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Mock Review > August 2014 > Flashcards

August 2014 Flashcards

0
Q

Which of the following does NOT protect the patient by limiting the volume of tissue being exposed?

A. Collimator
B. Cylinder cone
C. Aperture diaphragm
D. Filter

A

Filter

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1
Q

The formula rad x QF is used to calculate the:

A

Rem

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2
Q

What term refers to the radiation that is produced when an electron moves from an outer shell to fill a vacancy in an inner shell?

A

Characteristic radiation

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3
Q

Occupational radiation monitoring is required when it is likely that an individual will receive ______ in any single year.

A

.5 rem

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4
Q

Which of the following may result in reduced radiation dose to the patient?

  1. AEC
  2. Slow film/screen speed
  3. Lowest mAs possible
A

All

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5
Q

Secondary barriers are not designed to protect people from:

A

The primary beam

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6
Q

Which of the following would allow an individual to survive larger amounts of radiation?

A. Protraction
B. Fractionation
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

A

Protraction and Fractionation

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7
Q

What happens when a state is considered to be an “agreement state” with the NRC?

A

Radiation protection regulations are enforced by state

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8
Q

Attenuation of a diagnostic x-ray beam is the result of which of the following?

  1. Photoelectric effect
  2. Compton effect
  3. Pair production
A

Photoelectric and Compton

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9
Q

Which of the following radiation induced effects would require a threshold dose?

A. Acute radiation syndrome
B. Radiation induced leukemia
C. Genetic effects of radiation
D. None of the above

A

Acute radiation syndrome

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10
Q

Which of the following would result in the greatest increase in patient exposure?

A. Use of 100 speed screens instead of 200 speed screens
B. Adjusting collimation from a 10x12 field to an 8x10 field
C. Increasing the kVp and decreasing the mAs to maintain exposure to the IR
D. Utilizing an 8:1 grid instead of a non-grid technique

A

Utilizing an 8:1 grid instead of a non-grid technique

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11
Q

The protective curtain on the fluoroscope between the patient and the radiographer protects:

A

The radiographer from scatter radiation

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12
Q

Patient dose will increase during cine fluoroscopy with a ____.

A

Smaller field of view and an increased number of frames per second

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13
Q

Which of the following devices is not considered a personnel monitoring device?

A. Geiger-Müller counter
B. Optically stimulated luminescent dosimeter
C. Pocket dosimeter
D. Thermoluminescent dosimeter

A

Geiger-Müller counter

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14
Q

What is the most effective way to reduce the dose to a radiographer in the exam room during a fluoroscopic exam?

A

Doubling distance from fluoroscopic table

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15
Q

Which photon-tissue interactions results in the production of a recoil electron?

A

Compton’s interaction

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16
Q

Which of the following would have the longest wavelength?

A. Gamma radiation
B. Diagnostic x-rays
C. Cosmic radiation
D. Visible light

A

Visible light

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17
Q

Thyroid shields worn during fluoroscopic procedures should be ____ lead one lead equivalent.

A

.5 mm

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18
Q

Effective dose is partially based on:

A

The radiosensitivity of various tissues and organs

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19
Q

How frequently should the lead aprons be checked for holes and cracks?

A

Annually

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20
Q

The detector array ______ in a cassette-less digital system.

A

Converts remnant x-rays to an electronic signal

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21
Q

What supplies free electrons for x-ray production?

A

Thermionic emission

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22
Q

The ______ operates on the principle of self-induction .

A

Autotransformer

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23
Q

The amount of current needed to heat the filament in an X-ray tube is:

A

3-5 amps

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24
Q

This type of system does NOT require analog to digital conversion.

A

Film/screen

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25
Q

The image on the output phosphor of an image intensifier is:

  1. Brighter than the input phosphor
  2. Dimmer than the input phosphor
  3. Larger than the input phosphor
A

Brighter than the input phosphor

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26
Q

With an AEC device:

A

A backup timer is required

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28
Q

300 mA 400 mA
.01 second ____mA
200 film/screen speed 100 film/screen speed
80 kVp 70kvp

A

.03 second

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29
Q

400 mA _____ mA
1/5 second 1/10 second
60 kVp 70 kVp
8:1 grid 5:1 grid

A

200 mA

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30
Q

50 mA 300mA
.30 second _____ second
100 film/screen speed 200 film/screen speed
5:1 grid 8:1 grid

A

.05 second

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31
Q

100 mA 300 mA
1/5 second _____ second
90 kVp 104 kVp
50” SID 72” SID

A

1/15 second

32
Q

Final image contrast in a digital system is primarily influenced by:

A

LUTs

33
Q

Which of the following choices represents a compensating filter?

A. Collimator
B. Added filter
C. Inherent filter
D. Aluminum wedge filter

A

Aluminum wedge filter

34
Q

Which of the following exposure factors would produce the shortest scale of contrast for a radiograph of the abdomen?

A. 200 mA 1/4 sec 72 kVp 6:1 grid 200 film/screen speed
B. 100 mA 1/2 sec 90 kVp 6:1 grid 100 film/screen speed
C. 400 mA 3/4 sec 76 kVp 5:1 grid 50 film/screen speed
D. 300 mA 1/5 sec 80 kVp 6:1 grid 100 film/screen speed

A

A

35
Q

Chemical fog can be caused by:

A

Increased developer temperature
Increased developing time
Chemical contamination
Increased replenishment

36
Q

In a CR system, sampling frequency and pixel pitch are used to determine :

A

Spatial resolution

37
Q

In which of the following ranges would an increase in 10 kVp have the least effect on the exposure to the IR?

A. 51-60 kVp D. 81-90 kVp
B. 61-70 kVp E. 91-100 kVp
C. 71-80 kVp

A

91-100 kVp

38
Q

Histogram analysis errors in a cassette-based system can be attributed to:

A

Scatter fog

39
Q

Ton compensate for excessive OID, the SID should:

A

Be increased

40
Q

The most commonly used filter for a darkroom safelight is:

A

GBX

41
Q

Employing the correct _____ is one of the two most effective ways to control the effect of scatter on a digital image.

A

Collimation

42
Q

Decreasing the OID will result in REDUCTION of:

A

Magnification

43
Q

The various densities of the part being radiographed will affect:

  1. Exposure to the IR
  2. Radiographic contrast
  3. Differential absorption
A

All

44
Q

The wide _____ in digital imaging allows more anatomic information to be captured and displayed.

A

Dynamic range

45
Q

Which position/projection best demonstrates the left kidney in profile and the entire right ureter for intravenous urography?

A

RPO

46
Q

Spina bifida results from:

A

Failure of the lamina to unite

47
Q

The medial articulation of the head of the radius is with the:

A

Ulna

48
Q

The mitral valve is situated between the:

A

Left atrium and left ventricle

49
Q

Which of the following structures is located most anterior in the abdomen?

A. Spleen
B. Kidney
C. Transverse colon
D. Inferior vena cava

A

Transverse colon

50
Q

The degree of angulation between the petrous pyramids and the median sagittal plane of a mesocephalic shaped skull is approximately:

A

45 degrees

51
Q

In order to best demonstrate the greater tubercle of the humerus free of superimposition, a plane passing through the epicondyles should:

A

Be perpendicular with the central ray

52
Q

Which of the following structures of the thoracic vertebrae would articulate with the anterior end of the rib?

A. Body
B. Transverse process
C. Pedicle
D. None of the above

A

None of the above

53
Q

An AP projection of the foot could also be termed:

A

Dorsoplantar projection

54
Q

Which of the following bones from the foramen magnum?

  1. Occipital bone
  2. Temporal bone
  3. Sphenoid bone
A

Occipital bone

55
Q

The term that most accurately describes the movement of the foot when turned inward at the ankle joint is:

A

Inversion

56
Q

The central ray for an AP projection of the knee should enter:

A

1 cm inferior to the apex of the patella

57
Q

The number of ribs that should be demonstrated above the diaphragm on a chest radiograph with proper inspiration would be:

A

10

58
Q

Lateral deviation of the nasal septum could best be demonstrated utilizing the:

A

Parietoacanthial projection Waters method

59
Q

Which projection would provide maximum demonstration and closest placement to the film of the right intervertebral foramina of the cervical vertebrae?

A

Right anterior oblique position (RAO)

60
Q

The cuboid lies on the _____ side of the foot.

A

Lateral

61
Q

The outer layer of the meninges is the:

A

Dura mater

62
Q

If the orders for a patient state that they are NPO this means:

A

Nothing should be given by mouth

63
Q

Which of the following contraindicate the use of iodine contrast agents?

A. Multiple myeloma
B. Creatinine level of 2.8
C. BUN level of 35 mg/dl
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
A

All of the above

64
Q

The vital sign that most accurately indicates that a patient is in shock is:

A

Blood pressure

65
Q

What is the best method to transfer a very obese patient from a wheelchair to the x-ray table if the patient is unable to bear weight on either leg?

A

Use a hydraulic lift

66
Q

The rule for restraining pediatric patients is:

A

Restrain children only when necessary

67
Q

The ____ is responsible for addressing possible adverse effects of a procedure as well as alternate diagnostic tests.

A

Physician

68
Q

Which transmissions would apply to microorganisms spread by contaminated water?

A

Common vehicle transmission

69
Q

A radiographer observes that a patient’s IV site has become swollen and puffy. The radiographer should:

A

Clamp off the IV

70
Q

Nasogastric and nasoenteric tubes are used for:

  1. Feeding
  2. Decompression
  3. Radiographic examinations
A

All

71
Q

The term that the CDC currently uses to describe isolating patients with known infection is:

A

Transmission based precautions

72
Q

Sterile trays may have an indicator that changes colors when sterilization has occurred. What type of sterilization process uses this type indicator?

A

Gas plasma
Autoclave
Freezing

73
Q

What is an example of verbal communication?

A

Asking the patient for their symptoms

74
Q

The term _______ refers to the process of performing initial examinations and assigning a priority for further care of disaster victims.

A

Triage

75
Q

Which of the following choices represents a standard principle of surgical asepsis?

  1. Never leave a sterile area unattended
  2. Never reach across a sterile field
  3. You may pass between the physician and the sterile field if needed
A

1&2

76
Q

The type of microorganism that causes tuberculosis is a/an:

A

Bacteria

103
Q

400 mA _____ mA
.12 second .08 second
100 film/screen speed 200 film/screen speed

A

300 mA

Mock Review (3 decks)

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