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Mock Review > September 2014 > Flashcards

September 2014 Flashcards

0
Q

Which of the following would be representative of a linear dose-response relationship?

A. The response is directly proportional to the dose of radiation.
B. The response is inversely proportional to the dose of radiation.
C. A minimum dose is required for demonstration of effects.
D. No minimum dose is required for demonstration of effects.

A

A

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1
Q

Which of the following will effectively reduce radiation exposure to personnel?

A. Time. D. A & B
B. Distance. E. A,B,&C
C. Shielding

A

E

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2
Q

A radiation weighting factor is used in calculations to weigh the effectiveness of different types of X-rays. What is the weighting factor for diagnostic X-rays?

A. 1 C. 10
B. 3 D. 500

A

A

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3
Q

According to NCRP Report No. 93, _________ is/are the largest artificial source contributor to the average annual effective dose equivalent in the U.S.

A. Occupational exposure
B. Diagnostic x-rays
C. Nuclear Medicine exams
D. Tobacco products

A

B

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4
Q

Filtration built in the X-ray tube will:

A. Improve the radiographic quality of the image
B. Remove short wavelength photons
C. Reduce “hardening” of the beam
D. Reduce exposure to the patient’s skin

A

D

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5
Q

Which of the following would be affected the most from an external source of high L.E.T. Radiation (Alpha)?

A. Skin C. Nervous tissue
B. Bone marrow D. Muscle

A

A

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6
Q

A definition for attenuated is:

A. Photons the enter an object
B. Photons that remain in the beam after it passes through the object
C. Photons that have been absorbed or deviated from their path
D. Photons produced at the anode

A

C

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7
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of the acute radiation syndrome:

A. Prodromal C. Latent period
B. Manifest illness D. Hematopoietic

A

D

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8
Q

The greatest skin dose would be produced by using a _______ for an x-ray exam.

A. High kilovoltage technique C. Short OID
B. Low milliamperage technique D. Short SID

A

D

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9
Q

To reduce the amount of scattered radiation produced, which of the following could be done by the radiographer?

A. Increase kVp and mAs C. Use a grid
B. Decrease kVp and increase mAs D. Use a small focal spot

A

B

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10
Q

An exposure of 10 rad of x-ray to an individual would result in a dose of :

A. 1 rem C. 10 rem
B. 5 rem D. 100 rem

A

C

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11
Q

A ________ dose-response curve indicates that there is no safe dose of radiation.

  1. Linear non-threshold
  2. Non-linear threshold
  3. Non-linear non-threshold

A. 1 only C. 1&2
B. 2 only D. 1&3

A

D

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12
Q

Which of the following is a method of radiation protection that results in higher contrast?

A. Use of grids
B. Collimation
C. Use of low kVp, high mAs factors
D. All of the above

A

B

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13
Q

Which of the following types of radiation monitoring devices can provide the fastest means of determining radiation exposure?

A. Film badge C. White blood cell count
B. Thermoluminescent dosimeter D. Pocket ion chamber

A

D

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14
Q

Which of the following describes a protracted dose of radiation?

A. One dose given at once
B. Dose delivered continuously, but at a low dose rate
C. A low dose divided into equal fractions separated by time periods
D. None of the above

A

B

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15
Q

If a patient asks a radiographer about the risk of radiation exposure from a radiographic procedure, the radiographer should:

A. Answer the question honestly using examples the patient can understand
B. Avoid the patient’s question
C. Tell the patient it is unethical to discuss the issue
D. Refuse to answer the question and recommend they talk with their doctor

A

A

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16
Q

Cells in an oxygenated or aerobic state will possess _________ radio-sensitivity than the same type cells in a low oxygenated or hypoxia state.

A. Higher C. The same
B. Lower

A

A

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17
Q

Employers must provide personnel monitoring whenever it is likely that the workers would exceed __________ rem in a given year.

A. .5 C. 5
B. 1.25 D. 15

A

A

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18
Q

If a radiographer stands 2 feet from an x-ray source and receives an exposure rate of 3 mR per hour, what would the exposure rate be if they were to stand 6 feet from the source?

A. .33 mR C. 1.3 mR
B. .66 mR D. 3.1 mR

A

A

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19
Q

Reference to the “doubling dose” would be in regards to the:

A. Acute radiation syndrome
B. Short term effects of radiation
C. Long term somatic effects of radiation
D. Long term genetic effects of radiation

A

D

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20
Q

In determination of a protective barrier for radiographic room, the occupancy factor would express:

A. mA-minutes per week
B. Amount of time the beam is directed at the barrier
C. The amount of time that an area may be occupied by a given individual
D. Energy of the radiation utilized

A

C

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21
Q

A recoil electron is produced by:

A. Compton effect
B. Photoelectric effect
C. Pair production
D. Coherent scatter

A

A

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22
Q

The mA, timer, and kVp on an x-ray generator should be checked at least every __________ according to NCRP Report #99.

A. Month
B. Three months
C. Year
D. Two years

A

C

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23
Q

The focal track of the anode is usually made of:

A. Molybdenum C. Tungsten
B. Copper D. Gadolinium

A

C

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24
Q

Intensifying screen phosphors should have ________ for maximum effect on the film.

A. High conversion efficiency
B. Low atomic number
C. No electrons in the K-shell
D. Emit blue and green light simultaneously

A

A

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25
Q

What is the rare earth metal used to activate the phosphor in a PSP?

A. Cadmium C. Cesium
B. Barium D. Europium

A

D

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26
Q

The output current of a full-wave rectifier is:

A. Alternating current
B. Direct current
C. Pulsating direct current

A

C

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27
Q

Which of the following would be used with a direct digital radiography system?

A. Photostimulable plate C. High intensity laser
B. Cesium iodide intensifier D. Thin film transistor

A

D

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28
Q

The photocathode of an image intensifier converts:

A. Visible light into x-rays C. X-rays into visible light
B. Visible light into electrons D. Electrons into visible light

A

B

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29
Q

The television camera tube receives an image from and is directly coupled to the:

A. Output phosphor of the image intensifier
B. Input phosphor of the image intensifier
C. X-Ray tube collimator
D. Electrostatic focusing lens

A

A

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30
Q

500 mA _______ mA
.15 second .075 second
100 film/screen speed 200 film/screen speed

A. 100 D. 400
B. 200 E. 500
C. 300

A

E

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31
Q

600 mA 400 mA
.05 second ______ second
42” SID 36” SID

A. .055 D. .25
B. .08 E. .3
C. .15

A

A

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32
Q

300 mA ______ mA
.07 second .05 second
74 kVp 84 kVp

A. 100 D. 400
B. 200 E. 500
C. 300

A

B

33
Q

200 mA 400 mA
1/5 second _______ second
5:1 grid 8:1 grid

A. 1/20 D. 2/5
B. 1/10 E. 1/2
C. 1/5

A

C

34
Q

300 mA 500 mA
.15 second _______ second
5:1 grid 8:1 grid
72” SID 40” SID

A. .03 D. .25
B. .05 E. .50
C. .10

A

B

35
Q

Phantom images on a CR image can be avoided by:

A. Storing image plates in a cool location
B. Completely erasing the image plate
C. Making sure the image plate is correctly oriented to the grid
D. Selecting the correct region from the anatomical menu

A

B

36
Q

Adjusting the image post-processing will not _______ if the Exposure Index is out do range.

A. Degrade the final image
B. Improve the final image
C. Affect the final image in any way

A

B

37
Q

What effect would be seen on the film if the grid ratio is increased from 5:1 to 12:1 with no change to the technique to maintain density?

A. Increase contrast C. Increase density
B. Increase recorded density D. Increase distortion

A

A

38
Q

What is the formula used to reconstruct digital images called?

A. Histogram C. Pixel
B. Matrix D. Algorithm

A

D

39
Q

Which of the following choices is NOT true?

A. Darkroom safelights can cause fog
B. Expired film can have fog
C. Overdevelopment can cause fog
D. All films have the same base fog
E. High developer temperatures can cause fog
A

D

40
Q

The best way to adjust for excessive noise on a digital image is to:

A. Repeat with increased kVp
B. Repeat with increased mAs
C. Window/level at post-processing
D. Increase post-exposure collimation

A

B

41
Q

Which dynamic ranges allows for the greatest amount of attenuation to be visualized on the final image?

A. Wide C. Curvilinear
B. Narrow D. Non-linear

A

A

42
Q

_________ may require a decrease in technique.

A. Atelectasis C. Pneumothorax
B. Pneumonia D. Pneumoconiosis

A

C

43
Q

Which of the following would decrease spatial resolution?

A. Increase pixel density and decrease pixel pitch
B. Increase pixel density and increase pixel pitch
C. Decrease pixel density and decrease pixel pitch
D. Decrease pixel density and increase pixel pitch

A

D

44
Q

A hospital’s plan to periodically back-up archived files is called a/an:

A. HL7 plan C. PACS protocol
B. Disaster recovery plan D. DICOM protocol

A

B

45
Q

A film with short scale contrast exhibits:

A. Few black areas, mostly gray and white areas
B. Many shades of gray and black with few white areas
C. Small difference between two density areas on a finished film
D. Large difference between two areas on a finished film

A

D

46
Q

Which of the following would be closest to the film for an infero-superior axial projection of the patella?

A. Apex
B. Base
C. Medial surface
D. Lateral surface

A

B

47
Q

Which of the following would be most appropriate for a patient on a backboard in a cervical collar to demonstrate cervical intervertebral foramina?

A. Cross table lateral
B. Pillar
C. AP axial oblique
D. Posterior oblique

A

C

48
Q

A glenoid cavity position of the shoulder shows that the glenohumeral joint space is closed, and the lateral tip of the coracoid process does not superimpose the hum earl head. Which of the following would correct the positioning of this radiograph?

A. Position the patient’s shoulders on the same transverse plane
B. Place the shoulders Ina neutral position
C. Decrease the degree of patient obliquity
D. Increase the degree of patient obliquity
E. No correction needed

A

D

49
Q

In order to demonstrate the radial head free of superimposition, the humeral epicondyles should be adjusted to be:

A. Parallel with the central ray
B. Perpendicular to the central ray
C. At a 45 degree angle with the central ray
D. Parallel with the film

A

C

50
Q

Which of the following would best demonstrate the rectosigmoid area for an examination of the colon?

A. AP projection C. Lateral projection
B. PA projection D. Right lateral decubitus

A

C

51
Q

The body of the ischium forms the:

A. Anterior portion of the obturator foramen
B. Anterior portion of the acetabulum
C. Posterior portion of the acetabulum
D. Medial portion of the SI joint

A

C

52
Q

The joint classification of the sutures of the skull is:

A. Amphiarthrodial C. Biarthrodial
B. Synarthrodial D. Diarthrodial

A

B

53
Q

The navicular articulates anteriorly with which tarsal bone?

A. Talus
B. Bases of the 1st and 2nd metatarsals
C. Heads of the 1st and 2nd metatarsals
D. Cuneiforms
E. Cuboid
A

D

54
Q

The central ray for a RAO position of the stomach should be directed to:

A. The lumbar vertebral bodies
B. A point two inches right of the spinous processes
C. A point midway between the spine and the right lateral rib margin
D. A point midway between the spine and the left lateral rib margin

A

D

55
Q

The brachiocephalic artery bifurcates to form the:

A

Right common carotid and right subclavian arteries

56
Q

Maximum demonstration of the lesser trochanter of the hip on an AP projection would result with the long axis of the foot:

A

Externally rotated 25 degrees

57
Q

The separation of the external auditory meatus and the middle ear is provided by the:

A

Tympanic membrane

58
Q

For radiography of the knees, which of the following would best demonstrate joint space narrowing on an arthritic patient?

A

Weight-bearing AP projections

59
Q

A radiograph of the forearm is obtained with the palmer surface of the hand and the elbow in contact with the film. This projection would demonstrate the:

A

Radius crossing over the ulna at the proximal forearm

60
Q

Which of the following structures separates the humeral head from the humeral shaft?

A

Anatomical neck

61
Q

Which of the following are structures of the ethmoid bone?

1) Crista Galli 2) Perpendicular Plate 3) Superior Nasal Conchae

A

All 3

62
Q

A patient is suspected of having a subluxation of the cervical vertebrae. Since the patient cannot be rotated, an oblique projection could be obtained by directing the central ray to form an angle of ________ degrees with the coronal plane.

A

45

63
Q

The spine of the scapula ends in a flattened triangular process termed the:

A

Acromion process

64
Q

A brachycephalic shaped skull would possess an angulation. Between the petrous pyramids and the median sagittal plane of:

A

54 degrees

65
Q

Which of the following areas contains cerebrospinal fluid?

  1. Brain ventricles
  2. Subarachnoid space
  3. Epidural space
A

Brain ventricles and subarachnoid space

66
Q

In order to reduce OID for an AP projection of the humerus with the patient supine, the:

A

Unaffected side should be elevated

67
Q

Which of the following is not a method of sterilization?

A. Steam
B. Chemicals
C. Dry heat
D. Ionizing radiation
E. All of the above are methods
A

All are methods

68
Q

The normal range of diastolic blood pressure in adults is:

A

60-90

69
Q

HIPAA legislation affects radiology because of the focus on:

A

Patient record confidentially

70
Q

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is most commonly used to treat:

A

Allergies

71
Q

A good example of ensuring patient comfort would be:

A. Using a full length radiolucent pad on the x-ray table
B. Help debilitated patients change position periodically
C. Using a sponge or bolster under knees of supine patients
D. All the above

A

All are good examples

72
Q

The radiographer is responsible for documenting ______ according to department protocol.

A. # of exposures or images
B. Exposure factors
C. Amount of fluoro time
D. A&C
E. A,B,&C
A

All

73
Q

When a patient with a chest tube drainage comes to radiology, you should not:

A

Clamp the tube when you stand the patient up

74
Q

What could cause a patient a to feel lightheaded when they stand up quickly from a supine or sitting position?

A

Decreased pulse rate

75
Q

Which type of precaution usually requires more than one person to perform the exam?

A

Contact

76
Q

A patient who is hard-of-hearing will have an easier time hearing a person who has a _____ voice.

A

Low-pitched

77
Q

A term for laxative preparations is:

A

Cathartic

78
Q

When preparing a patient for an angiogram, the surgical scrub should be done:

A

Working slowly outward in a circular motion

79
Q

The body is most stable when the _______ bisects the base of support.

A

Line of gravity

80
Q

Which of the following is a fomite?

A

Radiographic cassette

81
Q

A ________ is necessary to take an apical pulse.

A

Stethoscope

Mock Review (3 decks)

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