon

A

Convertible bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

convertible bond conversion ratio (number of shares received at conversion)

A

par value of bond / conversion price aka the price at which the bond can be converted, set at issuance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is conversion parity

A

conversion parity means equivalent market value. price of convertible bond = aggregate market value of the common stock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A type of structure product and are issued as unsecured debt. trade on exchanges, have low fees, and provide access to challenging areas of the market; performance linked to index, baskets, or bms. can be purchased on margin, sold short, traded on exchange. issuer obligated to deliver performance at maturity

A

Exchange traded notes ETNs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

type of structured product that is issued at a short term high yield note. linked to a single underlying stock aka reference security of another issuer. has a high yield / coupon. if the reference security never falls within knock in level (70 - 80% or refence security) the investor continues to receive interest. if ref security falls below knock in level and at maturity falls below initial value, investor no longer receives principal at maturity, rather gets shares of reference security.

A

reverse convertible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

who issues municipal bonds

A

states and political subdivisions (cities, counties, school districts), public agencies and authorities (transit systems, housing authorities), territories (triple tax free)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

two major types of municipal bonds

A
  1. general obligations bonds 2. revenue bonds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

issued for general purposes to been any need, back by full faith, credit, and taxing power of municipality (sales and income taxes and local level like property tax i.e. ad valorem, parking, licensing fees)

A

General Obligations bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

issued to fund a specific project, revenue from specific project back the bond. i.e. toll roads, bridges, stadiums, airports.

A

Revenue bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the four fundamental factors in determining the ability of the issuer to gene3rate sufficient taxes to pay debt service

A
  1. demographics (tax base, geographic location, business, property values 2. nature of the issuers debt 3. aspects affecting the issuer’s ability to pay 4. municipal debt ratios
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

calculating property taxes

A

stated in millige or “mils” based on an assessed value of the fair market value. Use assessed value x tax rate. 1 mill is .001 etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

types of revenue bonds

A
  1. transportation rev (tolls) 2. special tax (gas, liquor). 3. special assessment (benefitting properties, sidewalks, sewers) 4. double barreled (backed by revenue produced by facility and GO) 5. moral obligation (if rev are insufficient we vote to fund) 6. private activity (more than 10% proceeds benefit private entity) 7. industrial development bond (issued by municipality and secured by a lease agreement with a corp user of the facility)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is required when issuing a revenue bond

A

feasibility study - detailed report focusing on the economic viability and need for the program or service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

when analyzing a revenue bond, what is it when someone other than the issuer provides security f the debt financing (i.e. bond insurance, letters of credit, state or other guarantees)

A

Credit Enhancements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

prepared by bond counsel for the municipal bond issuer and provides opinion on 1. issuers legal valid and enforceable obligation and 2. tax exempt status of the issue

A

legal opinion - does not address credit quality of the bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

qualified vs unqualified legal opinion

A

Unqualified legal opinion means nothing adversely affecting the issue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

covenants for municipal bonds

A
  1. maintain rates 2. maintain project in good working condition 3. carry insurance on property 4. catastrophe call 5. pledge to not issue more debt unless certain tests are met 6. non-discrimination 7. flow of funds - establishes priority for payment of debt service
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

net vs gross revenue pledge bonds

A

always assume it is net revenue pledge bonds. start with gross revenue, deduct maintenance and operation, leaving net revenue for which debt service is paid. Gross revenue deducts debt service prior to paying maintenance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

debt service coverage ratio

A

available debt service / need for debt service always default to net revenue unless gross is specified. (deduct expenses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

municipal notes or tax free anticipation notes are short term issues issued to assist in financing a project to assist a municipality in managing cash flow. examples include

A
  1. tax anticipation notes 2. revenue anticipation notes 3. bond anticipation notes 4. grant anticipation notes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Rating for muni notes

A

SP 1+, SP1, SP2, SP3. MIG1, MIG2, MIG3, SG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

long term securities that are marketed as short term investments, debt securities that offer a variable rate of interest adjusted at specific intervals. holders can redeem for par plus accrued interest at any time rates are reset (put provision)

A

variable rate demand obligations VRDO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

long term investments with variable interest rate that is reset at periodic intervals through a Dutch Auction. Auction sets lowest interest rate at which all securities being offered for sale will clear the market. do not have a put provision

A

Auction Rate Securities ARS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

created by state and local gov to provide municipal entities a place to invest funds, not open to public

A

Local Government Investment Pools LGIPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

type of college savings plans, purchases buys college tuition credits, locks in tuition costs and current levels, protects against future cost increase, not self-directed

A

prepaid tuition plans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

529 plans

A

primarily a type of college saving plan, owner chooses a plan but may alter the investment direction. funded with after tax dollars. max contribution is gift tax 15k per person per year. can front load 5 years of contributions. max withdrawal of 10k per year for grades k-12 and up to 10k lifetime limit for qualified student loans or apprenticeship programs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

529 ABLE plans

A

available to disabled individuals who receive ss disability, medicate, or private insurance payments. no front loading, 15k max contribution per year. disability payments can continue as long as account value doe not exceed 100k; distributions are tax free if used to pay qualified expenses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

how are muni bonds taxed

A

Interest received is exempt from fed taxes but may be subject to state and local taxes. if you buy from the state you live in, might not have state tax. Bank Qualified (BQ) bonds are issued by qualified small issuers that issue no more than 10m per year. BQ bonds allow banks to deduct 80% of interest cost paid to the depositors on the funds that are used to purchase these bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

who benefits most from tax considerations in muni bonds

A

those in higher tax bracket. not suitable for those in lower tax brackets or as an investment in retirement accounts (even if investor is in high tax bracket)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

zero coupon munis

A

annual accreted amounts are considered tax free interest, accretes to par at maturity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

capital appreciation bonds (CABs)

A

issued at deep discounts, investment return on initial principal value is reinvested at a compound rate until maturity. at maturity, investors receive a single payments representing the initial amount and investment return. discount is not accreted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

private activity bonds

A

typically taxable for investors who are subject to the alternative minimum tax (AMT) yields are higher than non-AMT bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

taxable equivalent yield formula

A

tax free yield / (100% - tax bracket%). if exempt from state and fed use tax free yield / (100% - fed tax + state tax bracket%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

net yield formula

A

taxable yield x (100% - tax bracket)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

original issue discount OID bond

A

basis must be accreted at a rate that will bring basis to par at maturity. if sold prior to maturity, capital gain or loss determined by difference between the bond’s cost basis and sales proceeds. if held to maturity, accreted adjustment is considered tax exempt interest with no taxable gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

premium bond

A

basis must be amortized at a rate that will bring basis to par at maturity. if sold prior to maturity, capital gain or loss determined by difference between bond adjusted cost basis and sale proceeds. if held to maturity, amortized adjustment is not deductible which results in not taxable loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

secondary market discount bond

A

issued at par but later is purchased at discount in the secondary market. basis is not adjusted. when bond is sold or matures, the accreted market discount is taxed as ordinary income

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

treasury debt

A

issued by US government, highly liquid, no credit risk. interest is taxable at federal level but not state or local tax. Minimum face value is 100, but usually in 1,000, issued in book entry form. accrued interest actual/365

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Treasury discount fixed income security, maturity of up to one year. sold in weekly auctions

A

T-Bill

54
Q

Treasury interest baring fixed income, pays semi-annual and are usually 2-10 years. sold in periodic auction.

A

T-note

55
Q

Treasury interest baring fixed income, pays semi-annual and are usually over 10 years. sold in periodic auction.

A

T-bond

56
Q

pricing of government securities

A

1/32 of a point. except T-BIlls which are quoted on a discounted yield basis. Bid price 2.94% (higher) discount and ask price 2.90% discount from par.

57
Q

treasury product that protects from inflation. offers a stated coupon rate that remains constant with interest paid semi-annually. Principal is adjusted for rate of inflation based on CPI. at maturity, you will always get at least par or adjusted up principal

A

TIPS

58
Q

Created in secondary market, non-interest bearing (zero coupon debt). Takes a t-note or t-bond and separates each payment

A

T-STRIPS “Separate trading of registered interest and principal securities “

59
Q

Bidding Treasury auctions

A

T-Bills - weekly, done on Monday or Tuesday settled on Thursday. non-competitive bids are placed by auction, quantity only, filled first, bidder agrees to pay the lowest price (highest yield) of accepted competitive bid. Competitive bids - placed by large financial institutions, indicate both quantity and price. in secondary market, all treasury is settled T+1

60
Q

Government agency securities

A

debt instruments issued and or guaranteed by fed agencies and GSEs, exempt from state and def registration, quoted in 32nd, accrued interest based on 30 days in the month and 360. Issued in book entry form. Interest portion is fully taxed

61
Q

Types of government agencies

A
  1. farming loans FFCB Fed Farm Credit Bank 2. mortgage backed securities GNMA, FNMA, FHLMC. note - most common security issued by gov agencies is a mortgage-back pass through certificate. subject to prepayment risk. GNMA may is only one guaranteed by gov
62
Q

Mortgage-backed bonds created by dividing mortgage pools (GNMA, FNMA, and FHLMC) into various bond classes. Distributes the impact of prepayment risk to different tranches. Interest is generally paid monthly (fully taxable) with principal paid sequentially and issued in $1,000. Subject to 1933 ACT and Trustee Indenture act of 1939.

A

Collateralized Mortgage obligations (CMOs)

63
Q

CMO structures - Sequential Pay / Plain Vanilla

A

Equal tranche receives interest payments but only tranche A gets principal until tranche A is fully retired. Then moves onto tranche B. Tranches B and C have longer lives

64
Q

CMO structures - Planned amortization class (PAC bond)

A

provides most predictable cash flow and maturity, designed for more risk averse investors, issuer sticks to pre-payment schedule.

65
Q

CMO structures - companion tranche

A

Provides the lease predictable cash flow and maturity, if prepayments are fast, support bond holders get payments fast; reflects excess or shortfalls in payments to PACs and TACs.

66
Q

CMO structures - Z tranche

A

Last tranche to receive payments, similar to a zero-coupon bond.

67
Q

Repackage individual fixed income assets into a product that be be separated into tranches and sold in the secondary market. Referred to as CFOs since the assets being packaged (mortgages, corp debt, auto loans) serve as collateral for investors. Each tranches has different maturities and interest payments. Do not limit investments to mortgages. Primary purchase is to distribute risk.

A

Collateralized Debt Obligations CDOs

68
Q

The bond with the most interest-rate risk or price volatility is the bond with the longest maturity and the lowest coupon. since a T-STRIP is a form of zero-coupon bond, it clearly has more interest-rate risk than another long-term bond

A

true

69
Q

Collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs) make interest payments to investors:

A

monthly

70
Q

three types of investment companies

A
  1. Face amount certificate company 2. unit investment trusts 3. management companies (open end and closed end)
71
Q

disadvantage of bond funds

A

Interest rate risk never decreases, greater degree of interest rate risk than just buying and holding a bond

72
Q

POP

A

public offering price = NAV plus any applicable sales charges

73
Q

when are NAVs calculated

A

4pm

74
Q

sales charge clac

A

sales charge % (POP-NAV)/POP

75
Q

max sales charge

A

8.5%

76
Q

up front sales change where the total investment less the sales charge is directed to the portfolio

A

front-end sales load

77
Q

charge assessed at the time an investor redeems, percentage decreases as the holding period lengthens, typically associated with class B

A

Back end or contingent deferred sales charges

78
Q

Annual fee levied against the funds assets that allows distribution costs to be borne by the fund. used to finance promotion, advertising, and commissions. if a written contract exists, it may be paid to RRs who are still employed with a firm or retiring RRs based on existing assets. typically higher for class C

A

12b-1 fee

79
Q

what are the rules of no-load funds

A

no front or back end fees and no 12-b1 fees that exceed .25%

80
Q

what is the largest expense for a mutual fund

A

mgmt fee

81
Q

Breakpoint discounts are only available for which shareclass

A

Shareclass A

82
Q

can mutual funds be purchased in fractional shares?

A

yes

83
Q

Optional provision that allows investors to qualify for a breakpoint without initially depositing the entire amount required. not binding for customers but will hold shares in escrow

A

letter of intent

84
Q

letter of intent is good for how many months and can be backdated for how many days

A

good for 13 months and good for 90 days

85
Q

Right to add up all purchases made from same family of funds. when a breakpoint is crossed, current and future purchases will have lower sales charge.

A

rights of accumulation ROA

86
Q

what is the nav also called

A

BID price. ask price is the offering price.

87
Q

method of investing which involves making the same periodic investment regardless of share price over a fixed period. does not grantee attainment of any specific investment goals. results in cost per share being less than price per share

A

dollar cost averaging DCA

88
Q

funds are required to send investors the payment for their shares within how many calendar days

A

7

89
Q

fee that is assessed against investors who redeem their shares after holding for a short period (usually one year or less)

A

redemption fee

90
Q

Allows investors to receive regular period payments from their accounts. can be fixed dollar amount, fixed percentage, fixed time, fixed number of shares. clients should not be advised to engage in a systematic purchase and withdrawal plan at the same time

A

withdrawal plan

91
Q

sale violation where soliciting sales of shares amount just below breakpoint

A

breakpoint sale

92
Q

other sale practice volitions

A

recommending purchases from dif fund families due to potential for higher sales charges, excessive purchases of class B shares, switching fund families

93
Q

earnings from a mutual fund are distributed to shareholders and reported on what IRS form

A

1099-DIV

94
Q

Mutual fund shore term cap gains are distributed as income and cap gains are distributed once per year, always considered long term cap gain. doesnt matter how long you held stock, this is about fund’s underlying holdings

A

true

95
Q

when are distributions taxed, regardless of reinvested

A

in the year received

96
Q

what is subchapter M

A

relives a fund’s burden of paying tax on income as long as MF passes through at least 90% of net investment income to its investors. Net income - div = interest less expenses and mgmt fee. if qualifies, only taxed on undistributed portion, burden for paying taxes falls on shareholders

97
Q

investor’s cost basis

A

amount invested plus any reinvested distributions

98
Q

what are investor in MFs taxed on when redeeming

A

proceeds less (cost plus all cash and reinvested divs_

99
Q

type of investment company, issues debt certificates, issuers promises face value at maturity or surrender value if presented prior to maturity

A

Face amount certificate company FAC

100
Q

type of investment company that is supervised but not managed, portfolio generally remains fixed for life of trust, ownership usually referred to as shares of beneficial interest (SBI)

A

Unit Investment Trust UIT

101
Q

Type of fund - can be sold short or on margin, trades on secondary market, shares mad trade at a discount or premium to NAV. sold as NAV + commission. can issue preferred stock and bonds.

A

Closed end fund

102
Q

type of fund - portfolio consists of a basked of securities that mirrors an index, low expenses, shares trade on secondary market and can be sold short, commission is charged. priced throughout the day.

A

Exchange traded funds ETF

103
Q

difference between Index fund and exchange traded fund

A

for index funds, shares are redeemed by the fund and cannot be sold short, dont change on exchange. does not have sales loads (ETF charge commission). nav priced once a day. does not allow leverage . Index funds are best for dollar cost averaging.

104
Q

difference between asset allocation and balance funds

A

balance fund the allocation doe not change 60-40. Asset allocation changes

105
Q

ETF that outperforms the benchmark. designed for short term trading.

A

leveraged ETF

106
Q

designed to perform in a manner that is inverse to the index it is tracking (like short selling). if the index falls, this ETF will rile. similar to short selling with the unlimited risk. designed for short term trading.

A

Inverse ETF

107
Q

Fixed annuity

A

Risk is at the insurance company, is not a security, in a general account, safe, secure predictable investments, guarantees a fixed payout so not great against inflation

108
Q

Variable annuity

A

Risk is at the annuitant, is a security, separate account,, sub accounts that meet investor objectives, inflation hedged due to investment in equities

109
Q

a hybrid insurance / investment vehicle that allows for the tax-deferred growth of contributions . a person invests funds on either a lump sum or periodic basis, has a death benefit

A

annuity

110
Q

immediate annuities

A

purchased in one lump sum with the payout generally starting immediately

111
Q

deferred annutities

A

purchased with period payments and payouts typically starts after retirement

112
Q

an investment company product that is registered under the 1940 act, registered with SEC, sold by prospectus, investments may be changed during the accumulation phase. has sub accounts (aggressive growth, S&P, high yield)

A

separate account

113
Q

accumulation phase

A

during this time, account is valued in accumulation units. units are purchased after tax, investment income is tax deferred until withdrawn, accumulation units are invested in separate accounts. purchase price is referred to as accumulation unit value AUV

114
Q

annuity charges and expenses

A

mgmt fees, sales charge (no max), admin expense, mortality risk charges , surrender fee.

115
Q

L shares

A

higher commissions and fees but shorter surrender period for annuity products

116
Q

what shares are best for investors in MFs that will be holding a while and invest a lot. for annuities was is best if holding for a while? for holding short?

A

A shares bc. breakpoints. B shares because no surrender fee. L shares for short.

117
Q

annuity withdrawals

A

earnings are withdrawn first and taxable, premature withdrawals of earnings prior to 59.5 are subject to a 10% penalty. gross amount is added to taxable income

118
Q

Death benefit - if the annuitant dies during the accumulation pahse, the payout will represent what

A

the greater of the total contributions made or the current value of the contacts. amount above cost basis would be taxable as income to beneficiary

119
Q

annuity phase

A

AKA payout, withdrawal, or annuitization phase - when receiving benefits at annuitization, accumulation units are converted into a fixed number of annuity unites.

120
Q

what are annuity unit values based on

A
  1. age and gender 2. life expectancy 3. payout option 4, value of the separate account. payout is established by multiplying the fixed number of annuting units by fluctuating value
121
Q

straight life annuity payout

A

highest possible payout with highest risk. annuitant receives payments for life. no beneficiary payments

122
Q

life annuity with period certain

A

payments are made for life or to beneficiary for specified minimum number of years

123
Q

joint and last survivor annuity

A

payments are made for life so long as one annuitant is living

124
Q

unit refund life annuity

A

annuitant receives amount equal to initial investment and any payment left over goes to beneficiary

125
Q

assumed interest rate (AIR) for annuities

A

If account performance is higher than AIR the payment would increase, if lower payments will decrease.

126
Q

what client is best for annuity products

A

AGED 30-55, SEEKING TAX-DEFERRED GROWTH TO OFFSET INFLATION, already maxed qualified plan contributions. not liquid, so do not sell to old people or people with short investment time horizons

127
Q

1035 exchnage

A

no tax on going from one annuity to another, customer must benefit, exchange must be signed off by client and signed by principal

128
Q

life insurance terms

A

beneficiary - person who receives the money from the policy. insured - the person whos life policy is written on 3. premium - amount of money policy holder pays to keep policy 4. cash value is the policy holder’s equity in a life insurance policy 5. death benefit - amount beneficiary receives when the insured dies 6. riders - additional benefits added to the policy

129
Q

characteristics of variable life insurance

A

death benefits (fixed minimum then grows based on performance, no guaranteed cash value, allows a loan against it, premiums are paid in fixed amount at fixed intervals, risk that returns will be lower than anticipated, policy holder picks sub accounts in separate acct.

130
Q

tax treatment of variable life insurance

A
  1. policy surrender (FIFO, premiums paid were already taxed and returned first, excess is taxable) 2. loans against policy are tax-free 3. death benefit are tax free to beneficiary 4. estate tax - death benefit is included in the deceased estate. person who receives money arent taxed