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Sgt's Exam stuff > sergeant's exam p&p > Flashcards

sergeant's exam p&p Flashcards

1
Q

In the event of an accidental discharge of your electronic control device, Is a response to resistance form required if there are no injuries?

A

No

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2
Q

What is the burden of proof in seizure cases?

A

Clear and Convincing. The owner(s) knew or should have known after reasonable inquiry that property would be used in violation of law

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3
Q

Can you seize a vehicle based solely on possession and transportation of a controlled substance?

A

Yes, if possession or knowledge of possession can be imputed to the vehicle’s owner

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4
Q

When can you subject a vehicle to forfeiture after finding a concealed firearm inside?

A

Only when the firearm has been used in the commission of an independent felony, or the firearm itself is contraband

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5
Q

When can you seize money in relation to drug cases?

A

There must be probable cause to believe that the currency was used, was attempted to be used, or was intended to be used in furtherance of a drug transaction

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6
Q

Absent additional circumstances, what is the (dollar) threshold for seizing currency?

A

$250

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7
Q

Name 4 factors that determine whether a real property (land) seizure will be made

A
  1. Whether the seizure is cost-effective
  2. The availability of alternative methods of seizure
  3. The impact of forfeiture on co-owners and lien holders
  4. The impact of forfeiture on the public health, safety, and welfare
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8
Q

Where is forfeited currency deposited?

A

The Law Enforcement Trust Fund, to be used for Departmental purposes as provided by law

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9
Q

What is the principle objective of asset forfeiture?

A

Law enforcement

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10
Q

Who makes the decision of whether to seize currency?

A

Supervisory personnel

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11
Q

Can you seize property that is jointly titled?

A

Yes, provided that you can prove both of the co-owners knew, or should have known after reasonable inquiry, of illegal use of the seized property

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12
Q

Can you issue a citation to someone with diplomatic immunity?

A

Yes, but you cannot compel him/her to sign the citation

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13
Q

Can you detain someone with diplomatic immunity?

A

Yes, but only long enough to verify that they have diplomatic immunity

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14
Q

When passports are lost or stolen, which agency needs to be notified?

A

Interpol - Washington

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15
Q

What are 4 options for dealing with someone suspected of DUI who has diplomatic immunity?

A
  1. Take the individual somewhere (official) where they can sober up
  2. Make arrangements for a friend or relative to pick him/her up
  3. Call a taxi
  4. Take the individual home
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16
Q

What are the 6 types of incidents that can be reported using on-line reporting?

A
  1. Lost property
  2. Vehicle Burglary
  3. Petit theft
  4. Harassing phone calls
  5. Pickpocket
  6. Vandalism
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17
Q

When can OPD officers engage in law enforcement activities in unincorporated Orange County?

A
  1. If a forcible felony occurs in the officer’s presence
  2. When taking action on a forcible felony and another misdemeanor occurs in the officer’s presence
  3. If an officer witnesses a crime of violence against a person
  4. If an officer witnesses a DUI
  5. In order to provide back up for OCSO deputies
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18
Q

Does mutual aid authorize routine patrol in unincorporated Orange County?

A

No

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19
Q

Does mutual aid authorize issuance of non-criminal traffic infractions in unincorporated Orange County?

A

No

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20
Q

Does mutual aid authorize recovery of stolen vehicles in unincorporated Orange County?

A

No

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21
Q

True or False - When mutual aid is invoked, OPD officers will complete an incident report

A

True

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22
Q

Is mutual aid required if officers are in fresh pursuit of a suspect in another jurisdiction?

A

No, as long as officers are in fresh pursuit. Fresh pursuit is defined as an instance when an officer is engaged in an ongoing investigation immediately after an incident. Immediately is generally defined as six hours or less. The officer shall notify the watch commander prior to leaving the city limits, and the watch commander will make a courtesy call to the agency of jurisdiction

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23
Q

Name 3 types of extraordinary police incidents

A
  1. A natural disaster
  2. A major labor demonstration
  3. A civil disturbance
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24
Q

How long can an officer follow a vehicle before being required to notify his/her supervisor?

A

15 minutes

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25
Q

How long will Teletype hold FCIC/NCIC information for an officer?

A

48 hours

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26
Q

How long will Teletype hold a criminal history for an officer?

A

10 days

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27
Q

Members who confiscate a disabled parking permit must do what 3 things?

A
  1. Report the permit number and circumstance behind the confiscation to the DHSMV
  2. Obtain an evidence number and submit the permit to evidence
  3. Document the permit number, the DHSMV employee’s name, the date and time of DHSMV contact, and the circumstance for confiscation on the evidence receipt
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28
Q

What happens to a disabled parking permit upon a judicial judgement or finding of guilt, or a plea of no contest?

A

Property and evidence shall destroy the permit

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29
Q

Under what circumstances will an employee need to obtain a separate item or evidence number?

A
  1. When items are of different property classes
  2. When items have different owners
  3. When items belong to different cases
  4. When items are submitted at a later date or time
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30
Q

Which tool shall be carried by all members, whether in uniform or plain clothes?

A

Chemical Agent

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31
Q

What level of resistance must be present before an officer can use the Taser on a bicyclist or driver of a motor vehicle?

A

Aggressive resistance

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32
Q

Are employees authorized to use the Sage SL6 against animals that pose a threat to public or employee safety?

A

Yes

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33
Q

With respect to firearms, name six practices that are strictly forbidden by policy

A
  1. Firing into or over the heads of crowds
  2. Firing warning shots
  3. Firing into buildings or through doors when a subject is not visible
  4. Firing at a moving vehicle solely to disable it
  5. Cocking the hammer of a firearm except to improve aim
  6. Firing from a moving vehicle, unless being fired upon
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34
Q

True or False - Once stop stocks have been successfully deployed on a vehicle, officers are obligated to follow it until it comes to a safe and complete stop

A

False - in order to follow a vehicle after the deployment of stop sticks, the vehicle must meet the criteria for a pursuit

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35
Q

How often shall employees receive training and demonstrate proficiency on less lethal weapons?

A

Annually

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36
Q

Name eight instances when a response to resistance form shall be completed

A
  1. Use of chemical agent with injury or accompanied with a second tactic
  2. Use of tire deflation device
  3. Use of impact weapon
  4. Dog bites, other than accidental
  5. Use of electronic control device
  6. Forearm, knee, or open and closed hand strikes
  7. Kicks
  8. Use of any technique that results in actual or claimed injury
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37
Q

When a firearm is discharged, or an employee applies any technique or weapon that results in death, is a response to resistance form necessary?

A

No. And initial notice of inquiry shall be generated in lieu of the response to resistance form

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38
Q

With regard to response to resistance, when shall a supervisor take photographs?

A

Photographs shall be taken of any injury, actual or claimed. A CSI will take photographs of all injuries which require hospitalization

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39
Q

True or false - a response to resistance form is required when an employee uses pressure points to subdue a subject

A

False - Pressure points do not warrant a response to resistance form unless the suspect complains of injury

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40
Q

Name six uses for police canines

A
  1. Searches
  2. Criminal apprehension
  3. Officer protection
  4. Crowd control
  5. Narcotics detection
  6. Explosives detection
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41
Q

Who is in control of a call once the police trained K9 is deployed?

A

The K-9 handler

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42
Q

What notifications must be made following a canine apprehension of a criminal (Dog bite)?

A

A supervisor for the response to resistance, and a CSI for photographs

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43
Q

What must occur prior to deployment of the police trained K9 in a crowd control situation?

A

The incident must be declared an unlawful assembly

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44
Q

When arresting the legal owner or custodian of a vehicle, name the 4 options given to the owner of that vehicle for removal

A
  1. Leave it legally parked
  2. A licensed, sober passenger may remove the vehicle
  3. The owner may call someone to respond within 30 minutes and take custody of the vehicle
  4. The vehicle may be removed by a wrecker service of the owner’s choice
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45
Q

What does the VINE program do, and what does VINE stand for?

A

The Victim Information and Notification Every day program is a 24-hour service which provides information and notification to victims or others regarding custody status of offenders

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46
Q

What crimes require the completion of a victim notification of arrest form?

A
  1. Homicide / attempted
  2. Sexual battery / attempted
  3. Stalking
  4. Domestic violence
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47
Q

How long does an exemption from public records disclosure last?

A

Five years

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48
Q

When are officers allowed to respond in a 10-18 status, according to policy?

A
  1. In progress calls
  2. Actual or suspected emergency calls
  3. Calls requiring the first aide or immediate assistance to responding paramedic units
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49
Q

What are the three primary objectives of a felony traffic stop?

A
  1. To stop the suspect vehicle
  2. To complete the stop safely and effectively
  3. To apprehend the dangerous subject
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50
Q

True or false - Field supervisors must respond to the scene of a felony traffic stop and the watch commander shall be notified

A

True

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51
Q

After business hours, which agency handles emergency and nonemergency incidents occurring within the orange county court complex?

A

The Orlando Police Department

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52
Q

During normal business hours, the Orange county sheriffs department is responsible for all areas of the Orange county court complex except which two locations?

A

The parking structure on the north side and the loop/drop off area on the west side of the courthouse

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53
Q

With regard to hate crimes, Florida statutes and case law require four things. What are they?

A
  1. The perpetrator must demonstrate prejudice or bias
  2. The bias must be evidenced in the commission of the crime
  3. The bias must be based on one or more of the personal characteristics of the victim
  4. The perpetrator perceived, knew, or had reasonable grounds to know that the victim was within the group delineated by statute
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54
Q

In hate crime incidents, field supervisors shall:

A
  1. Respond to the scene
  2. Ensure that the crime scene is protected
  3. Notify the on-call CID as deemed appropriate
  4. Notify the watch commander
  5. Ensure the scene is processed and evidence is gathered
  6. Notify the PIO, as needed
  7. Determine whether to increase patrols or assign a unit to the location
  8. Ensure that all physical remains are removed after processing
  9. Ensure that the report is appropriately classified as a hate crime
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55
Q

True or false - Felony and misdemeanor charges arising from the same incident shall be filed on the same charging affidavit

A

True. The only exceptions noted in policy are juvenile and traffic cases.

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56
Q

What four steps must an officer take when receiving an out-of-state teletype hit where the agency will not extradite?

A
  1. Complete an FIR
  2. Note on the top of the FIR that the subject is wanted in another state which will not extradite
  3. Route the FIR to the appropriate unit
  4. Place the FIR in the appropriate box in patrol
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57
Q

True or False - Strip searches include searching or inspecting an arrested females brassiere or searching or inspecting and arrested persons underwear

A

True. Strip searches are prohibited in misdemeanor traffic and civil matters unless:

  1. The offense is violent
  2. The offense involves a weapon or controlled substance
  3. There is independent probable cause to believe the person possesses a controlled substance
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58
Q

What must an officer obtain or do prior to completing a strip search inside and OPD facility?

A

The on-duty section Cmdr. must be notified, and the on-duty supervisor must give written permission every time a strip search is conducted within any OPD facility

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59
Q

In the event of an escape during transport, the transporting officer shall immediately take what five steps?

A
  1. Attempt to recapture the Escapee
  2. Notify headquarters of the situation and the suspect description
  3. Establish a cordon and call for assistance
  4. Advise headquarters of the original criminal charges and all new charges
  5. Notify the field supervisor
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60
Q

True or false - a field supervisor must notify the on-duty watch commander of any prisoner escape during transport

A

True. The watch commander will then determine whether additional notifications will be made

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61
Q

What is the maximum amount of time a suspect can be held in an interview/processing room (station and substations) or a holding area (Airport)?

A

Eight hours

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62
Q

How often must officers physically contact a suspect or prisoner in interview processing room?

A

Every 30 minutes, Notwithstanding any audio or visual process in place to monitor the subject

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63
Q

What is the maximum amount of time a suspect or prisoner can be held without continuous supervision in the interview room?

A

Two hours

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64
Q

Sergeants are required to conduct training on adult booking procedures. How often will this training occur?

A

Whenever the procedures are updated or changed. The training will be documented on a training instruction and attendance form and submitted to the training/accreditation and inspections section Cmdr.

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65
Q

After reviewing case file submissions for accuracy and completeness, supervisors will sign and date the checklist and place the case file in the criminal intake unit receptacle. What are the time limits supervisors face with regard to case file submissions?

A

Within 24 hours in all juvenile cases, within 10 calendar days for all felonies, and within five calendar days for all adult misdemeanors.

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66
Q

Whose responsibility is it to ensure tasking sheets are returned to the criminal intake unit within the timeframe dictated by the tasking sheet?

A

The immediate supervisor.

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67
Q

If a juvenile commits a crime, but turns 18 prior to being charged with that crime, how should the arrestee be charged?

A

The case shall be filed as an adult with a notation indicating that the crime was committed as a juvenile

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68
Q

Under what four criteria will a juvenile be housed at an adult booking facility?

A
  1. The juvenile has been indicted by grand jury for a felony offense
  2. The juvenile has been waived by the juvenile court to the adult court system for a violation of law
  3. The juvenile has been direct filed by the state attorney’s office
  4. The juvenile has previously been found to have committed an offense in adult court and adult sanctions were imposed
69
Q

If a juvenile is taken into custody for a capital or life felony, who shall be notified?

A

The watch commander

70
Q

What criteria must be met before the identity address and photograph of a juvenile may be released by a law enforcement agency?

A

Either the juvenile has been taken into custody for a felony offense, or the juvenile has been found by a court to have committed at least three misdemeanor offenses (Regardless of adjudication)

71
Q

When juveniles are arrested for felonies or crimes of violence, who is the arresting officer required to notify?

A

The superintendent of schools. He or she shall also be notified in the event an employee of the school district is charged with a felony or a misdemeanor involving the abuse of a minor child or the sale or possession of a controlled substance

72
Q

Whenever a firearm is recovered in the possession of a juvenile committing a crime, any school zone, or during the commission of a violent crime, who needs to be notified?

A

The Bureau of alcohol tobacco and firearms

73
Q

Name the four circumstances under which a juvenile suspect who is not in custody may be interviewed

A
  1. During voluntary appearances at the police station
  2. At school, with the permission of the principal, assistant principal, or counselor
  3. At school, after notifying the school resource officer
  4. Crime scene and street interviews may be admissible depending on the duration of questioning and whether the subject reasonably believes he/she is free to leave
74
Q

What is the maximum length of an interview with a juvenile?

A

Interviews should be of reasonable duration, but no longer than six hours

75
Q

Must officers accommodate the request of a juvenile to have a parent, custodian, or legal guardian present during a custodial interrogation?

A

It is not required, but every reasonable effort should be made to accommodate that request

76
Q

Per policy, what should an officer do if he or she becomes aware that a child’s parent wants to see the child during an interrogation?

A

The interrogation should cease and the parent should be permitted to see the child before any further questioning takes place

77
Q

How frequently should an officer personally contact a juvenile who is in an interview room?

A

At least every 15 minutes

78
Q

What does the Kayla McKean child protection act provide for?

A
  1. Incident reports are required for all cases of abuse/neglect and abandonment of a child
  2. Information regarding other siblings in a household should also be included in the report
  3. Investigative personnel may refer a child to a physician without consent of the parent or legal guardian
  4. In all cases involving alleged physical abuse/neglect or abandonment, a crime scene investigator shall respond to take photographs of the scene and living environment
  5. Officers are required to report any case where a child may be abused or neglected
79
Q

With regard to custody disputes, if the parent who has custody is arrested, can the child be delivered to the other parent?

A

Yes.

80
Q

At what age does compulsory school attendance and?

A

Juveniles are required to attend school through the age of 15. If a child turns 16 during the school year, he or she must complete that school year

81
Q

Notice to appear affidavits can be issued to individuals for Misdemeanor and city ordinance violations, except:

A
  1. Crimes of violence to another person
  2. Incidents of domestic violence
  3. Lewdness and prostitution
  4. Child abuse and/or neglect
  5. Resisting an officer
82
Q

When officers make arrests on Orlando Housing Authority properties, they should determine whether or not the arrestee is a resident of that complex. Why?

A

If the arrestee is a resident, he or she may be subject to eviction for violent offenses or drug possession on OHA property. If the arrestee is not a resident, he or she should be trespassed from OHA property

83
Q

Name seven reasons why a supervisor should approve an officer’s request to increase a defendants bond

A
  1. The defendant made a credible threat to retaliate against a witness or victim
  2. The defendant is currently on some form of pretrial release for another offense
  3. The facts of the offense are particularly aggravating
  4. The defendant has threatened to flee upon release
  5. The defendant may be wanted in another jurisdiction
  6. The officer has reason to believe the defendant is using an alias
  7. A felony arrest involving a career criminal
84
Q

What criteria must be met for in voluntary protective custody as a result of substance abuse?

A

The subject has lost the power of self control with respect to substance use AND:

  1. The subject has inflicted threatened or attempted to inflict physical harm on him or herself (Or is likely to do so if not admitted); OR
  2. By reason of substance abuse impairment subject is incapable of appreciating the need for such services
85
Q

If a subject is substance abuse impaired and consents to assistance from law-enforcement, what three options does an Officer have?

A
  1. Direct/take the person home
  2. Direct/take the person to a hospital
  3. Direct/take the person to CRC
86
Q

What qualifies as a significant exposure according to Florida State statute?

A
  1. Exposure of mucous membranes to visible blood or body fluids
  2. Exposure through needlesticks, sharps, or instruments
  3. Exposure of skin to visible blood or body fluids, especially where the skin is chapped, abraded, or afflicted with dermatitis
87
Q

What five details must be included in an incident report for significant exposure?

A
  1. The task being performed when exposure occurred
  2. The mode of transmission and where the infectious materials entered
  3. Any infection control equipment or garments worn at the time
  4. Identification of the source individual
  5. Whether the employee refused treatment
88
Q

Following an exposure incident, the affected employees supervisor will review the circumstances of the incident to determine what six things?

A
  1. Weather appropriate work practices were followed
  2. The device being used
  3. The type of protective equipment or clothing that was used at the time of the exposure
  4. The location of the incident
  5. The procedure being performed when the incident occurred
  6. Weather engineering controls were used
89
Q

What does the term “universal precautions” mean?

A

All body fluids shall be considered potentially infectious materials

90
Q

When responding to a civil disturbance the first objective is containment. How should this be accomplished?

A

Responding units should set up an inner and an outer perimeter. Innocent people should be evacuated and violators of the law should be targeted for arrest. If necessary for the safety of officers and the public, the inner perimeter can be withdrawn. The outer perimeter should not be relinquished

91
Q

What are the four levels of mobile field force response?

A

Level I: all available on duty patrol personnel
Level II: ERT activation
Level III: special operations division recall
Level IV: all police personnel recall

92
Q

If a bomb threat occurs at OPH during normal business hours, who is responsible for searching an employee’s assigned work area?

A

Each OPH employee is responsible for searching his or her assigned work area.

93
Q

What are the responsibilities of the police supervisor on a bomb threat scene?

A
  1. Coordinate with the ranking fire department supervisor on scene. 2. Recommend to the owner/manager of the facility that it should be evacuated. State that failure to evacuate could result in criminal or civil action if anyone is injured
  2. In the event of an evacuation, ensure that it is done safely. Advise the owner/manager that it is his/her responsibility to search the premises
  3. If a suspicious device is found, it should not be touched. OFD bomb squad personnel will bring in any special equipment needed
  4. Radios may remain on, but no transmissions should be made after a device has been located
  5. Advise how to conduct a proper search (from the bottom up)
  6. Deploying police personnel to control the scene
94
Q

On a bomb threat call, when should an OFD bomb technician be notified?

A
  1. If a suspicious package or explosive device is found
  2. If a suspect is in custody
  3. If the identity of the suspect is known, but the person is not in custody
95
Q

What is the proper procedure to follow if they suspected explosive or incendiary device is discovered?

A
  1. Don’t touch the device
  2. Evacuate everyone at least 300 feet (1000 feet for WMD)
  3. Established a perimeter to prevent anyone from approaching the device
  4. Notify OSD arson/bomb
  5. Determine what notifications are appropriate (CSI, CID, DHS, Intel)
  6. Be aware of possible secondary devices
96
Q

What are the four “cardinal rules” that OPD has adopted with regard to handling crisis situations?

A
  1. Under no circumstances will we trade hostages
  2. Under no circumstances will we trade weapons
  3. Face to face negotiations are rare, and they shall only be done with the appropriate commander’s approval
  4. Once the command structure is in place, the authority to order deadly force shall be approved by the high risk incident commander, a deputy chief, or the chief
97
Q

Under what circumstances will the crisis negotiation and SWAT teams be activated?

A
  1. A contained person holding others against their will and threatening their lives
  2. A contained person claiming to be armed and refusing to surrender
  3. A contained person who is armed, threatening suicide, and refusing to surrender
  4. Any sniper or terrorist incident
  5. When a command officer believes activation is in the public’s or department’s best interest
98
Q

What are the responsibilities of supervisory personnel on the scene of a major incident?

A
  1. Notify the chain of command

2. Begin filling out the major incident checklist

99
Q

What are the supervisors responsibilities with regard to employee involved shootings, deaths, And in-custody deaths?

A
  1. Complete tasks outlined in the employee involved shooting on-scene task checklist
    Complete the patrol supervisor’s officer involved death/life-threatening injury checklist
  2. Ensure the employee is provided an opportunity to contact legal representation and consult with them
100
Q

According to the department’s WMD activation plan, there are three levels of response to a WMD incident. What are they?

A

A potential threat is a level III incident and the lowest priority. A credible threat is a level II incident and the medium priority. An actual incident (nuclear, biological, or chemical) is a level I threat and the highest priority.

101
Q

In a level III WMD incident, what is the patrol supervisor’s responsibility?

A
  1. Respond with two patrol units
  2. Coordinate with the OFD commander
  3. Notify the on-duty watch commander
102
Q

During a level one WMD response patrol units and the sector sergeant will respond to the scene. What will be there purpose?

A

Responding with Gas masks on, Officers will identify a safe perimeter and secure ingress and egress

103
Q

Name three crimes identified in policies and procedures as “order maintenance” crimes (Often targets for decoy, undercover, or surveillance operations)

A

Prostitution, drug dealing, and panhandling

104
Q

Who can authorize decoy, surveillance, and undercover investigations?

A

The section Cmdr.

105
Q

What is the role of a supervisor in decoy, surveillance, and undercover operations?

A

One supervisor will be present during the undercover operation. He/she will be assigned to oversee the operation and ensure safety precautions are followed. The on-duty watch commander should also be notified

106
Q

To ensure safety and security, what three steps will be followed for decoy, surveillance, and undercover operations?

A
  1. A detail plan and briefing
  2. Backup/close cover
  3. Observation and arrest
107
Q

True or false - Prior to the execution of a search warrant, a sergeant or assistant squad leader will conduct an operational briefing.

A

True

108
Q

Prior to the execution of a search warrant, the sergeant or system squad leader Cordinator in the investigation will notify who?

A
  1. The watch commander
  2. The communications supervisor
  3. The on-call property crimes Sgt.
  4. The lead officers bureau commander, if the warrant will be executed by SWAT
  5. FDLE narcotics information network joint agency (NINJA)
  6. OFD (SWAT warrant only)
  7. CNT commander (SWAT warrant only)
109
Q

Prior to executing a search warrant outside OPD jurisdiction, the sergeant or assistant Squad squad leader coordinating the investigation will notify who?

A
  1. OPD watch commander
  2. OCSO watch commander
  3. MBI Supervisor
  4. Communications supervisor
  5. The on-call property crimes Sgt.
  6. The lead officers Bureau commander, if the warrant will be executed by SWAT
  7. FDLE NINJA
110
Q

What circumstances must be present to effect a no-knock/ forced warrant entry?

A
  1. The occupants know the officers’ authority and purpose, yet have not permitted entry
  2. The officers justifiably believe that occupants are in danger
  3. The quantity and nature of the evidence, with the circumstances surrounding its possession, provide the officer with reasonable grounds to believe that the evidence will be destroyed
111
Q

What are the 10 responsibilities of the sergeant or assistant squad leader in charge of coordinating a search warrant investigation, as listed in policy?

A
  1. Supervise investigation
  2. Review and approve the Search warrant
  3. Review and approve the operational plan
  4. Confirm that a judge has signed the warrant
  5. Make required notifications
  6. Ensure the necessary equipment is present
  7. Facilitate SWAT and CNT involvement
  8. Conduct a thorough operational briefing
  9. Personally verify the target
  10. Arrange for surveillance
112
Q

True or false - On call sex crimes in the seaters shall be called regardless of whether the victim desires prosecution or not

A

True

113
Q

Which unit retains records on confidential informants, and how long are those records kept?

A

The intelligence unit maintains those files, and they are kept for five fiscal years following the last use of the informant or the deactivation of the informant.

114
Q

True or false - Juvenile Confidential informants maybe used under the same circumstances that an adult confidential informant would be used.

A

False - The juvenile confidential informant may only be used when no other satisfactory avenue of pursuit in an investigation is apparent

115
Q

Who is authorized to distribute investigative funds to officers in need?

A

Supervisors assigned to the drug enforcement division, the intelligence unit, patrol TAC, or certain supervisors assigned to the criminal investigations division

116
Q

What are 4 types of incidents that mandate a Critical Incident Stress Management Team call-out?

A
  1. Death / serious injury to OPD employee
  2. Death / serious injury at the hands of OPD employee
  3. Officer-involved shootings
  4. Mass casualty cases
117
Q

What actions shall a supervisor take when one of his/her subordinates is involved in a critical (CISM) incident?

A
  1. Make the necessary departmental notifications
  2. Allow the CISM supervisor to make personal contact with the involved employee
  3. Retain authority over the scene unless/until relieved
  4. Turn over CISM responsibilities to CISM supervisor
118
Q

True or false - When an employee involved in a critical (CISM) incident requests peer support from an on-duty, non-CISM peer, that peer will respond on duty. If the non-CISM peer is off duty, overtime shall be authorized.

A

True

119
Q

An employee involved in a critical (CISM) incident shall be afforded what 4 considerations?

A
  1. He/she will be allowed to calm down in a stable, private location
  2. With CID and IA approval, he/she will be permitted to clean up, shower, and/or change
  3. Personal needs, such as family and/or religious response, shall be met
  4. Food and drink should be permitted
120
Q

What are the 11 legitimate reasons for being absent from duty?

A
  1. Sick leave or advanced personal leave
  2. Managerial or administrative leave
  3. Preauthorized extraordinary leave
  4. Leave as provided under civil service code
  5. When an application for pension or special leave is pending
  6. Military leave
  7. Authorized collective-bargaining related absences
  8. Administrative relief of duty with pay
  9. Suspension with or without pay
  10. FMLA leave
  11. Leave as authorized in city policy
121
Q

How long must you be absent from work before you are required to complete a physical to return to work?

A

30 days

122
Q

Who is authorized to permit no pay hours to sworn or non-sworn employees who are sick during the first 90 days of employment?

A

The applicable section commander.

123
Q

What procedures should be followed in cases involving unauthorized absences?

A
  1. Employees immediate supervisor shall initiate an INOI
  2. Employees immediate supervisor shall notify the employee that the unauthorized leave must immediately result in a no pay status
  3. The supervisor shall counsel the employee and document the counseling
  4. Repeated unauthorized absences may result in termination
    * * Fitness for duty as a result of medical incapacity will not necessarily prevent or delay the termination of an employee who is not in an authorized leave status
124
Q

An administrative review is conducted when an employee is significantly involved in an incident resulting in death or serious bodily injury. Who conducts the administrative review?

A

The employees Bureau commander.

125
Q

Defined departmental regulation

A

The standards of conduct for which all employees shall be held accountable

126
Q

What types of violations will be documented in the form of an initial notice of inquiry?

A

Violations of departmental regulations

127
Q

How will violations of written directives be documented?

A

In an employee’s supervisory notes

128
Q

The internal affairs section is generally responsible for investigating complaints involving regulations except which 5 types of violations?

A
  1. Punctuality and absences
  2. Reporting
  3. Department property and equipment
  4. Safe driving of police vehicles
  5. Court appearances
129
Q

Forgetting to qualify during a scheduled firearms qualification or failure to submit property and evidence by the end of an employee’s tour of duty would be examples of what type of regulations violation?

A

Obedience to laws and department procedures

130
Q

Citizen complaints during normal business hours will be handled by the internal affairs section. Who handles complaints after normal business hours?

A

The affected employees immediate supervisor, the affected employees manager, or the on-duty watch commander (in that order).

131
Q

A citizens complaint form need not be signed in what 4 circumstances?

A
  1. The complainant is a member of city government
  2. The complainant is anonymous
  3. The complainant is a member of any governmental agency
  4. The alleged violation is one that must be communicated in writing to the CJSTC
132
Q

Who may initiate an INOI?

A

Any sworn officer or civilian employee

133
Q

Upon being relieved of duty, what five obligations does an employee have?

A
  1. Relinquish designated equipment (Badge, gun, ID, radio, Gunbelt, keys and access cards, and other equipment requested by the manager)
  2. Turn in vehicle
  3. Contact IA at 8 AM the next day
  4. Cancel off duty
  5. The employee may not work for another employer during the time he or she is compensated by the department
134
Q

What are the four possible findings of an internal affairs investigation?

A
  1. Sustained (guilty)
  2. Not sustained (insufficient evidence)
  3. Unfounded (incident did not occur)
  4. Exonerated (act was proper)
135
Q

Once an internal investigation is complete, the report with the recommended finding shall be forwarded to the employee. What is the affected employees next step?

A

The employee will have 72 hours (business days, not counting contractual holidays) to review the investigation. He/she may request a meeting with the deputy chief or complete a written response to the facts contained in the investigation

136
Q

What are the three categories of discipline, who are the administering authorities for each category, and what are the types of discipline that can be administered for each category?

A

Category I-section commanders administer discipline from oral reprimand up to and including 40 hour suspension without pay

Category II - division commanders administer discipline from oral reprimand up to and including 240 hour suspension without pay

Category III – deputy chiefs administer discipline from oral reprimand up to and including demotion and determination

137
Q

What factors shall be considered in making recommendations for discipline?

A
  1. The severity of the infraction
  2. The employees previous sustained violations for similar violations
  3. Disciplinary actions that have been taken for similar violations in the past
138
Q

Once an employee has been informed of the final decision on discipline, how long does he/she have to file an appeal?

A

Five days

139
Q

When loss or damage of city property occurs due to an employee’s negligence, what action shall be taken?

A

If the value of the property is less than $100 or if the property is any uniform clothing, then a damaged or lost property form shall be completed. If the value of the property is $100 or more excluding uniforms, and INOI shall be initiated

140
Q

During an investigation, who is an internal affairs members immediate supervisor?

A

The chief of police. All investigations are conducted under the immediate authority of the chief of police

141
Q

When will employees be ordered to submit to a drug detection test?

A
  1. When reasonable suspicion exists that an employee has engaged in the use of drugs or controlled substances
  2. When transferring into or out of a unit whose primary responsibilities include drug enforcement
  3. When transferring into or out of the unit which requires the employee to take custody of and maintain control drugs for training purposes
  4. Random
142
Q

If an employee refuses to provide a urine specimen as required, what will he/she be charged with?

A

Insubordination

143
Q

If an employee asks for unscheduled leave, whose responsibility is it to determine whether the unscheduled leave is related to FMLA?

A

It is the supervisor’s responsibility. The employee does not have a choice as to whether or not leave discharged to FMLA

144
Q

Name four ways a supervisor can help prevent acts of harassment

A
  1. Monitor the unit work environment on a daily basis
  2. Counsel all employees on prohibited behavior and agency procedures for reporting harassment
  3. Intervening during any observed act that may be considered harassment
  4. Taking immediate action to prevent retaliation against a complaining party
145
Q

Name three employee responsibilities for assisting in the prevention of harassment

A
  1. Refrain from participating in or encouraging actions that could be perceived as harassment
  2. Report acts of harassment to a supervisor
  3. Encourage any employee who feels harassed to report those acts to a supervisor
146
Q

What are five performance factors that all employees will be rated on annually?

A
  1. Innovation
  2. Responsiveness
  3. Knowledge
  4. Courtesy
  5. Professionalism
147
Q

Are annual performance appraisals required for employees who were on restricted duty or military leave during the entire evaluation.?

A

Yes. The employee will attain “Meet standards” and the supervisor will indicate in the remarks section that the employee was either on restricted duty or military leave during the evaluation period

148
Q

A probationary officer must work how many days in one calendar month in order to receive a monthly probationary officer evaluation?

A

Seven days. If the sergeant did not observe the probationary officer for all seven of those days, he/she may consult the ASL regarding the probationary officer’s performance

149
Q

When an employee receives treatment for an on-duty injury, what are the supervisor’s responsibilities?

A

Notify the Florida Hospital Centracare call center hotline, and submit a copy of the discharge instruction form to the payroll unit and to the patrol services bureau aid within 24 hours

150
Q

Based on past practice, what is the time limit for conducting a show-up identification?

A

Two hours

151
Q

Is there a sixth amendment right to counsel for a suspect when a photo lineup is utilized?

A

No

152
Q

Is there a sixth amendment right to counsel for pre-arrest physical lineups?

A

No, but a pre-arrest physical lineup cannot be conducted without the suspect’s consent. There is an absolute sixth amendment right to have counsel present for a post-arrest physical lineup

153
Q

Each member who’s working in civilian clothes and on duty will have in his/her immediate possession what four items (Carried Concealed)?

A

His/her approved handgun, handcuffs, badge, and identification folder

154
Q

Personally-owned firearms carried on duty will be of the same caliber as department-issued firearms, with what three exceptions?

A

Plainclothes personnel, hideout firearms, and concealment of a firearm while undercover

155
Q

If an employee is contacted for court testimony purposes while not under subpoena, is he or she required to respond?

A

Yes

156
Q

Where should depositions occur when involving a criminal case?

A

At the courthouse

157
Q

Are criminal defendants permitted to be present during a deposition?

A

Not unless permitted by order of the court

158
Q

Once served with a mandatory EAP referral, an employee has how many days to schedule an appointment?

A

Two days

159
Q

What information may a supervisor obtain from EAP regarding a mandatory referral?

A
  1. Confirmation that an employee kept the appointment
  2. Verification that the employee has a problem EAP can assist him/her with
  3. Documentation that a treatment plan was made and was accepted or rejected by the employee
  4. Whether the employee did or did not complete the EAP recommended treatment
160
Q

What is a supervisor’s responsibility when considering the EAP referral process?

A

The supervisor shall document deteriorating work performance, consult EAP counselors when problems cannot be resolved by traditional practices, conduct an interview with the employee, offer an informal referral, and complete a mandatory referral if the problem persists. All EAP referral documentation shall be maintained in the supervisors notes

161
Q

What steps are involved in the early intervention process?

A
  1. Review the EI file
  2. Conduct the supervisor’s intervention meeting
  3. Meet with the section commander
  4. Complete an early intervention supervisor’s report
  5. Follow-up
162
Q

What type of information is subject to public records disclosure?

A

Any record which transfers information from one person to another

163
Q

True or false – persons requesting public records are required to identify themselves and to advise why they want public records prior to the documents been released

A

False

164
Q

What is the difference between criminal intelligence information and criminal investigative information?

A

Criminal intelligence information refers to information gathered about a person or group of persons in an effort to anticipate prevent or monitor possible criminal activity. Criminal investigative information involves the information garnered about a specific act

165
Q

Name three units responsible for releasing public records

A
  1. The records management section
  2. The police legal advisor
  3. The public information officer
    The airport division can also release reports about property crimes only
166
Q

When confronted by media personnel regarding a fast-breaking event, what information is an officer required to provide?

A

.

167
Q

With respect to fast breaking events, name six types of events that will not be verified to the media

A
  1. Kidnapping
  2. Hostage situations
  3. Insurance fraud
  4. Embezzlement
  5. Auto theft rings
  6. Fencing operations
168
Q

What shall a supervisor do when he receives a voided citation from an officer?

A

Inshore all copies of the citation are present, then sign it and put his/her employee number on the citation. The officer should also have signed and placed his/her employee number on the citation

Sgt's Exam stuff (6 decks)

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