September 14 To September 20 Flashcards

Question

What is Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC)?

Answer 1

It is a not-for-profit Public Sector Enterprise, set up by Department of Biotechnology (DBT) as an Interface Agency to strengthen and empower the emerging Biotech enterprise to undertake strategic research and innovation, addressing nationally relevant product development needs.

Answer 2

It is an industry-academia collaborative mission for accelerating biopharmaceutical development in the country. It was launched in 2017 at a total cost of Rs 1500 crore and is 50% co-funded by World Bank loan. It is being implemented by the Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC). Under this Mission, the Government has launched Innovate in India (i3) programme to create an enabling ecosystem to promote entrepreneurship and indigenous manufacturing in the biopharma sector.

Answer 3

Context: Researchers have found that the concentration of near surface ozone in this region is low compared to the other urban locations in India. What is Tropospheric or ground-level ozone? It is created by chemical reactions between oxides of nitrogen (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOC). It usually increases when pollutants emitted by cars, power plants, industrial boilers, refineries, chemical plants, and other sources chemically react in the presence of sunlight, impacting human health.

Answer 4

This site is well influenced by local sources such as adjacent major national highway. During the daylight hours, the site is in or nearly in a photo-stationary state, indicating a low impact of organic species on the ozone concentrations.

Answer 5

Ozone at ground level is a harmful air pollutant, because of its effects on people and the environment, and it is the main ingredient in “smog.” Elevated ground-level ozone exposures affect agricultural crops and trees, especially slow growing crops and long-lived trees. The main health concern of exposure to ambient ground-level ozone is its effect on the respiratory system, especially on lung function.

Answer 6

Ozone is produced naturally in the stratosphere when highly energetic solar radiation strikes molecules of oxygen, and cause the two oxygen atoms to split apart in a process called photolysis. If a freed atom collides with another O2, it joins up, forming ozone.

Answer 7

Why in News? Govt. suspends FCRA clearance of four Christian groups for various reasons. What is FCRA clearance? Why is it needed? It is mandatory to have FCRA clearance from the Home Ministry for any organisation to receive foreign funds. Foreign funding of voluntary organizations in India is regulated under FCRA act and is implemented by the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Answer 8

Under the Act, organisations require to register themselves every five years. As per the amended FCRA rules, all NGOs registered or granted prior permission under FCRA are now required to upload details of foreign contributions received and utilized by them every three months on their website or the FCRA website. NGOs now need to file their annual returns online, with the hard copy version dispensed with.

Answer 9

Election candidate Member of any legislature (MP and MLAs) Political party or office bearer thereof Organization of a political nature Correspondent, columnist, cartoonist, editor, owner, printer or publishers of a registered Newspaper. Judge, government servant or employee of any corporation or any other body controlled on owned by the Government. Association or company engaged in the production or broadcast of audio news, audio visual news or current affairs programmes through any electronic mode Any other individuals or associations who have been specifically prohibited by the Central Government

Answer 10

The Association: must be registered (under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 or Indian Trusts Act 1882 or section 8 of Companies Act, 2013 etc.) normally be in existence for at least 3 years. has undertaken reasonable activity in its field for the benefit of the society. Has spent at least Rs.10,00,000/- (Rs. ten lakh) over the last three years on its activities.

Answer 11

Context: We know rusting exists on Earth and Mars, but now scientists have found that there is on the moon as well. The images sent by ISRO’s Chandrayaan 1 orbiter – India’s first mission to the moon, show that the moon may be rusting along the poles. Why is this so surprising? Rust, also known as iron oxide, is a reddish compound. It forms when the iron is exposed to water and oxygen. However, moon’s surface is not known for the presence of water and oxygen. Hence, this is surprising.

Answer 12

For iron to turn rusty red, it needs what’s called an oxidizer — a molecule such as oxygen that removes electrons from a material such as iron. But, the moon doesn’t have an atmosphere of its own to provide sufficient amounts of oxygen, but it has trace amounts donated by Earth’s atmosphere. This terrestrial oxygen travels to the moon along an elongated extension of the planet’s magnetic field called a “magnetotail.” At every full moon, the magnetotail blocks 99% of solar wind from blasting the moon, drawing a temporary curtain over the lunar surface, allowing periods of time for rust to form.

Answer 13

The moon is mostly devoid of water, save for frozen water found in lunar craters on the moon’s far side — far from where most of the hematite was found. But the researchers propose that fast-moving dust particles that bombard the moon might free water molecules locked into the moon’s surface layer, allowing the water to mix with the iron. These dust particles might even be carrying water molecules themselves, and their impact might create heat that could increase the oxidation rate.

Answer 14

Launched in 2008, Chandrayaan-1 is India’s first lunar probe. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) lost communication with Chandrayaan-1 in August 2009. Later, NASA scientists found Chandrayaan-1 spacecraft, which was considered lost, by using a new ground-based radar technique.

Answer 15

Confirmed presence of lunar water. Evidence of lunar caves formed by an ancient lunar lava flow. Past tectonic activity were found on the lunar surface.

Answer 16

The 3rd Rashtriya Poshan Maah is being celebrated during the month of September 2020. Every year the Poshan Maah is celebrated under POSHAN Abhiyaan, which was launched in 2018. Ministry of Women and Child Development, being the nodal Ministry for POSHAN Abhiyaan, is celebrating the Poshan Maah in convergence with partner Ministries and departments, at National, States/UTs, Districts, and grass root level. The objective of the Poshan Maah is to encourage Jan Bhagidaari, in order to create a Jan Andolan, for addressing malnutrition amongst young children, and women and to ensure health and nutrition for everyone.

Answer 17

The General Assembly of United Nations on 19 December 2019 adopted a resolution to observe the International Day of Clean Air for Blue Skies on 07th September every year starting from 2020. The Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) worked with UNEP and the Republic of Korea to advocate for the day in the lead up to the decision. The Day aims to Raise public awareness at all levels—individual, community, corporate and government—that clean air is important for health, productivity, the economy and the environment.

Answer 18

Why in News? Kesavananda Bharati, the man who lent his name to an iconic case as the petitioner, died on Sunday. The landmark ruling in which the Supreme Court announced the basic structure doctrine was in the case of His Holiness Kesavananda Bharati Sripadagalvaru and Ors v State of Kerala. Who was Kesavananda Bharati? Why is he remembered? He was the head seer of the Edneer Mutt in Kasaragod district of Kerala since 1961. He left his signature in one of the significant rulings of the Supreme Court when he challenged the Kerala land reforms legislation in 1970.

Answer 19

The case was primarily about the extent of Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution. First, the court was reviewing a 1967 decision in Golaknath v State of Punjab which, reversing earlier verdicts, had ruled that Parliament cannot amend fundamental rights. Second, the court was deciding the constitutional validity of several other amendments. Notably, the right to property had been removed as a fundamental right, and Parliament had also given itself the power to amend any part of the Constitution and passed a law that it cannot be reviewed by the courts. Politically, the case represented the fight for supremacy of Parliament led by then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.

Answer 20

A 13-judge Bench was set up by the Supreme Court, the biggest so far, and the case was heard over 68 working days spread over six months. The basic structure doctrine was evolved in the majority judgment. What did the court decide? In its majority ruling, the court held that fundamental rights cannot be taken away by amending them. While the court said that Parliament had vast powers to amend the Constitution, it drew the line by observing that certain parts are so inherent and intrinsic to the Constitution that even Parliament cannot touch it. However, despite the ruling that Parliament cannot breach fundamental rights, the court upheld the amendment that removed the fundamental right to property. The court ruled that in spirit, the amendment would not violate the “basic structure” of the Constitution. Essentially, Kesavananda Bharati, lost the case. But as many legal scholars point out, the government did not win the case either.

Answer 21

The Constitutional Bench ruled by a 7-6 verdict that Parliament should be restrained from altering the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. The court held that under Article 368, which provides Parliament amending powers, something must remain of the original Constitution that the new amendment would change. However, the court did not define the ‘basic structure’, and only listed a few principles — federalism, secularism, democracy — as being its part. Since then, the court has been adding new features to this concept.

Answer 22

The ‘basic structure’ doctrine has since been interpreted to include the supremacy of the Constitution, the rule of law, Independence of the judiciary, doctrine of separation of powers, federalism, secularism, sovereign democratic republic, the parliamentary system of government, the principle of free and fair elections, welfare state, etc.

Answer 23

Why in News? 19th meeting of Supreme Court -mandated Committee on Content Regulation in Government Advertising (CCRGA) was held recently. What is CCRGA? When was it set up? As per the directions of Supreme Court in 2015, the Government of India had set up a three member body in 2016 to look into content regulation of government funded advertisements in all media platforms. As per directions of the Hon’ble Supreme Court, states are mandated to set up their respective three member committees on Content Regulation of Government Advertisements. Karnataka, Goa, Mizoram and Nagaland States have already constituted state-level Three Member Committees.

Answer 24

It is empowered to address complaints from the general public and can also take suo-moto cognizance of any violation of the Supreme Court guidelines and recommend corrective actions. The Committee may, if necessary, also decide to summon the concerned official of the Govt. agencies dealing with release of advertisements in the event of undue delay in responding to Committee’s notices.

Answer 25

The content of government advertisements should be relevant to the government’s constitutional and legal obligations as well as the citizen’s rights and entitlements. The advertisement materials should be designed to meet the objectives of the campaign and to ensure maximum reach in a cost effective way. It should be accurate and not presenting pre existing policies and products as new. The advertisement content should also not promote the political interests of the ruling party.

Answer 26

Why in News? The Vice President, Shri M Venkaiah Naidu recently suggested that milk could be given either as part of breakfast or the mid-day meal in order to improve the nutritional levels of children. About Mid-Day meal scheme: The scheme guarantees one meal to all children in government and aided schools and madarsas supported under Samagra Shiksha. Students up to Class VIII are guaranteed one nutritional cooked meal at least 200 days in a year. The Scheme comes under the Ministry of HRD. It was launched in the year 1995 as the National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education (NP – NSPE), a centrally sponsored scheme. In 2004, the scheme was relaunched as the Mid Day Meal Scheme.

Answer 27

The place of serving meals to the children shall be school only. If the Mid-Day Meal is not provided in school on any school day due to non-availability of food grains or any other reason, the State Government shall pay food security allowance by 15th of the succeeding month. The meal shall be prepared in accordance with the Mid Day Meal guidelines issued by the Central Government from time to time. Procuring AGMARK quality items for preparation of midday meals, tasting of meals by two or three adult members of the school management committee, including at least one teacher, before serving to children. The School Management Committee mandated under the Right to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 shall also monitor implementation of the Mid-day meal Scheme. The State Steering-cum Monitoring Committee (SSMC) shall oversee the implementation of the scheme including establishment of a mechanism for maintenance of nutritional standards and quality of meals.

Answer 28

In terms of calorie intake, as per the MDM guidelines, the children in primary schools must be provided with at least 450 calories with 12 grams of protein through MDM while the children in upper primary schools should get 700 calories with 20 grams of protein, as per MHRD. The food intake per meal by the children of primary classes, as provided by MHRD is 100 grams of food grains, 20 grams of pulses, 50 grams of vegetables and 5 grams of oils and fats. For the children of upper-primary schools, the mandated breakup is 150 grams of food grains, 30 grams of pulses, 75 grams of vegetables and 7.5 grams of oils and fats.

Answer 29

The cost of the MDMS is shared between the central and state governments. The central government provides free food grains to the states. The cost of cooking, infrastructure development, transportation of food grains and payment of honorarium to cooks and helpers is shared by the centre with the state governments.

Answer 30

Why in News? NITI Aayog is in the last stage for preparation of Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) parameter dashboard and a State Reform Action Plan (SRAP). In this regard, the Niti Aayog will leverage the monitoring mechanism of the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index. NITI Aayog is the Nodal agency for the MPI.

Answer 31

Global MPI is part of Government of India’s decision to monitor the performance of the country in 29 select Global Indices. The objective of the “Global Indices to Drive Reforms and Growth (GIRG)” exercise is to fulfil the need to measure and monitor India’s performance on various important social and economic parameters. This will enable the utilisation of these Indices as tools for self-improvement, bring about reforms in policies, while improving last-mile implementation of government schemes.

Answer 32

Global MPI is an international measure of multidimensional poverty. It covers 107 developing countries. It was first developed in 2010 by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) for UNDP’s Human Development Reports.

Answer 33

The Global MPI is released at the High-Level Political Forum (HLPF) on Sustainable Development of the United Nations in July, every year.

Answer 34

Global MPI is computed by scoring each surveyed household on 10 parameters based on –nutrition, child mortality, years of schooling, school attendance, cooking fuel, sanitation, drinking water, electricity, housing and household assets. Performance of India and its neighbours in MPI 2020: India is 62nd among 107 countries with an MPI score of 0.123 and 27.91% headcount ratio, based on the NFHS 4 (2015/16) data. Neighbouring countries like Sri Lanka (25th), Bhutan (68th), Nepal (65th), Bangladesh (58th), China (30th), Myanmar (69th) and Pakistan (73rd) are also ranked in this index.

Answer 35

What? India has become the fourth country after the United States, Russia and China to develop and successfully test hypersonic technology. Why? India recently tested the Hypersonic Test Demonstrator Vehicle (HSTDV). Developed by? Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).

Answer 36

This indigenous technology will pave the way towards development of missiles travelling at six times the speed of sound (Mach 6).

Answer 37

The HSTDV is an unmanned scramjet demonstration aircraft for hypersonic speed flight.

Answer 38

The HSTDV cruise vehicle is mounted on a solid rocket motor, which will take it to a required altitude, and once it attains certain mach numbers for speed, the cruise vehicle will be ejected out of the launch vehicle. Subsequently, the scramjet engine will be ignited automatically.

Answer 39

It has utility for long-range cruise missiles of the future. It can be used for launching satellites at low cost too.

Answer 40

A cruise missile either locates its target or has a preset target. It navigates using a guidance system — such as inertial or beyond visual range satellite GPS guidance — and comprises a payload and aircraft propulsion system. Cruise missiles can be launched from land, sea or air for land attacks and anti-shipping purposes, and can travel at subsonic, supersonic and hypersonic speeds. Since they stay relatively close to the surface of the earth, they cannot be detected easily by anti-missile systems, and are designed to carry large payloads with high precision. Ballistic missiles, meanwhile, are launched directly into the upper layers of the earth’s atmosphere. They travel outside the atmosphere, where the warhead detaches from the missile and falls towards a predetermined target. They are rocket-propelled self-guided weapons systems which can carry conventional or nuclear munitions. They can be launched from aircraft, ships and submarines, and land.

Answer 41

Intercontinental ballistic missiles or ICBMs are guided missiles which can deliver nuclear and other payloads. ICBMs have a minimum range of 5,500 km, with maximum ranges varying from 7,000 to 16,000 km. Only a handful of countries, including Russia, United States, China, France, India and North Korea, have ICBM capabilities.

Answer 42

Why in News? Delhi High Court has asked the Centre to take a call on the issue of bringing Assam Rifles out of the dual control of the Home Ministry (MHA) and the Defence Ministry (MoD). Background: The direction came on a petition filed by Assam Rifles Ex-Servicemen Welfare Association seeking direction to the government for placing to bring Assam Rifles under one control, preferably under Indian Army (MoD).

Answer 43

Assam Rifles which is also referred to as the Sentinels of North East is the oldest paramilitary force of India. Assam Rifles is one of the six central armed police forces (CAPFs) under the administrative control of Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). The unit can trace its lineage back to a paramilitary police force that was formed under the British in 1835 called Cachar Levy. The noted anthropologist Verrier Elwin once described Assam Rifles as “friends of the hill people”.

Answer 44

Internal security under the control of the army through the conduct of counter insurgency and border security operations. Provision of aid to the civilians in times of emergency Provision of communications, medical assistance and education in remote areas. In times of war they can also be used as a combat force to secure rear areas if needed. Since 2002, they are also guarding the 1,643 km long Indo-Myanmar border.

Answer 45

It is the only paramilitary force with a dual control structure. While the administrative control of the force is with the MHA, its operational control is with the Indian Army, which is under the MoD. This means that salaries and infrastructure for the force is provided by the MHA, but the deployment, posting, transfer and deputation of the personnel is decided by the Army.

Answer 46

The dual control structure has created two sets of demands from both within the Assam rifles and by MoD and MHA for singular control over the force by one ministry. A large section within the force wants to be under the administrative control of the MoD, as that would mean better perks and retirement benefits which are far higher compared to CAPFs under MHA.

Answer 47

MHA’s arguments: MHA has argued that all the border guarding forces are under the operational control of the ministry and so Assam Rifles coming under MHA will give border guarding a comprehensive and integrated approach. Army’s arguments: The Assam Rifles has worked well in coordination with the Army and frees up the armed forces from many of its responsibilities to focus on its core strengths. Besides, Assam Rifles was always a military force and not a police force and has been built like that. Therefore, giving the control of the force to MHA or merging it with any other CAPF will confuse the force and jeopardise national security.

Answer 48

A call on central security to private individuals is taken by the Home Ministry based on inputs from intelligence agencies. There are six kinds of central security covers: X, Y, Y plus, Z, Z plus and SPG. While the Special Protection Group protects only the Prime Minister, the other categories can be provided to anyone based on the Centre’s assessment. Why in News? Kangana Ranaut has been given Y-plus category security.

Answer 49

The Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development was instituted in the memory of the former prime minister by a trust in her name in 1986. It consists of a monetary award of Rs 25 lakh along with a citation Eligibility: The award is given to individuals or organisations who work towards ensuring international peace and development, ensuring that scientific discoveries are used to further the scope of freedom and better humanity, and creating new international economic order. Why in News? Noted broadcaster Sir David Attenborough to be presented with Indira Gandhi peace prize 2019.

Answer 50

August rainfall this year has been the highest since 1926 with 32.7 cm — or about 27% more than what is normal for the month — according to data from the India Meteorological Department (IMD). In August 1926, the rainfall recorded was 34.8 cm.

Answer 51

Inaugurated in 2018, it is constructed across Gurupriya river in Odisha. It connecta 151 villages (Balimela reservoir) under the Chitrakonda block to the mainland in Malkangiri district. The region that was once identified as the cut-off area is now known as swabhiman anchal. Why in News? Odisha’s maoist hotbed ‘Swabhiman Anchal’ gets mobile connectivity.

Answer 52

What? DekhoApnaDesh Webinar Series is an effort to showcase India’s rich diversity under Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat programme. About Punjab: Punjab is called as ‘the land of Five Waters’ referring to the rivers Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Sutlej, and Beas. Much of the Frontier was occupied by Maharaja Ranjit Singh also known as Sher-e-Punjab in the early 19th century, and then taken over by the East India Company when it annexed the Punjab in 1849.

Answer 53

Teej, Lohri, Basant Panchami, Baisakhi and Hola Mahalla.

Answer 54

It is a major pilgrimage destination for devotees from around the world. Construction of the AmritSarovar (pool of nectar) was initiated by Guru Amar Das, the third Guru, in 1570 and was completed by Guru Ram Das, the fourth Guru. In step with Sikhism’s basic tenet of universal brotherhood and all-inclusive ethos, the Golden Temple can be accessed from all directions.

Answer 55

City of Fatehgarh Sahib: The word “Fatehgarh”, means “Town of Victory”, and is so called because in 1710, Sikhs under the leadership of Baba Banda Singh Bahadur conquered the area and destroyed the mughal fort. Banda Singh Bahadur announced the establishment of Sikh rule in the city and an end to the tyranny of the Mughal rule which had spread terror and injustice. Virasat-e- Khalsa Museum: It is an architectural marvel commemorating the 550-years of culture and tradition of Punjab and Sikhism and the Partition Museum-world’s first museum on the largest human migration.

Answer 56

Why in News? Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) has stated that: All the Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) in Haryana have been certified Open Defecation Free (ODF), 21 ULBs ODF+ and 13 ODF++. All cities in Punjab have been certified ODF, 33 are ODF+ and 17 are ODF++. Chandigarh is certified ODF++ and 3 Star (GFC).

Answer 57

The original ODF protocol, issued in March 2016, said, “A city/ward is notified as ODF city/ward if, at any point of the day, not a single person is found defecating in the open.”

Answer 58

ODF+ and ODF++ were launched in August 2018 to further scale up and sustain the work undertaken by the cities after achieving the ODF status under Phase I of the Swachh Bharat Mission — Urban (SBM-Urban). Eligibility: Cities that had been certified ODF at least once, on the basis of the ODF protocols, are eligible to declare themselves as SBM-ODF+ & SBM-ODF++. What is ODF+? A city, ward or work circle could be declared ODF+ if, “at any point of the day, not a single person is found defecating and/or urinating in the open, and all community and public toilets are functional and well-maintained.” What is ODF++? The ODF++ protocol adds the condition that “faecal sludge/septage and sewage is safely managed and treated, with no discharging and/or dumping of untreated faecal sludge/septage and sewage in drains, water bodies or open areas.”

Answer 59

Why in News? The Congress parliamentary strategy group has decided to work with the Opposition parties to field a joint candidate for the election of Rajya Sabha deputy chairman’s post. The post had fallen vacant after Harivansh Narayan Singh’s term ended. He has since been re-elected to the Upper House as a member from Bihar.

Answer 60

It is a constitutional position created under Article 89 of the Constitution, which specifies that Rajya Sabha shall choose one of its MPs to be the Deputy Chairman as often as the position becomes vacant.

Answer 61

The Deputy Chairman is elected by the Rajya Sabha itself from amongst its members. Whenever the office of the Deputy Chairman falls vacant, the Rajya Sabha elects another member to fill the vacancy.

Answer 62

if he ceases to be a member of the Rajya Sabha; if he resigns by writing to the Chairman; if he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the Rajya Sabha. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days’ advance notice.

Answer 63

The Deputy Chairman performs the duties of the Chairman’s office when it is vacant or when the Vice-President acts as President or discharges the functions of the President. He also acts as the Chairman when the latter is absent from the sitting of the House. In both the cases, he has all the powers of the Chairman. The Deputy Chairman also plays a critical role in ensuring the smooth running of the House.

Answer 64

The Deputy Chairman is not subordinate to the Chairman. He is directly responsible to the Rajya Sabha. The Deputy Chairman is entitled to a regular salary and allowance which are fixed by Parliament and are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

Answer 65

For electing the Deputy Chair any Rajya Sabha MP can submit a motion proposing the name of a colleague for this constitutional position. The motion has to be seconded by another MP. Additionally, the member moving the motion has to submit a declaration signed by the MP whose name s/he is proposing stating that the MP is willing to serve as the Deputy Chairperson if elected. Each MP is allowed to move or second only one motion. Then the majority of the House decides who gets elected as the Deputy Chairperson. However, if the political parties arrive at a consensus candidate, then that MP will be unanimously elected as the Deputy Chair.

Answer 66

The Chairman shall, from time to time, nominate from amongst the members of the Council a panel of not more than six Vice-Chairmen, any one of whom may preside over the Council in the absence of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman when so requested by the Chairman, or in his absence, by the Deputy Chairman. A Vice-Chairman nominated under sub-rule (1) shall hold office until a new panel of Vice-Chairmen is nominated.

Answer 67

Why in News? President Ram Nath Kovind has rejected a plea seeking disqualification of YSR Congress leader V Vijaisai Reddy as Rajya Sabha member on the grounds of holding ‘office of profit’ as special representative of the Andhra Pradesh government in the national capital. The order of the president is based on the Election Commission’s unanimous opinion given in June.

Answer 68

A petition was filed seeking disqualification of Vijaysai Reddy as a member of the Upper House of Parliament alleging that the post of special representative of the Andhra Pradesh government at the Andhra Pradesh Bhawan being held by the YSR Congress Party MP was an office of profit. However, the EC had held that since no pecuniary gain was derived from the said office and Reddy was not entitled to any other perks or remuneration other than enjoying the status of a ‘state guest’ during his travels to Andhra Pradesh in connection with performance of his duties as special representative, he did not incur disqualification under Article 102(1) (a) of the Constitution of India”.

Answer 69

Basic disqualification criteria for an MP are laid down in Article 102 of the Constitution, and for an MLA in Article 191. They can be disqualified for: a) Holding an office of profit under government of India or state government; b) Being of unsound mind; c) Being an undischarged insolvent; d) Not being an Indian citizen or for acquiring citizenship of another country.

Answer 70

If an MLA or an MP holds a government office and receives benefits from it, then that office is termed as an “office of profit”. A person will be disqualified if he holds an office of profit under the central or state government, other than an office declared not to disqualify its holder by a law passed by Parliament or state legislature.

Answer 71

Makers of the Constitution wanted that legislators should not feel obligated to the Executive in any way, which could influence them while discharging legislative functions. In other words, an MP or MLA should be free to carry out her duties without any kind of governmental pressure. The intent is that there should be no conflict between the duties and interests of an elected member. The office of profit law simply seeks to enforce a basic feature of the Constitution- the principle of separation of power between the legislature and the executive.

Answer 72

The expression “office of profit” has not been defined in the Constitution or in the Representation of the People Act, 1951. It is for the courts to explain the significance and meaning of this concept. Over the years, courts have decided this issue in the context of specific factual situations. But, articles 102 (1) and 191(1) which give effect to the concept of office of profit prescribe restrictions at the central and state level on lawmakers accepting government positions.

Answer 73

The Supreme Court in Pradyut Bordoloi vs Swapan Roy (2001) outlined the four broad principles for determining whether an office attracts the constitutional disqualification. First, whether the government exercises control over appointment, removal and performance of the functions of the office Second, whether the office has any remuneration attached to it Third, whether the body in which the office is held has government powers (releasing money, allotment of land, granting licenses etc.). Fourth, whether the office enables the holder to influence by way of patronage.

Answer 74

Published by? National Statistical Organisation (NSO). The report is based on the 75th round of the National Sample Survey (July 2017-June 2018) on household social consumption related to health. Key findings in the latest report: Across the country, only 59.2% of children under five years are fully immunised. Roughly, two out of five children do not complete their immunisation programme. About 97% of children across the country received at least one vaccination — mostly BCG and/or the first dose of OPV at birth. However, only 67% of children are protected against measles. Only 58% got their polio booster dose, while 54% got their DPT booster dose. Among States, Manipur (75%), Andhra Pradesh (73.6%) and Mizoram (73.4%) recorded the highest rates of full immunisation. In Nagaland, only 12% of children received all vaccinations, followed by Puducherry (34%) and Tripura (39.6%).

Answer 75

Immunization is the process whereby a person is made immune or resistant to an infectious disease, typically by the administration of a vaccine. Vaccines stimulate the body’s own immune system to protect the person against subsequent infection or disease.

Answer 76

Full immunisation means that a child receives a cocktail of eight vaccine doses in the first year of life.

Answer 77

Currently, India accounts for 5 lakh deaths due to vaccine-preventable diseases, which is more than half of the total estimated infants’ deaths annually. In India, diseases such as measles-rubella, diarrhoea, pneumonia and the like cause most of the infant deaths every year. Latest reports by the World Health Organization reveal that a total of 1.5 million deaths could be avoided globally if there is an improvement in the global vaccination coverage.

Answer 78

What? First World Solar Technology Summit (WSTS) was organized on 8th September, 2020. By? The Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI), as the convenor of ISA Global Leadership Task Force on Innovation, worked with the International Solar Alliance (ISA) in organizing the summit. The conference saw ISA signing four agreements, signalling its intent to focus on key areas of the solar energy sector. A partnership agreement between the Union Ministry of Renewable Energy, the World Bank and ISA on One World, One Sun, One Grid. A partnership between the Global Green Growth Institute and ISA on the promotion of a million solar pumps. A Memorandum of Understanding with the International Institute for Refrigeration, Paris and ISA. Partnership agreements on the implementation of 47 projects between ISA and NTPC. ISA also launched its technology journal, Solar Compass 360.

Answer 79

It is an Indian initiative, which was launched jointly by Prime Minister of India Mr. Narendra Modi and H.E. François Hollande, President of France on 30 November 2015 in Paris, France on the side-lines of the 21st Conference of Parties (CoP 21) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change. The ISA Assembly is the main decision-making body of the alliance and it decides on various administrative, financial and program-related issues.

Answer 80

As an action-oriented organisation, the ISA brings together countries with rich solar potential to aggregate global demand, thereby reducing prices through bulk purchase, facilitating the deployment of existing solar technologies at scale, and promoting collaborative solar R&D and capacity building.

Answer 81

When the ISA Framework Agreement entered into force on December 6th, 2017, ISA formally became a de-jure treaty based International Intergovernmental Organization, headquartered at Gurugram, India.

Answer 82

All members of the United Nations can join the International Solar Alliance (ISA) under the recently amended ISA Framework Agreement. As on 30 July 2020, 87 Countries have signed the Framework Agreement of the ISA and of these 67 have deposited their instruments of ratification.

Answer 83

It has set a target of 1TW of solar energy by 2030.

Answer 84

India has a target of installing 100 GW and 300 GW of solar by 2022 and 2030 respectively.

Answer 85

Why in News? Cabinet approves asset monetization of subsidiaries of Power Grid Corporation of India limited through infrastructure investment trust. This is the first time any PSU in Power Sector will undertake asset recycling by monetising its assets through the InvIT model and using the proceeds to fund the new and under-construction capital projects. What is InvIT model? It is a Collective Investment Scheme similar to a mutual fund, which enables direct investment of money from individual and institutional investors in infrastructure projects to earn a small portion of the income as return. The InvITs are regulated by the SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014.

Answer 86

It is a public limited company under the administrative control of the Ministry of Power, Government of India. It started its commercial operation in the year 1992-93 and is today, a Maharatna company, engaged in the business of power transmission.

Answer 87

The iconic gate has been built by the Patrika Group of Newspapers. It is built as a monument under Mission Anupam of the Jaipur Development Authority at Jawaharlal Nehru Marg. It depicts the cultural and artistic heritage of different regions of Rajasthan.

Answer 88

International Literacy Day (ILD) is celebrated on 8th September every year all over the world. The celebration of ILD started following a recommendation of the World Conference of Ministers of Education on the Eradication of Illiteracy which met in Tehran in September 1965. UNESCO in 14th Session of its General Conference held in Paris in November 1966, formally proclaimed 8th September as International Literacy Day. Theme for 2020: “Literacy teaching and learning in the COVID-19 crisis and beyond.” National Statistical Office (NSO) has released the data for 2017-18 on state-wise literacy rate in the country for all aged 7 or above. As per NSO: India’s average literacy rate is 77.7%. Andhra Pradesh’s literacy rate of 66.4% is the worst among all states in India and significantly lower than Bihar’s 70.9%. Kerala has the best literacy rate with 96.2%. Delhi stood second with 88.7%. More impressively, the gap between male and female literacy is the smallest in Kerala at just 2.2 percentage points. This gap is 14.4 percentage points at all-India level with male literacy at 84.7% and female literacy at 70.3%. The gap between urban and rural literacy rates is of the same order of magnitude as that between males and females. Once again, Kerala has the lowest gap of 1.9 percentage points.

Answer 89

It is an illegal software used for cornering confirmed Railway reservation. This commonly banned software makes the complete process of Indian Rail ticket booking at a fly speed. Why in News? In a nation wide investigation, the Railway Protection Force has disrupted the operation of this illegal software.

Answer 90

It was constituted by the Government of India in 1986 under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985. It is the apex coordinating agency under the Ministry of Home Affairs. The National Policy on Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances is based on Article 47 of the Indian Constitution which directs the State to endeavour to bring about prohibition of the consumption, except for medicinal purposes, of intoxicating drugs injurious to health. Drug abuse control is the responsibility of the central government.

Answer 91

Mahalingam has been appointed Honorary Consul of the Grand Duchy of Luxembourg in Chennai, with consular jurisdiction over Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Who are Honorary Consuls? Honorary consuls are private individuals who take care of their tasks on a part-time basis without remuneration. Honorary consuls do not accept passport applications nor do they handle matters pertaining to visas or residence permits. Honorary consuls cannot serve as attorneys in judicial proceedings or as legal advisers. Together with diplomatic missions, an honorary consul promotes economic and cultural relations.

Answer 92

Context: 133rd Birth Anniversary observed on 10th September. About Govind Ballabh Pant: Pant was born on 10 September 1887 in what is now Uttarakhand, at Almora. In Kashipur, he established an organisation called Prem Sabha that started working towards several reforms. He also saved a school from shutting down due to non-payment of taxes to the British government.

Answer 93

Before independence: In December 1921, he was elected to the Legislative Assembly of the United Provinces of Agra and Oudh, which he later renamed Uttar Pradesh. He was elected as a candidate of the Swaraj Party from Nainital. In the 1937 provincial elections held under the Government of India Act, 1935, Pant was appointed premier. He served the post till 1939, when all Congress ministers resigned after the British committed India to the Second World War of its own accord. In the United Provinces election held in 1946, Pant was once again appointed the premier. After independence: First chief minister of Uttar Pradesh. He served as India’s home minister from 1955 to 1961. It was during his tenure that states were reorganised on linguistic lines.

Answer 94

During his tenure, he raised several important issues like the need to abolish the zamindari system and championed the cause of forest preservation. He also worked to protect farmers from excessive rents levied by the British government. He encouraged many cottage industries in the country and raised his voice against the coolie-beggar law, which forced porters to transport the heavy luggage of British officials without any payment. Following Gandhi’s footsteps, Pant also organised a massive salt movement in the United Provinces. In May 1930, he was arrested and held at Dehradun jail. He also protested against the Simon Commission. Pant was always against a separate electorate for minorities, saying the step would further divide communities.

Answer 95

In 1957, Pant was awarded India’s highest civilian award, the Bharat Ratna.

Answer 96

Context: Congress has renewed its campaign seeking the Deputy Speaker’s position in the Lok Sabha. The Lok Sabha has not had a Deputy Speaker for the last 15 months. Instead, a panel of MPs has been assisting the Speaker. About Deputy Speaker: Article 93 of the Constitution provides for the election of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker. The constitutional office of the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is more symbolic of parliamentary democracy than some real authority. There is no need to resign from their original party though as a Deputy Speaker, they have to remain impartial.

Answer 97

They act as the presiding officer in case of leave or absence caused by death or illness of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Answer 98

Usually, the Deputy Speaker is elected in the first meeting of the Lok Sabha after the General elections from amongst the members of the Lok Sabha. It is by convention that position of Deputy Speaker is offered to opposition party in India.

Answer 99

They hold office until either they cease to be a member of the Lok Sabha or they resign. They can be removed from office by a resolution passed in the Lok Sabha by an effective majority of its members.

Answer 100

Context: The Supreme Court had sought the amicus report on pending cases against legislators on the basis of a petition. The report was recently filed by the apex court’s amicus curiae and senior advocate Vijay Hansaria.

Answer 101

There are a total 4,442 cases pending against legislators across the country. Of this, the number of cases against sitting Members of Parliament and members of State legislatures was 2,556. The cases were pending in various special courts exclusively set up to try criminal cases registered against politicians. The cases against the legislators include that of corruption, money laundering, damage to public property, defamation and cheating. A large number of cases were for violation of Section 188 IPC for wilful disobedience and obstruction of orders promulgated by public servants. There are 413 cases in respect of offences, which are punishable with imprisonment for life, out of which in 174 cases sitting MPs/ MLAs are accused. A large number of cases were pending at the appearance stage and even non-bailable warrants (NBWs) issued by courts have not been executed. Highest number of cases are pending in Uttar Pradesh.

Answer 102

Currently, under the Representation of Peoples (RP) Act, lawmakers cannot contest elections only after their conviction in a criminal case. Section 8 of the Representation of the People (RP) Act, 1951 disqualifies a person convicted with a sentence of two years or more from contesting elections. But those under trial continued to be eligible to contest elections.

Answer 103

Corruption Vote bank. Lack of governance.

Answer 104

Political parties should themselves refuse tickets to the tainted. The RP Act should be amended to debar persons against whom cases of a heinous nature are pending from contesting elections. Fast-track courtsshould decide the cases of tainted legislators quickly. Bring greater transparency in campaign financing. The Election Commission of India (ECI) should have the power to audit the financial accounts of political parties.

Answer 105

Context: The Supreme Court has agreed to examine a petition seeking “legal entity” status to the entire animal kingdom. What’s the demand? The demand is to give animals a “legal personality”. This means bestowing on animals, by judicial direction, the capacity to sue and be sued in courts of law. This mainly stems from SC’s interpretation of the right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution, with the effect the word “life” includes “all forms of life, including animal life, which are necessary for human life.”

Answer 106

While referring to recent reported incidents of cruelty on animals in the country, the plea has said that such incidents have enraged many and raised a question as to whether existing laws are sufficient enough to protect animals from possible abuse and cruelty. It alleged the rights of animals exist only on paper due to their lack of implementation and enforcement. Besides, the plea said that legal status has been accorded to animals in two recent verdicts rendered by the Punjab and Haryana High Court and the Uttarakhand High Court.

Answer 107

The Court has issued notices to the Centre and others seeking their replies on the petition.

Answer 108

A legal entity means entity which acts like a natural person but only through a designated person, whose acts are processed within the ambit of law.

Answer 109

In 2018, a bench presided over by justice Sharma had accorded the status of “legal person or entity” to animals in Haryana. In Uttarakhand high court, justice Sharma was part of a bench in 2017, which declared the Ganga and Yamuna as living entities, a verdict that was later stayed by the Supreme Court. In 2018, Uttarakhand high court declared the entire animal kingdom, including birds and aquatic animals, as a legal entity. In June 2019, the Punjab and Haryana High Court had ruled that all animals, birds and aquatic life in Haryana would be accorded the status of legal persons or entities.

Answer 110

Why in News? With the current Covid-19 situation, DAY-NRLM has designed an online training program to train all State Missions across the country on Village Poverty Reduction Plans (VPRP), in partnership with Kudumbashree (National Resource Organisation), National Institute of Rural Development & Panchayati Raj (NIRDPR), Hyderabad and Ministry of Panchayati Raj.

Answer 111

GPDP is conducted from 2nd October to 31st December, every year across the country, under the People’s Plan Campaign (PPC). Local bodies, across the country are expected to prepare context specific, need based GPDP. It brings together both the citizens and their elected representatives in the decentralized planning processes.

Answer 112

PPC guidelines and the joint advisory issued by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj and Ministry of Rural Development, has mandated Self Help Groups and their federations under Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM) to participate in the annual GPDP planning process and prepare the Village Poverty Reduction Plan (VPRP). VPRP is a comprehensive demand plan which needs to be integrated with the Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP). The VPRP is presented in the Gram Sabha meetings from Oct. to Dec. every year.

Answer 113

Social inclusion – plan for inclusion of vulnerable people/household into SHGs under NRLM Entitlement – demand for various schemes such as MGNREGS, SBM, NSAP, PMAY, Ujjwala, Ration card etc. Livelihoods – specific demand for enhancing livelihood through developing agriculture, animal husbandry, production and service enterprises and skilled training for placement etc. Public Goods and Services – demand for necessary basic infrastructure, for renovation of the existing infrastructure and for better service delivery Resource Development – demand for protection and development of natural resources like land, water, forest and other locally available resources Social Development – plans prepared for addressing specific social development issues of a village under the low cost no cost component of GPDP.

Answer 114

The Article 243G of the Constitution intended to empower the Gram Panchayats (GPs) by enabling the State Governments to devolve powers and authority in respect of all 29 Subjects listed in the Eleventh Schedule for local planning and implementation of schemes for economic development and social justice.

Answer 115

Key features of the scheme: It is a scheme for focused and sustainable development of fisheries sector in the country. 20,050 crores has been sanctioned for its implementation during a period of 5 years from FY 2020-21 to FY 2024-25 in all States/Union Territories, as a part of AatmaNirbhar Bharat Package. The scheme focuses on beneficiary-oriented activities in Marine, Inland fisheries and Aquaculture. It seeks to adopt ‘Cluster or Area based approaches’.

Answer 116

Enhance fish production by an additional 70 lakh tonne by 2024-25. Increase fisheries export earnings to Rs.1,00,000 crore by 2024-25. Double incomes of fishers and fish farmers. Reduce post-harvest losses from 20-25% to about 10%. Generate additional 55 lakhs direct and indirect gainful employment opportunities in fisheries sector and allied activities.

Answer 117

While aiming to consolidate the achievements of Blue Revolution Scheme, PMMSY envisages many new interventions such as fishing vessel insurance, support for new/up-gradation of fishing vessels/boats, Bio-toilets, Aquaculture in saline/alkaline areas, Sagar Mitras, FFPOs/Cs, Nucleus Breeding Centres, Fisheries and Aquaculture start-ups, Incubators, etc.

Answer 118

Establishment of Fish Brood Bank at Sitamarhi. Aquatic Disease Referral Laboratory at Kishanganj. One-unit fish feed mill at Madhepura and two units of ‘Fish on Wheels’ assisted at Patna under Blue Revolution. Comprehensive Fish Production Technology Centre at Dr. Rajendra Prasad Central Agricultural University, Pusa, Bihar.

Answer 119

Why in News? PM recently inaugurated the following under Rashtriya Gokul Mission: Semen Station with state of the art facilities in Purnea, Bihar. IVF lab established at Animal Sciences University, Patna. Sex sorted semen in artificial insemination by Baroni Milk Union in Begusarai district of Bihar.

Answer 120

To conserve and develop indigenous bovine breeds, government launched ‘Rashtriya Gokul Mission’ in 2014 under the National Programme for Bovine Breeding and Dairy Development (NPBBD). What are the main objectives of the mission? developmentt and conservation of indigenous breeds. undertake breed improvement programme for indigenous cattle breeds so as to improve the genetic makeup and increase the stock. enhance milk production and productivity. upgrade nondescript cattle using elite indigenous breeds like Gir, Sahiwal, Rathi, Deoni, Tharparkar, Red Sindhi. distribute disease free high genetic merit bulls for natural service.

Answer 121

Implemented through the “State Implementing Agency (SIA viz Livestock Development Boards). State Gauseva Ayogs will be given the mandate to sponsor proposals to the SIA’s (LDB’s) and monitor implementation of the sponsored proposal. All Agencies having a role in indigenous cattle development will be the “Participating Agencies” like CFSPTI, CCBFs, ICAR, Universities, Colleges, NGO’s, Cooperative Societies and Gaushalas with best germplasm.

Answer 122

Funds under the scheme will be allocated for the establishment of Integrated Indigenous Cattle Centres viz “Gokul Gram”. Where they can be established? Gokul Grams will be established in: i) the native breeding tracts and ii) near metropolitan cities for housing the urban cattle.

Answer 123

Act as Centres for development of Indigenous Breeds and a dependable source for supply of high genetic breeding stock to the farmers in the breeding tract. They will be self sustaining and will generate economic resources from sale of A2 milk (A2 milkis cow’s milk that mostly lacks a form of β-casein proteins called A1 and instead has mostly the A2 form), organic manure, vermi-composting, urine distillates, and production of electricity from bio gas for in house consumption and sale of animal products. They will also function as state of the art in situ training centre for Farmers, Breeders and MAITRI’s. The Gokul Gram will maintain milch and unproductive animals in the ratio of 60:40 and will have the capacity to maintain about 1000 animals. Nutritional requirements of the animals will be provided in the Gokul Gram through in house fodder production. Metropolitan Gokul Gram will focus on genetic upgradation of urban cattle.

Answer 124

Launched by? Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), NITI Aayog. Aim: To spur applied research and innovation in Indian MSMEs and startups. Who will implement? The programme will be driven by Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO), four ministries—Ministry of Defence; Ministry of Food Processing Industries; Ministry of Health and Family Welfare; and Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs—and associated industries to facilitate innovative solutions to sectoral problems.

Answer 125

It will support deserving applied research–based innovations by providing funding support of up to Rs 50 lakh for speedy development of the proposed technology solution and/or product.

Answer 126

Context: Inaugural run of the train flagged off. Key facts: Location: It runs between Anantapur (Andhra Pradesh) and New Delhi. Kisan Rail will help in strengthening the agricultural economy and help in the speedy transportation of farm produce to distant places. On 7th August, the first Kisan Rail was flagged off between Devlali in Maharashtra and Danapur in Bihar.

Answer 127

The Indian Air Force will formally induct the Rafale aircraft on 10th September 2020. The aircraft will be part of 17 Squadron, the “Golden Arrows”. The first five Indian Air Force Rafale aircraft arrived at Air Force Station, Ambala from France on 27th July 2020. Key facts: Rafale is a French twin-engine and multirole fighter aircraft designed and built by Dassault Aviation being produced for both the French Air Force and for carrier-based operations in the French Navy. India has inked a Rs 59,000-crore deal in 2016 to procure 36 Rafale jets from French aerospace major Dassault Aviation. India is the fourth country to have the strategic platform with Rafale after France, Egypt and Qatar.

Answer 128

Ministry of Education organizes a webinar on Inclusive and Equitable Education under Shikshak Parv Initiative. It is being celebrated from 8th September- 25th September, 2020 to felicitate the Teachers and to take New Education Policy 2020 forward.

Answer 129

It is a student – scientist connect programme launched in 2017. The programme would be implemented by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) in collaboration with Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS). The focus of this scheme is on connecting school students and scientists so as to extend student’s classroom learning with well planned research laboratory based learning.

Answer 130

The 73rd session is being hosted by the Government of Thailand (from Bangkok) while the previous session was held in New Delhi. South East Asia is One of the six WHO Regions. The Region has 11 Member States – Bangladesh, Bhutan, Democratic People’s Republic of Korea, India, Indonesia, Maldives, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Timor-Leste.

Answer 131

The findings are based on 75th round of the National Sample Survey, conducted between June 2017 and July 2018. The households were surveyed on consumption related to education. Key findings: One in five students in India supplements school education with private coaching, including almost one in three at the secondary school level or Classes 9 and 10. More than 52% of urban upper caste boys take coaching, in comparison to just 13.7% of rural boys and girls from scheduled tribe communities. Private coaching fees make up almost 20% of the total cost of education for those in secondary and higher secondary school. Some States in eastern India seem to spend more on private coaching than the rest of the country.

Answer 132

Context: A report to the Indian Council for Historical Research (ICHR) has suggested dropping the Communist martyrs of Punnapra-Vayalar, Karivelloor and Kavumbayi agitations from the list of martyrs of India’s Independence struggle. The reason: ICHR says, these Communist agitations cannot be counted as the part of the Independence movement as they took place after the interim government led by Jawaharlal Nehru assumed office. These riots were basically against the interim government.

Answer 133

It was an organized working class uprising in the Princely State of Travancore, British India against the Prime Minister, C. P. Ramaswami Iyer and the state.

Answer 134

To overthrow the exploitative diwan of Travancore. To liberate the working class from unjust taxation and exploitation of the establishment.

Answer 135

(a) It was an unique agitation where the working class rose against government. (b) It saw the people of all classes up in arms against a common tyrant hence it dissolved class and religion distinction and induced unity among people. (c) It resulted in establishing democracy in the region and also gave a decisive turn to the politics of the state.

Answer 136

Historianss maintain this was a proper struggle against the declaration of ‘Independent Travancore’ by the then Travancore. T K Varghese Vaidyan, a leader of the struggle, had gone on record saying it was a rehearsal for a larger revolution with the ultimate objective of establishing a “Communist India”.

Answer 137

Context; 127th anniversary of Swami Vivekananda’s in Chicago. Details: The Parliament of World’s Religions, held for the first time in 1893, from September 11 to September 27, saw eminent personalities from around the world at the same forum. Swami Vivekananda addressed the audience first on September 11 followed by the closing speech on September 27. He stressed upon world harmony, and how religions, while co-existing with one another, must preserve his individuality and grow according to his own law of growth.

Answer 138

There have been several meetings referred to as a Parliament of the World’s Religions, the first being the World’s Parliament of Religions of 1893, which was an attempt to create a global dialogue of faiths. The event was celebrated by another conference on its centenary in 1993. So far, six international modern Parliaments have been hosted. An organization was incorporated in 1988 to carry out the tradition of the Parliament of the World’s Religions by marking the centennial of the first Parliament. The Council for a Parliament of the World’s Religions is headquartered in Chicago. Its board of trustees are elected from various faith communities.

Answer 139

Jain preacher Virchand Gandhi. Buddhist preacher Anagarika Dharmapala. Soyen Shaku, the “First American Ancestor” of Zen. Swami Vivekananda represented Hinduism. Christianity was represented by G. Bonet Maury. Islam was represented by Mohammed Alexander Russell Webb. Theism or the Brahmo Samaj was represented by Pratap Chandra Majumdar. The Theosophical Society was represented by the Vice-President of the society, William Quan Judge and by activist Annie Besant.

Answer 140

Who was Viswanatha Satyanarayana? He is the first writer to impart a true Teluguness to the Ramayana. Ramayana Kalpavruksham, the seminal work of Shri Viswanatha had fetched him the prestigious Jnanpith Award. Through his works, he had highlighted the importance of imparting learning in the mother tongue, preserving culture and protecting the nature. Viswanatha’s literary canvas was large comprising novels, critical works, poems, epics, plays, songs and verses, among others.

Answer 141

Why in News? This week, the Houses in Maharashtra moved motions of breach of privilege against Arnab Goswami and Kangana Ranaut. What are privileges? Parliamentary privilege refers to the right and immunity enjoyed by legislatures, in which legislators are granted protection against civil or criminal liability for actions done or statements made in the course of their legislative duties.

Answer 142

The powers, privileges and immunities of either House of the Indian Parliament and of its Members and committees are laid down in Article 105 of the Constitution. Article 194 deals with the powers, privileges and immunities of the State Legislatures, their Members and their committees.

Answer 143

There are no clear, notified rules to decide what constitutes a breach of privilege, and the punishment it attracts. Generally, any act that obstructs or impedes either House of the state legislature in performing its functions, or which obstructs or impedes any Member or officer of such House in the discharge of his duty, or has a tendency, directly or indirectly, to produce such results is treated as breach of privilege. It is a breach of privilege and contempt of the House to make speeches or to print or publish libel reflecting on the character or proceedings of the House, or its Committees, or on any member of the House for or relating to his character or conduct as a legislator.

Answer 144

The Legislative Assembly Speaker or Legislative Council Chairman constitutes a Privileges Committee consisting of 15 members in the Assembly and 11 members in the Council. The members to the committee are nominated based on the party strength in the Houses. Speaker or Chairman first decides on the motions. If the privilege and contempt are found prima facie, then the Speaker or Chairman will forward it to the Privileges Committee by following the due procedure. The Committee will examine whether statements made by him had insulted the state legislature and its Members, and whether their image was maligned before the public. The Committee, which has quasi-judicial powers, will seek an explanation from all the concerned, will conduct an inquiry and will make a recommendation based on the findings to the state legislature for its consideration.

Answer 145

If the Committee finds the offender guilty of breach of privilege and contempt, it can recommend the punishment. The punishment can include communicating the displeasure of the state legislature to the offender, summoning the offender before the House and giving a warning, and even sending the offender to jail. In the case of the media, press facilities of the state legislature may be withdrawn, and a public apology may be sought.

Answer 146

The Department of Posts has launched a scheme called Five Star Villages, to ensure universal coverage of flagship postal schemes in rural areas of the country. The scheme is being launched on pilot basis in Maharashtra. The schemes covered under the Five Star scheme include: Savings Bank accounts, Recurrent Deposit Accounts, NSC / KVP certificates. Sukanya Samridhi Accounts/ PPF Accounts. Funded Post Office Savings Account linked India Post Payments Bank Accounts. Postal Life Insurance Policy/Rural Postal Life Insurance Policy. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana Account / Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana Account.

Answer 147

If a village attains universal coverage for four schemes from the above list, then that village gets four-star status; if a village completes three schemes, then that village get three-star status and so on.

Answer 148

The scheme will be implemented by a team of five Gramin Dak Sevaks who will be assigned a village for marketing of all products, savings and insurance schemes of the Department of Posts. This team will be headed by the Branch Post Master of the concerned Branch Office. Mail overseer will keep personal watch on progress of team on daily basis. The teams will be led and monitored by concerned Divisional Head, Assistant Superintendents Posts and Inspector Posts.

Answer 149

‘SAROD-Ports’ stands for Society for Affordable Redressal of Disputes – Ports. Launched by the Union Shipping Ministry. It is Affordable Dispute Redressal Mechanism for all kind of disputes of maritime sector. SAROD-Ports is established under Societies Registration Act, 1860 with the following objectives: Affordable and timely resolution of disputes in fair manner. Enrichment of Dispute Resolution Mechanism with the panel of technical experts as arbitrators.

Answer 150

SAROD-Ports consists members from Indian Ports Association (IPA) and Indian Private Ports and Terminals Association (IPTTA).

Answer 151

Context: The BJP has become the first mainstream political party from India to have named itself as a foreign principal of an organisation in the United States, after the Overseas Friends of the BJP (OFBJP) registered under the 1938 Foreign Agents Registration Act (FARA) under the U.S. Department of Justice.

Answer 152

Following the registration, the OFBJP will have to declare any meetings with U.S. legislators, organisation of events and funding from U.S. groups. It will also not be possible for OFBJP members to use organisational help during the U.S. elections as it would then be seen as foreign interference.

Answer 153

The law came into force in 1938 to combat the spread of fascist propaganda into the United States. It requires foreign agents to register with the Justice Department and disclose their activities to the public. The also requires “agents representing the interests of foreign powers in a political or quasi political capacity [to]disclose their relationship with the foreign government and information about related finances.”

Answer 154

FARA is an important tool to identify foreign influence in the United States and address threats to national security. The central purpose of FARA is to promote transparency with respect to foreign influence within the United States by ensuring that the US government and the public know the source of certain information from foreign agents intended to influence American public opinion, policy and laws, thereby facilitating informed evaluation of that information.

Answer 155

“Willful violation” of the law is punishable with up to five years in jail and or a maximum fine of $250,000, or both. The punishment for certain lesser violations is a jail term of no more than six months or a fine of $5,000, or both.

Answer 156

Context: Recently, the EASE (Enhanced Access and Service Excellence) 2.0 Banking Reforms Index on performance of Public Sector Banks (PSB) from March 2018-2020 was released and best performing banks on EASE were felicitated.

Answer 157

It was launched in January 2018 jointly by the government and PSBs. It was commissioned through Indian Banks’ Association and authored by Boston Consulting Group. EASE Agenda is aimed at institutionalizing CLEAN and SMART banking. The Index measures performance of each PSB on 120+ objective metrics.

Answer 158

EASE 2.0 builds on the foundation of EASE 1.0 and introduces new reform Action Points across six themes to make reforms journey irreversible, strengthen processes and systems, and drive outcomes.

Answer 159

Responsible Banking. Customer Responsiveness. Credit Off-take. PSBs as UdyamiMitra (SIDBI portal for credit management of MSMEs). Financial Inclusion & Digitalisation. Governance and HR.

Answer 160

The Public Sector Banks (PSBs) have shown a healthy trajectory as their overall score increased by 37% between March-2019 and March-2020. The PSBs have adopted tech-enabled, smart banking in all areas, setting up retail and MSME Loan Management Systems for reduced loan turn-around time and PSBloansin59minutes.com and TReDS for digital lending. The Bank of Baroda, State Bank of India, and erstwhile Oriental Bank of Commerce were felicitated for being the top three in the ‘Top Performing Banks’ category. The Bank of Maharashtra, Central Bank of India & erstwhile Corporation Bank were awarded in the ‘Top Improvers’ category.

Answer 161

Context: The government has allowed Sudarshan News, a Hindi channel, to air a controversial programme that seeks to “expose” a “conspiracy to infiltrate Muslims” into the Indian civil services.

Answer 162

Information & Broadcasting (I&B) Ministry has said it cannot pre-censor a programme, or stop it from being telecast. It is because Indian broadcast rules do not permit pre-censorship of TV programmes and advertisements — that is banning them before they are aired — and only films and film trailers are pre-certified by the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC).

Answer 163

The Sudarshan News episode came to light after the channel released a promotional trailer, terming the alleged conspiracy “bureaucracy jihad” and “UPSC jihad”. The trailer at once elicited widespread criticism, with many alleging the content amounted to hate speech. The episode was also challenged in the Delhi High Court, which stayed its telecast. When Sudarshan News approached the court to vacate the stay, the latter asked the I&B Ministry to take a call.

Answer 164

Section 20 of the Cable TV Networks (Regulation) Act, 1995, states that the government can regulate or prohibit the transmission or retransmission of any programme that it feels is not in conformity with the Programme and Advertising Code, which oversees television content in India. However, since there is no body to pre-certify content for TV, potentially problematic programmes only come to notice once they have been aired. The Electronic Media Monitoring Centre (EMMC), under the I&B Ministry, monitors the content telecast on private TV channels to check if they adhere to the Programme and Advertising Code. Specific complaints on code violations are looked into by an inter-ministerial committee (IMC).

Answer 165

It is also the responsibility of the channel to ensure its programmes are not violative of the programme code, laid down in Rule 6 of the Cable TV Network Rules. Sub-section ‘c’ of Rule 6 specifically mentions that programmes that contain attacks on religions or communities or visuals or words contemptuous of religious groups or which promote communal attitudes should not be carried in the cable service.

Answer 166

It is a letter of introduction or recommendation, especially of an ambassador. Why in News? President Ram Nath Kovind accepts letter of credence from Singapore’s High Commissioner to India.

Answer 167

India and Japan sign agreement on Reciprocal Provision of Supplies and Services between Forces of both countries. This agreement establishes the enabling framework for closer cooperation between the two Forces in reciprocal provision of supplies and services while engaged in bilateral training activities, United Nations Peacekeeping Operations, Humanitarian International Relief and other mutually agreed activities.

Answer 168

As part of the EASE Reforms, Doorstep Banking Services is envisaged to provide convenience of banking services to the customers at their door step through the universal touch points of Call Centre, Web Portal or Mobile App. Customers canalso track their service request through these channels. The services shall be rendered by the Doorstep Banking Agents deployed by the selected Service Providers at 100 centres across the country.

Answer 169

The Project is a special initiative of The New York Times Magazine, launched in 2019 to mark the completion of 400 years since the first enslaved Africans arrived in colonial Virginia’s Jamestown in August 1619. The edition examines how social structures that developed in the US as a consequence of slavery affect present-day laws, policies, systems and culture, and the contributions of Black people in America’s nation-building.

Answer 170

Why in News? Paresh Rawal, actor and former BJP MP, has been appointed Chairperson of the National School of Drama Society by President Ram Nath Kovind. Key facts: Set up by the Sangeet Natak Akademi as one of its constituent units in 1959. In 1975, it became an independent entity and was registered as an autonomous organization under the Societies Registration Act XXI of 1860, fully financed by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India. Bharat Rang Mahotsav, or the ‘National Theatre Festival’, established in 1999, is the annual theatre festival of National School of Drama (NSD), held in New Delhi, today it is acknowledged as the largest theatre festival of Asia, dedicated solely to theatre.

Answer 171

Context: Parliamentary Panel on Law and Justice has Submitted its report “Functioning of the Virtual Courts/ Courts Proceedings through Video-Conferencing”. This is the first report to be presented by any parliamentary panel on the impact of the pandemic. Key recommendations: Continue virtual courts even in a post-COVID scenario. Transfer of certain categories of cases, like cases pertaining to traffic challans or other petty offences, from regular court establishments to virtual courts will reduce the pendency of cases. Infrastructure needs to be upgraded especially in district courts to implement this. Ministry of Law and Justice and Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology should address data privacy and data security concerns while developing a new platform for India’s judicial system.

Answer 172

The present infrastructure does not support virtual court proceedings. Almost 50% lawyers, particularly in district courts, do not have any laptop or computer facility. Many witnesses have said the virtual court hearings, especially during peak hours when many people log into the video-conferencing system, was subject to frequent crashes of the system and said entire proceedings can be vitiated by one glitch. There were also concerns that virtual courts will compromise privacy of data as well as confidentiality of discussions and court proceedings (For instance, courts in the United States had to deal with Zoom bombing — an unwanted intrusion by hackers and internet trolls into a video conference call).

Answer 173

Virtual Court is a concept aimed at eliminating presence of litigant or lawyer in the court and adjudication of the case online. An e-court or Electronic Court means a location in which matters of law are adjudicated upon, in the presence of qualified Judge(s) and which has a well-developed technical infrastructure.

Answer 174

It was conceptualized on the basis of the “National Policy and Action Plan for Implementation of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in the Indian Judiciary – 2005” submitted by eCommittee, Supreme Court of India with a vision to transform the Indian Judiciary by ICT enablement of Courts. The eCourts Mission Mode Project, is a Pan-India Project, monitored and funded by Department of Justice, Ministry of Law and Justice, Government of India for the District Courts across the country. As on date, 16845 district and subordinate courts have been IT enabled.

Answer 175

To provide efficient & time-bound citizen centric services delivery as detailed in eCourt Project Litigant’s Charter. To develop, install & implement decision support systems in courts. To automate the processes to provide transparency in accessibility of information to its stakeholders. To enhance judicial productivity, both qualitatively & quantitatively, to make the justice delivery system affordable, accessible, cost effective, predictable, reliable and transparent.

Answer 176

Context: The Election Commission (EC) has decided to revise the timeline for political parties and candidates to publish details of the criminal antecedents of the nominees. As per the revised guidelines: The candidates as well as the political parties, regarding candidates nominated by them, will publish the details of criminal antecedents, if any, in newspapers and television in following manner: First publicity: Within first 4 days of last date of withdrawal. Second publicity: Within 5th to 8th day of last date of withdrawal Third publicity: From 9th day till the last day of campaign, i.e. two days prior to date of poll) This timeline will help the voters in exercising their choices in more informed manner.

Answer 177

Uncontested winner candidates as well as the political parties who nominate them shall also publicise the criminal antecedents, if any, as prescribed for other contesting candidates and political parties.

Answer 178

It will now mean that the declaration by candidates with criminal antecedents will have to spread over three rounds of publicity beginning with soon after filing nomination and ending towards the end of campaign period. EC felt in absence of detailed timelines, candidates had the option of clubbing publicity of such records.

Answer 179

The electoral reform related to publicity of criminal antecedents was set in motion by the Supreme Court (SC) in September, 2018 when it had asked political parties to publicize criminal antecedents of contestants in news media. Earlier this year, the SC had directed that political parties fielding candidates with criminal records must tell the public why they had chosen them over those with clean records along with detailed information about candidates with criminal cases pending against them, including the nature of the offences.

Answer 180

What’s the issue? The PM CARES Fund has received an exemption from all provisions of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act. However, it is alleged that PM CARES does not meet the precondition of being a body established and owned by the government whose accounts are audited by the Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG).

Answer 181

In July 2011, the Home Ministry issued an order exempting all bodies established by a Central or State Act which are required to have their accounts audited by the CAG. Earlier this year, on January 30, 2020, it issued a fresh order superseding the previous one, “to exempt organisations (not being a political party), constituted or established by or under a Central Act or a State Act or by any administrative or executive order of the Central Government or any State Government and wholly owned by the respective Government and required to have their accounts compulsorily audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) or any of the agencies of the CAG”.

Answer 182

It was not set up through a Central or State Act. It has argued that it is not a public authority under RTI. The Fund is audited by an independent auditor, not by the CAG.

Answer 183

The FCRA is meant to regulate the acceptance and use of foreign contributions and to prevent their use for activities detrimental to national interest. This includes gifts and monetary contributions from foreign sources, whether in Indian or foreign currency. Organisations which wish to receive foreign donations must have a definite cultural, economic, educational, religious or social programme, and must register under the Act, and receive a clearance from the government. Section 50 of the Act allows the Central government to issue orders exempting any organisation (apart from political parties) from the provisions of FCRA if it feels it necessary or expedient in public interest, subject to conditions specified in the order.

Answer 184

Context: Launched recently. Key points: Launched on pilot basis for Jammu, Srinagar, and Reasi districts. The system will replace the current portal launched by the government in 2018. This is the first UT that will be linked to the central government system—CPGRAMS.

Answer 185

Deputy Commissioners have been placed at the primary level for receiving, disposing of and monitoring grievances, the J&K administration. All SPs and DCs will be made available at designated times five days a week. They will be available in their offices and anyone can go and meet them.

Answer 186

The move comes at a time when a sense of disconnection and alienation has been growing among the people, especially in the Kashmir Valley, which has remained on edge ever since J&K’s special status was revoked last year.

Answer 187

Developed by National Informatics Centre (Ministry of Electronics & IT [MeitY]), in association with Directorate of Public Grievances (DPG) and Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG). The underlying idea was to receive, redress and monitor the grievances of the public. Launched by the Department of Administrative Reforms & Public Grievances (DARPG) under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions.

Answer 188

The CPGRAMS provides the facility to lodge a grievance online from any geographical location. It enables the citizen to track online the grievance being followed up with Departments concerned and also enables DARPG to monitor the grievance. The procedure includes designating a senior officer as the Director of Grievances/Grievance officer in every office to ensure that the system remains accessible, simple, quick, fair and responsive, and fixing the time limit for disposal of work relating to public grievances and staff grievances.

Answer 189

Context: India and China have agreed on a five-point course of action to disengage and reduce tensions along the Line of Actual Control (LAC). The five-point plan is: following the consensus between Prime Minister Narendra Modi and President Xi Jinping to “not allow differences to become disputes”. disengaging quickly to ease tensions. abiding by the existing India-China border protocols and avoiding escalatory action. continuing the dialogue between the Special Representatives, National Security Adviser Ajit Doval and Mr. Wang, as well as the other mechanisms. working towards new confidence-building measures (CBMs).

Answer 190

Nothing has been spoken about returning to the “status quo ante” or positions prior to the stand-off in April. India has also not categorically called on China to retreat from positions it has aggressed on at Pangong Tso, Depsang and other parts of the LAC.

Answer 191

The immediate task is to ensure a comprehensive disengagement of troops in all the friction areas. That is necessary to prevent any untoward incident in the future. The final disposition of the troop deployment to their permanent posts and the phasing of the process is to be worked out by the military commanders.

Answer 192

They mainly occur in areas along the LAC. The LAC has never been demarcated. Differing perceptions are particularly acute in around two dozen spots across the Western (Ladakh), Middle (Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand), Sikkim, and Eastern (Arunachal Pradesh) sectors of the India-China border. Face-offs occur when patrols encounter each other in the contested zones between overlapping claim lines. Protocols agreed to in 2005 and 2013 detail rules of engagement to prevent such incidents, but have not always been adhered to.

Answer 193

India has long proposed an exercise to clarify differing perceptions of the LAC to prevent such incidents. Maps were exchanged in the Middle Sector, but the exercise fell through in the Western Sector where divergence is the greatest. China has since rejected this exercise, viewing it as adding another complication to the on-going boundary negotiations. India’s argument is rather than agree on one LAC, the exercise could help both sides understand the claims of the other, paving the way to regulate activities in contested areas until a final settlement of the boundary dispute.

Answer 194

Context: The Results of the second edition of Ranking of States on Support to Startup Ecosystems have been released. About the Ranking of States on Support to Startup Ecosystems: Conducted by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT). The objective is to foster competitiveness and propel States and Union Territories to work proactively towards uplifting the startup ecosystem.

Answer 195

It has 7 broad reform area, consisting of 30 action points ranging from Institutional Support, Easing Compliances, Relaxation in Public Procurement norms, Incubation support, Seed Funding Support, Venture Funding Support, and Awareness & Outreach.

Answer 196

To establish uniformity and ensure standardization in the ranking process, States and UTs have been divided into two groups. While UTs except Delhi and all States in North East India except Assam are placed in Category ‘Y’. All other States and UT of Delhi are in Category ‘X’.

Answer 197

Best Performers. Top Performers. Leaders Aspiring Leaders. Emerging Startup Ecosystems. Within each category, entities are placed alphabetically. States Startup Ranking Results 2019: Category X: Best Performer: Gujarat Top Performers: Karnataka Kerala Leaders: Bihar Maharashtra Odisha Rajasthan Aspiring Leaders: Haryana Jharkhand Punjab Telangana Uttarakhand Emerging Startup Ecosystems: Andhra Pradesh Assam Chhattisgarh Delhi Himachal Pradesh Category Y: Best Performer: Andaman and Nicobar Islands Leader: Chandigarh Aspiring Leader: Nagaland Emerging Startup Ecosystems: Mizoram Sikkim Leaders across 7 Reform Areas (Just have a brief overview): The top scoring States across each reform area have been recognised as a leader. Institutional Leaders: Karnataka Kerala Odisha Regulatory Change Champions: Karnataka Kerala Odisha Procurement Leaders: Karnataka Kerala Telangana Incubation Hubs: Gujarat Karnataka Kerala Seeding Innovation Leaders: Bihar Kerala Maharashtra Scaling Innovations Leaders: Gujarat Kerala Maharashtra Awareness and Outreach Champions: Gujarat Maharashtra Rajasthan

Answer 198

Context: Launched recently by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). What is CSCAF? CSCAF initiative intends to inculcate a climate-sensitive approach to urban planning and development in India. The objective of CSCAF is to provide a clear roadmap for cities towards combating Climate Change while planning and implementing their actions, including investments. The Climate Centre for Cities under National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is supporting MoHUA in implementation of CSCAF.

Answer 199

Energy and Green Buildings. Urban Planning, Green Cover & Biodiversity. Mobility and Air Quality. Water Management. Waste Management.

Answer 200

What is it? It is the response to the need for making our cities more walkable and pedestrian friendly. The Challenge builds on the advisory issued by MoHUA for the holistic planning for pedestrian-friendly market spaces, earlier this year.

Answer 201

Fit India Mission, under Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, along with the India program of the Institute for Transport Development and Policy (ITDP) have partnered with the Smart Cities Mission to support the challenge.

Answer 202

It supports cities across the country to develop a unified vision of streets for people in consultation with stakeholders and citizens. Adopting a participatory approach, cities will be guided to launch their own design competitions to gather innovative ideas from professionals for quick, innovative, and low-cost tactical solutions. It aims to inspire cities to create walking-friendly and vibrant streets through quick, innovative, and low-cost measures. All cities participating in the challenge shall be encouraged to use the ‘test-learn-scale’ approach to initiate both, flagship and neighbourhood walking interventions.

Answer 203

Creating pedestrian-friendly streets in high footfall areas, re-imagining under-flyover spaces, re-vitalizing dead neighbourhood spaces, and creating walking links through parks and institutional areas.

Answer 204

Context: The Union Ministry of Mines had requested the Environment Ministry to exempt it from paying NPV. However, the Environment Ministry has refused saying that it would be ‘inappropriate’ to grant such an exemption as this was mandated by the Supreme Court.

Answer 205

All areas of exploration are not converted into mining. Only about 1% cases are converted to mining. Considering these, payment of NPV is regarded as an avoidable expenditure. Even payment of NPV at a rate of 2% or 5% is one of the major challenges which leads to delay in the exploration/ prospecting activities.

Answer 206

The Net Present Value (NPV) is a monetary approximation of the value that is lost when a piece of forest land has been razed. This is on the basis of the services and ecological value and there are prescribed formulae for calculating this amount which depends on the location and nature of the forest and the type of industrial enterprise that will replace a particular parcel of forest. It was developed by a committee led by Professor Kanchan Gupta, of the Institute of Economic Growth.

Answer 207

To regulate forest diversions, Supreme Court introduced a high ‘net present value’ (NPV) charge on the lands diverted.

Answer 208

Recently, Japan was hot by this typhoon. It is categorised as a Category 4 stormwhich means well-built framed houses can suffer severe damage with loss of most of the roof structure and exterior walls. Haishenwas a name recommended by China and means “sea god” in Chinese.

Answer 209

Why in News? Experts have warned that few provisions in this bill will hurt farmers’ livelihood. Therefore, they have called for wider consultations on the bill and asked it to place it before a select committee. Key issues/provisions highlighted by experts: It would not allow the manufacture and export of pesticides not registered for use in India even if these are approved in other countries. The bill will increase the import of formulations and will damage the export of agro-chemicals. This is against the demands presented by the Ashok Dalwai Committee, constituted in 2018 to promote domestic and indigenous industries and agricultural exports from India. The committee had recommended reduction in import and dependence on imported formulations. The bill gives powers to Registration Committee (RC) to subjectively review registration of a pesticide and then suspend, cancel or even ban its usage. This would be done without any scientific evaluation. It also provides for re-registration of pesticides already registered under the erstwhile 1968 Act. This will bring instability in the pesticides industry.

Answer 210

The Pesticides Management Bill, 2020 was approved by the Union Cabinet in February this year. It will replace the Insecticides Act, 1968. Key provisions in the Bill: The Bill will regulate the business of pesticides and compensate farmers in case of losses from the use of agrochemicals. Pesticide Data: It will empower farmers by providing them with all the information about the strength and weakness of pesticides, the risk and alternatives. All information will be available openly as data in digital format and in all languages. Compensation: The Bill has a unique feature in the form of a provision for compensations in case there is any loss because of the spurious or low quality of pesticides. If required, a central fund will be formed to take care of the compensations. Organic Pesticides: The Bill also intends to promote organic pesticides. Registration of Pesticide Manufacturers: All pesticide manufacturers have to be registered and bound by the new Act, once it is passed. The advertisements of pesticides will be regulated so there should be no confusion or no cheating by the manufacturers.

Answer 211

Why in News? India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal and Bhutan were among countries that need to act urgently against trans-fat, the World Health Organization (WHO) has warned. What has the WHO said? Industrially produced trans-fats are found in hardened vegetable fats such as margarine and ghee (clarified butter) and are often present in snack foods, baked goods and fried foods. The substance is responsible for around 500,000 deaths due to coronary heart disease every year across the world. 15 countries account for two-thirds of the deaths linked to the substance. It is, however, often used by manufacturers because it has a longer shelf life and is cheaper than other, healthier choices that do not affect taste or cost. So far, 58 countries introduced laws to protect 3.2 billion people from the substance by the end of 2021. But more than 100 countries still needed to take action to remove trans-fat from their food supply chains. None of the low-income or lower-middle-income countries have yet implemented best-practice policies, while seven of their upper-middle-income and 33 of their high-income counterparts did so.

Answer 212

Trans fatty acids (TFAs) or Trans fats are the most harmful type of fats which can have much more adverse effects on our body than any other dietary constituent. These fats are largely produced artificially but a small amount also occurs naturally. Thus in our diet, these may be present as Artificial TFAs and/ or Natural TFAs. Artificial TFAs are formed when hydrogen is made to react with the oil to produce fats resembling pure ghee/butter. In our diet the major sources of artificial TFAs are the partially hydrogenated vegetable oils (PHVO)/vanaspati/ margarine while the natural TFAs are present in meats and dairy products, though in small amounts.

Answer 213

TFAs pose a higher risk of heart disease than saturated fats. While saturated fats raise total cholesterol levels, TFAs not only raise total cholesterol levels but also reduce the good cholesterol (HDL), which helps to protect us against heart disease. Trans fats consumption increases the risk of developing heart disease and stroke. It is also associated with a higher risk of developing obesity, type 2 diabetes, heart disease, metabolic syndrome, insulin resistance, infertility, certain types of cancers and can also lead to compromised fetal development causing harm to the yet to be born baby.

Answer 214

TFA containing oils can be preserved longer, they give the food the desired shape and texture and can easily substitute ‘Pure ghee’. These are comparatively far lower in cost and thus add to profit/saving.

Answer 215

FSSAI put in place a regulation in 2016 halving the permissible quantum of trans-fats in edible fats and oils from 10% to 5%. WHO launched a REPLACE campaign in 2018 for global-level elimination of trans-fats in industrially produced edible oils by 2023. FSSAI has set 2022 as the deadline. FSSAI plans to cap TFA at 3% by 2021 and 2% by 2022 in edible fats and oils. FSSAI launched a “Trans Fat Free” logo for voluntary labelling to promote TFA-free products. The label can be used by bakeries, local food outlets and shops for preparations containing TFA not exceeding 0.2 per 100 g/ml.

Answer 216

What is it? iRAD stands for Integrated Road Accident Database Project. The primary purpose of IRAD is to enhance road safety. Developed by: Indian Institute of Technology-Madras (IIT-M) and will be implemented by the National Informatics Centre.

Answer 217

The IRAD mobile application will enable police personnel to enter details about a road accident, along with photos and videos, following which a unique ID will be created for the incident. Subsequently, an engineer from the Public Works Department or the local body will receive an alert on his mobile device. He or she will then visit the accident site, examine it, and feed the required details, such as the road design. Data thus collected will be analysed by a team at IIT-M, which will then suggest if corrective measures in road design need to be taken. Road users will also be able to upload data on road accidents on a separate mobile application.

Answer 218

Context: Researchers from Agharkar Research Institute (ARI) have found that the methane hydrate deposits are located in the Krishna-Godavari (KG) basin are of biogenic origin. Significance of KG basin: Even the lowest estimate of methane present in the methane hydrates in KG Basin is twice that of all fossil fuel reserves available worldwide. Researchers have also predicted the rate of biogenic methane generation in KG Basin hydrates to be 0.031 millimoles methane/gTOC/Day, resulting in total deposits of methane around 0.56 to 7.68trillion cubic feet (TCF).

Answer 219

It is a clean and economical fuel. On Earth, methane (CH4) is a naturally occurring gas. Most of the methane on Earth is produced in biological processes — some of it by microbes, and some occurring as underground natural gas that had been formed by earlier generations of microbial life. Many of these methane-producing microbes live in the digestive systems of animals, especially cows. However, methane can also be produced by abiotic processes (those that do not involve living organisms). It has been found to occur in formations such as rocks, springs and aquifers, and studies have concluded that it was formed there by chemical reactions between carbon and hydrogen atoms at low temperature. Once it is released into the atmospheres of either Earth or Mars, methane is relatively short-lived. Methane concentrations on Earth is over 1,800 parts per million.

Answer 220

Methane hydrate is formed when hydrogen-bonded water and methane gas come into contact at high pressures and low temperatures in oceans. It is estimated that one cubic meter of methane hydrate contains 160-180 cubic meters of methane.

Answer 221

Context: Released by international non-profit World Wide Fund for Nature. This year’s Living Planet Report, a collaboration between WWF International and the Zoological Society of London, is the 13th edition of the biennial publication tracking wildlife populations around the world. Key findings: The population of vertebrate species declined by around 68 per cent between 1970 and 2016. Living Planet Index was used by the report to calculate this decline. Wildlife populations in freshwater habitats suffered a decline of 84 per cent, equivalent to four per cent per year, particularly in Latin America and the Caribbean. The average two-thirds decline in global populations of mammals, birds, amphibians, reptiles and fish in less than 50 years in large parts is due to the same environmental destruction, which is contributing to emergence of zoonotic diseases such as Covid-19. 75 per cent of earth’s ice-free land has been significantly altered, most of the oceans polluted and over 85 per cent area of wetlands lost ~ all due to human activity. One in five plants is threatened with extinction.

Answer 222

Land-use change. Use and trade of wildlife. Natural habitat loss. Degradation and deforestation driven by food production processes.

Answer 223

India has 2.4 per cent global land share, about eight per cent global biodiversity and around 16 per cent global population However, it has lost 12 per cent of its wild mammals, 19 per cent amphibians and 3 per cent birds over last five decades. India’s ecological footprint per person is less than 1.6 global hectares (gha) / person (smaller than that of many large countries). But, its high population size have made the gross footprint significantly high.

Answer 224

Making food production and trade more efficient and ecologically sustainable. Reducing waste and favouring healthier and more environmentally friendly diets.

Answer 225

The report underlines humanity’s increasing destruction of nature had catastrophic impacts not just on wildlife populations, but also on human health. Therefore, in the midst of a global pandemic, it is now more important than ever to take unprecedented and coordinated global action to halt and start to reverse the loss of biodiversity and wildlife populations across the globe by the end of the decade.

Answer 226

It is published every 2 years by WWF. It is a comprehensive study of trends in global biodiversity and the health of the planet. The report presents a comprehensive overview of the state of the natural world through the Living Planet Index (LPI).

Answer 227

It is a measure of the state of the world’s biological diversity based on population trends of vertebrate species in terrestrial, freshwater and marine habitats.

Answer 228

Ecological footprint is the biologically productive area needed to provide for everything used by people: fruits and vegetables, fish, wood, fibres, absorption of CO2 from fossil fuels use, and space for buildings and roads. It is currently developed by Global Footprint Network (an independent think-tank). The GHG footprint and carbon footprint are a component of Ecological Footprint. Humanity’s Ecological Footprint for 2014 was 1.7 planet Earth’s. This meant that humanity’s demands were 1.7 times faster than what the Earth’s ecosystems renewed.

Answer 229

According to the National Footprints Accounts (2014), India has a bio-capacity of approximately 0.45 gha per person, which means it is a ‘bio-capacity debtor’ or an ‘ecologically deficit country’ with a 148 per cent more demand than supply on its natural resources.

Answer 230

Context: The raging oil well fire in Assam which continued for more than three months has been primarily controlled, and it would take a few more weeks to control the gas leakage and fire fully. What happened? Natural gas and oil condensate started leaking from an oil well of the state-owned OIL field at Baghjan in eastern Assam’s Tinsukia district 110 days back. The leakage caught fire 97 days ago on June 9.

Answer 231

The natural gas of the well number five at Baghjan was diverted partly into production and partly flared in two flare pits. The main aim of this operation was to reduce wellhead pressure of the blowout well, which will help in the next action for killing the well.

Answer 232

The pressure balance in a well may be disturbed leading to ‘kicks’ or changes in pressure. If these are not controlled in time, the ‘kicks’ can turn into a sudden blowout. There are many possible reasons behind blowouts,“from simple lack of attention, poor workmanship, bad maintenance, old age, sabotage to morpho-tectonic factors”.

Answer 233

The control of a blowout depends on two things: the size of the reservoir and the pressure at which the gas/oil is flowing out. This reservoir was particularly difficult to control since it was a gas well and ran the risk of catching fire at any point.

Answer 234

Environmentalists and local people said the fire had left a trail of devastation in the adjoining areas, including the Dibru-Saikhowa National Park. The well is at an aerial distance of 900 metres from the Dibru-Saikhowa National Park. The national park houses some of the rare and endangered species of flora and fauna – around 36 species of mammals and nearly 400 species of birds.

Answer 235

National Hindi Divas or Hindi Day is observed every year on September 14. Objective: The day is a celebration of the Hindi language and its cultural heritage and values among the people of the country and abroad. Rajbhasha award: As a part of the Hindi Diwas celebration every year, the President of India presents the Rajbhasha award to people who have contributed towards the language. Why do we celebrate National Hindi Diwas? The Constituent assembly of India adopted Hindi as the official language of the country on September 14, 1949 under Article 343.

Answer 236

Subramaniya Bharathi was born on 11th December 1882, in Ettayapuram village of Tirunelveli District in Tamil Nadu. He was a poet, freedom fighter and social reformer from Tamil Nadu. He was known as Mahakavi Bharathiyar. His songs on nationalism and freedom of India helped to rally the masses to support the Indian Independence Movement in Tamil Nadu. Literary works: “Kannan Pattu” “Nilavum Vanminum Katrum” “Panchali Sabatam” “Kuyil Pattu”. He published the sensational “Sudesa Geethangal” in 1908. Sometime in mid-1908, Bharati began to serialise Gnanaratham in his political weekly, India. In 1949, he became the first poet whose works were nationalised by the state government.

Answer 237

He was against caste system. He declared that there were only two castes-men and women and nothing more than that. Above all, he himself had removed his sacred thread. He condemned certain Shastras that denigrated women. He believed in the equality of humankind and criticised many preachers for mixing their personal prejudices while teaching the Gita and the Vedas.

Answer 238

Context: The Karnataka government is likely to take a delegation to bring pressure on the Centre to approve the construction of the Mekedatu balancing reservoir that has been proposed to store water for drinking purposes. Present status of the project: The ₹9,000 crore project was approved by Karnataka State government in 2017. It has received approval from the Union Water Resources Ministry for the detailed project report and is awaiting approval from the Ministry of Environment and Forests (MOEF). However, Tamil Nadu has approached the Supreme Court against the project.

Answer 239

Mekedatu is a location along Cauvery in Kanakapura Taluk of Ramanagara District of Karnataka. Karnataka wants a reservoir across Cauvery at Mekedatu, to meet Bengaluru’s water problem. What Tamil Nadu says? Tamil Nadu objected saying Karnataka had not sought prior permission for the project. Its argument was that the project would affect the flow of Cauvery water to Tamil Nadu. Tamil Nadu also argues that the reservoir violates the decisions of the Supreme Court and the Cauvery Tribunal. The Supreme Court had noted that the existing storage in the Cauvery basin of Karnataka should be taken into account for ensuring water releases to Tamil Nadu during the period of June to January.

Answer 240

River rises on Brahmagiri Hill of the Western Ghats in south-western Karnataka state. The river basin covers three states and a Union Territory as follows: Tamil Nadu, 43,868 square kilometres, Karnataka, 34,273 square kilometres l, Kerala, 2,866 square kilometres and Puducherry. Key tributaries: Hemavati, Lakshmantirtha, Kabani (Kabbani), Amaravati, Noyil, and Bhavani rivers. Falls along the way: Upon entering Tamil Nadu, the Kaveri continues through a series of twisted wild gorges until it reaches Hogenakal Falls. Dams: There the Mettur Dam was constructed for irrigation and hydel power in Tamil Nadu.

Answer 241

The supplementary demand for grants is needed for government expenditure over and above the amount for which Parliamentary approval was already obtained during the Budget session. Constitutional provisions: Supplementary, additional or excess grants and Votes on account, votes of credit and exceptional grants are mentioned in the Constitution of India 1949. Article 115: Supplementary, additional or excess grants. Article 116: Votes on account, votes of credit and exceptional grants.

Answer 242

The Centre has sought Parliament approval for a gross additional expenditure of ₹2.35 lakh crore, including ₹20,000 crore for recapitalisation of public sector banks, for 2020-21. These are Supplementary Demands for Grants.

Answer 243

When grants, authorised by the Parliament, fall short of the required expenditure, an estimate is presented before the Parliament for Supplementary or Additional grants. These grants are presented and passed by the Parliament before the end of the financial year. When actual expenditure incurred exceeds the approved grants of the Parliament, the Ministry of Finance presents a Demand for Excess Grant. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India bring such excesses to the notice of the Parliament. The Public Accounts Committee examines these excesses and gives recommendations to the Parliament. The Demand for Excess Grants is made after the actual expenditure is incurred and is presented to the Parliament after the end of the financial year in which the expenses were made.

Answer 244

Additional Grant: It is granted when a need has arisen during the current financial year for supplementary or additional expenditure upon some new service not contemplated in the Budget for that year. Excess Grant: It is granted when money has been spent on any service during a financial year in excess of the amount granted for that year. The demands for excess grants are made after the expenditure has actually been incurred and after the financial year to which it relates, has expired. Exceptional Grants: It is granted for an exceptional purpose which forms no part of the current service of any financial year. Token Grant: It is granted when funds to meet proposed expenditure on a new service can be made available by re-appropriation, a demand for the grant of a token sum may be submitted to the vote of the House and, if the House assents to the demand, funds may be so made available.

Answer 245

Why in News? The convention came into force on 12th September 2020. What you need to know? The United Nations General Assembly adopted the Convention on 20th December 2018 and it was opened for signature on 7th August 2019 in Singapore. It is also known as the Singapore Convention on Mediation and also the first UN treaty to be named after Singapore.

Answer 246

Applicability: The Convention will apply to international commercial settlement agreements resulting from mediation. Non- applicability: It will not apply to international settlement agreements that are concluded in the course of judicial or arbitral proceedings and which are enforceable as a court judgment or arbitral award. It will also not apply to settlement agreements concluded for personal, family or household purposes by one of the parties (a consumer), as well as settlement agreements relating to family, inheritance or employment law. The courts of a contracting party will be expected to handle applications either to enforce an international settlement agreement which falls within the scope of the Convention or to allow a party to invoke the settlement agreement in order to prove that the matter has already been resolved, in accordance with its rules of procedure, and under the conditions laid down in the Convention.

Answer 247

The Convention has 53 signatories, including India, China and the U.S. India approved the signing of the Convention in July 2019.

Answer 248

Signing of the Convention will boost the confidence of the investors and shall provide a positive signal to foreign investors about India’s commitment to adhere to international practice on Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR). Businesses in India and around the world will now have greater certainty in resolving cross-border disputes through mediation, as the Convention provides a more effective means for mediated outcomes to be enforced.

Answer 249

What is it? The neuroscientists from NIMHANS studied over 500 brain scans of Indian patients to develop five sets of Indian brain templates and a brain atlas for five age groups covering late childhood to late adulthood (six to 60 years). Why this is significant? Currently, we are using Montreal Neurological Index (MNI) template. It is based on Caucasian brains and was made by averaging 152 healthy brain scans from just a small slice of the city’s population in North America. But Caucasian brains are different from Asian brains. But, India will now have a scale that will measure an Indian brain.

Answer 250

They will provide more precise reference maps for areas of interest in individual patients with neurological disorders like strokes, brain tumours, and dementia. They will also help pool information more usefully in group studies of the human brain and psychological functions, aiding our understanding of psychiatric illnesses like Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD), autism, substance dependence, schizophrenia, and mood disorders. These new population- and age-specific Indian brain templates will allow more reliable tracking of brain development and ageing, similar to how paediatricians monitor a child’s height or weight, for example, using a growth chart.

Answer 251

Why in News? Members of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister have asked the government to consider selling enemy properties valued at over₹1 lakh crore to take care of the current expenditure which will drive growth.

Answer 252

Properties that were left behind by the people who took citizenship of Pakistan and China. There are more than 9000 such properties left behind by Pakistani nationals and 126 by Chinese nationals. Of the total properties left behind by those who took Pakistani citizenship, 4,991 are located in Uttar Pradesh, the highest in the country. West Bengal has 2,735 such estates and Delhi 487. The highest number of properties left by Chinese nationals is in Meghalaya (57). West Bengal has 29 such properties and Assam seven.

Answer 253

Under the Defence of India Rules framed under The Defence of India Act, 1962, the Government of India took over the properties and companies of those who took Pakistani nationality. These “enemy properties” were vested by the central government in the Custodian of Enemy Property for India. The same was done for property left behind by those who went to China after the 1962 Sino-Indian war. The Tashkent Declaration of January 10, 1966 included a clause that said India and Pakistan would discuss the return of the property and assets taken over by either side in connection with the conflict. However, the Government of Pakistan disposed of all such properties in their country in the year 1971 itself.

Answer 254

The Enemy Property Act, enacted in 1968, provided for the continuous vesting of enemy property in the Custodian of Enemy Property for India. Some movable properties too, are categorised as enemy properties.

Answer 255

The act amended The Enemy Property Act, 1968, and The Public Premises (Eviction of Unauthorised Occupants) Act, 1971.

Answer 256

Expanded the definition of the term enemy subject and enemy firm: To include The legal heir and successor of an enemy, whether a citizen of India or a citizen of a country which is not an enemy and The succeeding firm of an enemy firm, irrespective of the nationality of its members or partners. The enemy property continues to vest in the Custodian: Even if the enemy or enemy subject or enemy firm ceases to be an enemy due to death, extinction, winding up of business or change of nationality, or that the legal heir or successor is a citizen of India or a citizen of a country which is not an enemy.

Answer 257

The Custodian may dispose of enemy properties: With prior approval of the central government, the Custodian may dispose of enemy properties vested in him in accordance with the provisions of the Act, and the government may issue directions to the Custodian for this purpose.

Answer 258

Zero Hour is an Indian parliamentary innovation. It is not mentioned in the parliamentary rules book. Under this, MPs can raise matters without any prior notice. It starts immediately after the question hour and lasts until the agenda for the day (i.e. regular business of the House) is taken up.

Answer 259

It is a flammable gas that on Earth occurs from the breakdown of organic matter. On Earth, this gas is associated with living organisms. It can only be made by life—whether human or microbe. Used as a chemical weapon during World War I, phosphine is still manufactured as an agricultural fumigant, is used in the semiconductor industry, and is a nasty byproduct of meth labs. Why in News? Presence of this gas was observed on Venus. This indicates possible sign of life on Venus.

Answer 260

Context: The bill is proposed to be introduced in this Parliament session. It seeks to amend the Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991 pertaining to the powers and function of the Delhi government and the Lieutenant Governor. Highlights of the proposed Bill: It proposes to clearly spell out the functions of the Council of Ministers and the Lieutenant-Governor (L-G) by giving more discretionary powers to the L-G. As per a provision, the L-G could act in his discretion in any matter that is beyond the purview of the powers of the Legislative Assembly of Delhi in matters related to the All India (Civil) Services and the Anti Corruption Branch. It will also give more teeth to the L-G, and the validity of any decision taken as per such discretion shall not be questioned.

Answer 261

The Union Territory of Delhi with a Legislative Assembly came into being in 1991 under Article 239AA of the Constitution inserted by ‘the Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991’. It said that the UT of Delhi shall be called the National Capital Territory of Delhi, and the administrator thereof appointed under Article 239 shall be designated as the Lieutenant-Governor. According to the existing Act, the Legislative Assembly of Delhi has the power to make laws in all matters except public order, police, and land.

Answer 262

Due to the co-existence of Article 239 and 239AA, there is a jurisdictional conflict between the government of NCT and the Union Government and its representative, the Lieutenant Governor. According to the Union government, New Delhi being a Union Territory Article 239 empowers the Lieutenant Governor to act independently of his Council of Ministers. However, the state government of Delhi held that the Article 239AA of the Constitution bestows special status to Delhi of having its own legislatively elected government. This creates a tussle around the administrative powers of the LG and state government of NCT of Delhi.

Answer 263

In 2018, the Supreme Court had unanimously held that the L-G was bound by the “aid and advice” of the Delhi government and both had to work harmoniously with each other.

Answer 264

Overlapping Areas: Though the court has settled that LG is bound to act on the aid and advice except in respect of ‘Land’, ‘Public Order’ and the ‘Police’. However, Public Order is a very wide connotation, which subsequently leads to overlapping executive powers. Still No Clarity on Article 239AA (4): The court did not very clearly delineate the issues in respect of which the LG can refer a decision taken by the Council of Ministers to the President in the event of a difference of opinion between the LG and the State government. Open-Ended Terminologies: In the event of referring any matter to the President, the Court enunciated that LG must adhere to the constitutional principles of collaborative federalism, constitutional balance and the concept of constitutional governance. However, these terms are very wide and open- ended. They are subject to different interpretations.

Answer 265

The bill seeks to amend: The Salary, Allowances, and Pension of Members of Parliament Act, 1954 to reduce the salaries of MPs by 30%. The Salaries and Allowances of Ministers Act, 1952, to reduce the sumptuary allowance of Ministers by 30%. Rules notified under the 1954 Act to reduce certain allowances of MPs for one year. These include constituency allowance and office expenses allowance. These changes have been made for a period of one year effective from April 1, 2020.

Answer 266

These reductions are being made to supplement the financial resources of the centre to tackle the COVID-19 pandemic.

Answer 267

Article 106 of the Constitution empowers MPs to determine their salaries by enacting laws. In 1985, Parliament enacted a law that delegated the power to set and revise certain allowances of MPs such as constituency allowance, office allowance, and housing allowance to the central government. Till 2018, MPs periodically passed laws to revise their salaries. The Finance Act, 2018 provided that the salary, daily allowance, and pension of MPs will be increased every five years, on the basis of the cost inflation index provided under the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Answer 268

The Lok Sabha recently passed this bill by a voice vote. The Bill is meant to replace an ordinance promulgated in June, in the wake of the COVID-19 lockdown. Key provisions: It proposes to deregulate the production, storage, movement and sale of several foodstuffs, including cereals, pulses, edible oils and onions, except in the case of extraordinary circumstances. What are the extraordinary circumstances mentioned in the Bill? (i) war, (ii) famine, (iii) extraordinary price rise and (iv) natural calamity of grave nature. Stock limit: The Ordinance requires that imposition of any stock limit on agricultural produce must be based on price rise. A stock limit may be imposed only if there is: (i) a 100% increase in retail price of horticultural produce; and (ii) a 50% increase in the retail price of non-perishable agricultural food items. How is it calculated? The increase will be calculated over the price prevailing immediately preceding twelve months, or the average retail price of the last five years, whichever is lower.

Answer 269

The central government can designate certain commodities as essential commodities. The central government may regulate or prohibit the production, supply, distribution, trade, and commerce of such essential commodities.

Answer 270

This will remove fears of private investors of excessive regulatory interference in their business operations. The freedom to produce, hold, move, distribute and supply will lead to harnessing of economies of scale and attract private sector/foreign direct investment into agriculture sector. It will help drive up investment in cold storages and modernization of food supply chain.

Answer 271

Why in News? Cabinet approves establishment of new All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) at Darbhanga, Bihar under the Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY). About PMSSY: PMSSY was announced in 2003 with objectives of correcting regional imbalances in the availability of affordable/ reliable tertiary healthcare services and also to augment facilities for quality medical education in the country. The PMSSY is implemented by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. It has two components: Setting up new AIIMS (All India Institute of Medical Sciences) Upgradation of government medical colleges in various states. The project cost for upgradation of each medical college institution is shared by the Centre and the state.

Answer 272

Context: RBI has released the draft version of Rupee Interest Rate Derivatives (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2020. They are aimed at encouraging higher non-resident participation, enhance the role of domestic market makers in the offshore market, improve transparency, and achieve better regulatory oversight. Key directions: It seeks to allow foreign portfolio investors (FPIs) to undertake exchange-traded rupee interest rate derivatives transactions subject to an overall ceiling of Rs 5,000 crore. Net short position of an FPI on exchange-traded IRDs should not exceed its long position in government securities and other rupee debt securities. The purpose of offering Rupee IRD contracts to a user, the market-maker (entities which provide bid and offer prices to users in order to provide liquidity to the market) should classify the user either as a retail user or as a non-retail user. Non-retail users, as per the draft, are entities regulated by RBI, SEBI, IRDAI or PFRDA; resident companies with a minimum net worth of Rs 500 crore; and non-residents, other than individuals.

Answer 273

Interest Rate Derivatives (IRD) are contracts whose value is derived from one or more interest rates, prices of interest rate instruments, or interest rate indices. These may include interest rate futures, options, swaps, swaptions, and FRA’s.

Answer 274

Key points: To process and use city waste as compost, the Policy on Promotion of City Compost was approved in 2016. Under the policy, assistance of Rs 1,500 per tonne of city compost will be provided to fertilizer companies for marketing and promotion of city compost. Announced by the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.

Answer 275

The lack of an appropriate market and ineffective implementation hasn’t given this much-needed practice the desired popularity. Besides, the high manufacturing and selling cost of the compost, questionable product quality, no direct incentive/subsidy to farmers and lack of knowledge among other concerns, ensured city compost didn’t become a popular option for farmers.

Answer 276

India currently produces close to 1.5 lakh tonnes of solid waste every day and its biodegradable fraction ranges between 30 per cent and 70 per cent for various Indian cities. This means there is a huge potential for compositing, the most natural form of processing wet waste.

Answer 277

Uncontrolled decomposition of organic waste in dumpsites also leads to emission of potent greenhouse gases. So, it is imperative that necessary actions be taken to promote appropriate disposal mechanisms for solid waste management.

Answer 278

A Customized My Stamp on India’s First Anti Satellite Missile (A-SAT) launch was released by the Department of Posts on the occasion of Engineers Day. Background: Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted an Anti-Satellite (A-SAT) missile test ‘Mission Shakti’ from Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Island in Odisha on 27th March 2019. A DRDO developed A-SAT Missile successfully engaged an Indian orbiting target satellite in Low Earth Orbit (LEO) in a ‘Hit to Kill’ mode. The interceptor missile was a three-stage missile with two solid rocket boosters.

Answer 279

India is only the 4th country to acquire such a specialised and modern capability, and Entire effort is indigenous. Till now, only the US, Russia and China had the capability to hit a live target in space.

Answer 280

The test was done in the lower atmosphere to ensure that there is no space debris. Whatever debris that is generated will decay and fall back onto the earth within weeks.

Answer 281

The principal international Treaty on space is the 1967 Outer Space Treaty. The Outer Space Treaty prohibits only weapons of mass destruction in outer space, not ordinary weapons. India is a signatory to this treaty, and ratified it in 1982.

Answer 282

Why in News? The Telangana government has resolved to present a strong case against the proposed amendment to the Electricity Act, 2003 by the Central government, terming it as a “unilateral decision and a blatant attempt against the federal spirit aimed at usurping the States’ powers”. Key points: The State Legislative Assembly adopted a resolution voicing its strong opposition to the proposed amendment, claiming it was aimed at centralisation of powers, and would impose a huge burden on States. The resolution demanded that the Centre immediately rescind its moves that were harmful to the interests of the people, farmers and underprivileged sections in particular.

Answer 283

The Bill seeks to end subsidies.All consumers, including farmers, will have to pay the tariff, and the subsidy will be sent to them through direct benefit transfer. States are worried about this clause because: This would mean people would have to pay a huge sum towards electricity charges, while receiving support through direct benefit transfer later. This would result in defaults leading to penalties and disconnection. The Bill “divests” the States of their power to fix tariff and hands over the task to a Central government-appointed authority. This is discriminatory, since the tariff can be tweaked according to the whims and fancies of the Central government. The Bill also makes it compulsory for the State power companies to buy a minimum percentage of renewable energy fixed by the Centre. This would be detrimental to the cash- strapped power firms.

Answer 284

Renewable Energy Policy: It delegates the Central Government with the power to prepare and notify a National Renewable Energy Policy “for promotion of generation of electricity from renewable sources”, in consultation with State Governments. Cross Border Trade: The Central Government has been delegated with the power to prescribe rules and guidelines to allow and facilitate cross border trade of electricity. Creation of Electricity Contract Enforcement Authority: It has been proposed to be given sole jurisdiction to adjudicate upon matters on performance of obligations under a contract regarding sale, purchase and transmission of electricity, which exclusion of this specialized authority’s jurisdiction on determination of tariff or any other dispute regarding tariff.

Answer 285

The Act regulates the manufacture, possession, use, operation, sale, import and export of civil aircrafts and licensing of aerodromes. Key Features of the Bill: Provides statutory status to regulatory institutions like the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA), the Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS) and the Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau (AAIB). DGCA powers: It will carry out oversight and regulatory functions with respect to matters under the Bill. Powers of BCAS: It carries out regulatory oversight functions related to civil aviation security. AAIB carries out investigations related to aircraft accidents and incidents. Penalty: The Bill proposes to increase the fine amount for violations of rules from ₹10 lakh to ₹1 crore for aviation industry players. Powers of central government: It may cancel the licences, certificates or approvals granted to a person under the Act if the person contravenes any provision of the Act. Exemptions: The Act exempted aircrafts belonging to the naval, military, or air forces of the Union. The Bill expands this exemption to include aircrafts belonging to any other armed forces other than these three.

Answer 286

Context: Becoming the first to institutionalise snake handling in the country, the Kerala Forest Department has framed guidelines for rescuing snakes from human dominated places and releasing them in uninhabited areas. Guidelines: Mandatory certification: It is mandatory for snake handlers, aged between 21 and 65 years, to seek certification. Selection process: The applications will be screened by the Assistant Conservators of Forest (ACF, Social Forestry) to prepare lists of snake handlers in each district. Various parameters, including experience, age, health as well as track record will be considered during the selection process. Those short-listed will be required to undergo mandatory training on safe and scientific handling of snakes. Validity of certificates: While the certification will be valid for five years, the respective ACFs can withdraw or cancel the same if the snake handler is found to be involved in any illegal or unethical practices. Precautions: Certified snake handlers will be required to wear protective gear and equip themselves with safety equipment while on the task. Rescued snakes will also have to be released in the presence of forest officials at the earliest. If found injured, the snake can be released only after ascertaining its fitness. Non-native species, however, cannot be released and have to be handed over to the Forest Department.

Answer 287

There have been allegations of unscientific approaches by snake catchers that tend to create stress to the animal and pose risk to their and others’ lives. Kerala has reported 334 deaths and 1,860 other cases of snake-bites during the last three years. There have also been allegations of snakes being supplied for criminal purposes.

Answer 288

Context: UP Government has issued a notification for the formation of the Uttar Pradesh Special Security Force (UPSSF). Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath had on 26 June announced the formation of the force. What is the UPSSF? It envisaged as having “high-level professional skills”, which would reduce the burden on the Provincial Armed Constabulary (PAC), which could then focus on law and order. It will be tasked to protect courts, airports, administrative buildings, metros, banks, among other government offices.

Answer 289

It will be led by an Additional Director General-level officer, followed by an Inspector General, Deputy Inspector General, Commandant, and Deputy Commandant.

Answer 290

Any member of the force may, without any order from a Magistrate and without a warrant, arrest any person, who voluntarily causes hurt or a person against whom there is a “reasonable suspicion”, or any person, who attempts to “commit a cognizable offence. The force will also have the right to remove trespassers on the premises under its protection. No suit or prosecution shall lie against any officer or member of the force or against any person on acting under the order or the direction of any officer or member of the force for anything, which is done or intended to be done in good faith.

Answer 291

Cabinet approves Haryana Orbital Rail Corridor Project from Palwal to Sonipat via Sohna-Manesar- Kharkhauda. Total length of the project is ~ 121.7 km. The project will be implemented by Haryana Rail Infrastructure Development Corporation Limited (HRIDC), a Joint Venture company set up by Ministry of Railways with Government of Haryana. Significance: This will facilitate diversion of traffic not meant for Delhi and will help in developing multimodal logistics hubs in Haryana State sub-region of NCR.

Answer 292

Also known as Swimming Camels. Found only in Gujarat’s Bhuj area. It has been recognized as a separate breed (one among nine such breeds found in India) of camel for better conservation. This camel is adapted to the extreme climate of Ran of Kachh where shallow seas and high salinity is prevalent. It can live in both coastal and dry ecosystems. It grazes on saline / mangrove trees and is tolerant to high saline water. It can swim up to three kilometers into the sea in search of mangroves, their primary food.

Answer 293

India celebrates Engineer’s Day every year on September 15 as a tribute to the greatest Indian Engineer Bharat Ratna Sir Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya on his birthday. He was the chief engineer responsible for the construction of the Krishna Raja Sagara Dam in Mysore. He was knighted as a Knight Commander of the British Indian Empire by King George V for his contributions to the public good in 1915.

Answer 294

Why in News? China, which has now gone over a month without any locally transmitted Covid-19 cases, was able to contain Covid-19 due to its ability to manage the serial interval. What is it? The serial interval is the duration between symptom onset of a primary case and symptom onset of secondary cases (contacts) generated by the primary case. In simple terms, the serial interval is the gap between the onset of Covid-19 symptoms in Person A and Person B, who is infected by Person A. When was it first used? The term was first used by British physician William Pickles, who had initially referred to it as transmission interval with reference to a hepatitis epidemic in the United Kingdom during 1942-45.

Answer 295

Incubation period: The time between a person’s exposure to the virus and symptom onset. Reproduction rate or R naught: The number of people who will be infected by one infected person.

Answer 296

The serial interval helps to gauge the effectiveness of infection control interventions besides indicating rising population immunity and forecast future incidence. Thus, the more quickly persons who contracted Covid-19 are identified and isolated, the shorter the serial interval becomes and cuts down opportunities for transmission of the virus.

Answer 297

To manage serial interval, a robust system of contact tracing, quarantine, and isolation protocols should be in place.

Answer 298

China: The serial interval in Wuhan came down from 7.8 days to 2.6 days between early January and early February. Quarantining contacts within 1 day from symptom onset helped reduce Covid-19 transmission by 60 per cent. This was made possible due to aggressive contact tracing, quarantine, and isolation, thereby ensuring that infected patients, because they were isolated, could not infect any more people later in the infection cycle.

Answer 299

Context: China has blamed India for “violating” border agreements and said India bore responsibility for the recent tensions. This comes a day after Defence Minister Rajnath Singh told Parliament that China had, by amassing troops along the Line of Actual Control (LAC) this summer, violated the 1993 and 1996 boundary agreements that have helped keep the peace along the border for years.

Answer 300

India and China have signed various agreements on border management— signed in September 1993, November 1996, April 2005 and October 2013. Unfortunately, these are deeply flawed agreements and make the quest for settlement of the boundary question at best a strategic illusion and at worst a cynical diplomatic parlour trick. 1993 Agreement on the Maintenance of Peace and Tranquility along the Line of Actual Control in the Sino-Indian Border: As per the agreement, both India and China agree to keep “military forces in the areas along the line of actual control to a minimum level” and “reduce troop levels” compatible with friendly and good relations between them. 1996 Agreement on Confidence-Building Measures: This agreement allows for “military disclosure when the parties are undertaking border exercises and for the reduction of troop levels in the border areas. It also allows the parties to observe and inspect troop movements in each other territory upon invitation. In this agreement too, the two sides agreed to reduce or limit their military forces within mutually-agreed geographical zones along the LAC. It also specifies the major categories of armaments to be reduced or limited: “combat tanks, infantry combat vehicles, guns etc. It also stipulates that “[n]either side shall open fire, cause bio-degradation, use hazardous chemicals, conduct blast operations or hunt with guns or explosives within two kilometers from the line of actual control.

Answer 301

These agreements are there just on papers. They have no bearing on the ground reality. The agreements do not reflect any attempt to have each side recognise the other’s line of deployment of troops at the time they were signed. Also, the absence of a definition of LAC allows ever new and surreptitious advances on the ground.

Answer 302

India and China have recently agreed on a five-point course of action to disengage and reduce tensions along the Line of Actual Control (LAC).

Answer 303

Context: Passed in Lok Sabha. The Bill replaces an ordinance to the same effect promulgated on June 26. The Bill proposes amendments to the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. With this new Bill, the central government aims to bring cooperative banks under the supervision of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

Answer 304

Now, Provisions applicable to banking companies will also applicable to cooperative banks. This ensures that cooperative banks are equally subject to better governance and sound banking regulations through the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). With the amendments, RBI will be able to undertake a scheme of amalgamation of a bank without placing it under moratorium. It will help the central bank to develop a scheme to ensure the interest of the public, banking system, account holders in the bank and banking company’s proper management, without disrupting any banking functionalities. The amendments also allow cooperative banks to raise money via public issues and private placements of equity or preference shares as well as unsecured debentures, with the central’s bank’s nod.

Answer 305

Affect the existing powers of the state registrars of co-operative societies under state laws. Apply to Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) or co-operative societies whose primary object and principal business is long-term finance for agricultural development, and which do not use the words “bank”, “banker” or “banking”.

Answer 306

This was felt necessary in the wake of the recent Punjab & Maharashtra Cooperative (PMC) Bank crisis. Cooperative banks have 8.6 lakh account holders, with a total deposit of about ₹5 lakh crore. Besides, Urban cooperative banks reported nearly 1,000 cases of fraud worth more than ₹220 crore in past five fiscal years.

Answer 307

Cooperative banks are currently under the dual control of the Registrar of Cooperative Societies and RBI. While the role of registrar of cooperative societies includes incorporation, registration, management, audit, supersession of board and liquidation, RBI is responsible for regulatory functions such as maintaining cash reserve and capital adequacy, among others.

Answer 308

Context: Scientists from NASA and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) have announced their predictions about the new solar cycle, called Solar Cycle 25, which they believe has begun. Key findings: The solar minimum for Solar Cycle 25 occurred in December 2019. Scientists predict a solar maximum (middle of the solar cycle) will be reached by July 2025. This solar cycle will be as strong as the last solar cycle, which was a “below-average cycle” but not without risks.

Answer 309

The Sun is a huge ball of electrically-charged hot gas. This charged gas moves, generating a powerful magnetic field. This magnetic field goes through a cycle, called the solar cycle. Every 11 years or so, the Sun’s magnetic field completely flips. This means that the Sun’s north and south poles switch places. Then it takes about another 11 years for the Sun’s north and south poles to flip back again. So far, astronomers have documented 24 such cycles, the last one ended in 2019.

Answer 310

Scientists track a solar cycle by using sunspots. The beginning of a solar cycle is typically characterised by only a few sunspots and is therefore referred to as a solar minimum.

Answer 311

One way to track the solar cycle is by counting the number of sunspots. The beginning of a solar cycle is a solar minimum, or when the Sun has the least sunspots. Over time, solar activity—and the number of sunspots—increases. The middle of the solar cycle is the solar maximum, or when the Sun has the most sunspots. As the cycle ends, it fades back to the solar minimum and then a new cycle begins.

Answer 312

Solar eruptions can cause lights in the sky, called aurora, or impact radio communications. Extreme eruptions can even affect electricity grids on Earth. Solar activity can affect satellite electronics and limit their lifetime. Radiation can be dangerous for astronauts who do work on the outside of the International Space Station.

Answer 313

Context: Launched at the recently held Environment Ministerial Meeting (EMM) of the G20 countries which took place under the Presidency of Kingdom of Saudi Arabia.

Answer 314

It aims to strengthen the implementation of existing frameworks to prevent, halt, and reverse land degradation within G20 member states and globally, taking into account possible implications on the achievement of other SDGs and adhering to the principle of doing no harm.

Answer 315

It is the reduction or loss of biological or economic productivity of the land resulting from land uses or from a process or combination of processes, including human activities and climatic variations.

Answer 316

It is the degradation of land in arid, semi-arid and dry sub-humid areas. Desertification does not refer to the expansion of existing deserts. It occurs because dryland ecosystems, which cover over one-third of the world‘s land area, are extremely vulnerable to overexploitation and inappropriate land use. The major causes for land degradation include: Land clearance, such as clearcutting and deforestation Agricultural depletion of soil nutrients through poor farming practices Livestock including overgrazing and over drafting Inappropriate irrigation and over drafting Urban sprawl and commercial development Vehicle off-roading Quarrying of stone, sand, ore and minerals

Answer 317

Desert Development Programme. Integrated Watershed Management Programme which is now subsumed under Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana. National agriculture policy 2000. National Mission on Green India which is a part of National Action Plan on Climate Change. National Afforestation Programme. Soil Conservation in the Catchment of River Valley Projects and Flood Prone Rivers. National Watershed Development Project for Rain fed Areas. Fodder and Feed Development Scheme – a component of Grassland Development including Grass Reserves Command Area Development and Management Programme. National water policy 2012 National forest Policy 1988

Answer 318

Context: Union Power Ministry has drafted Rules providing for Rights of Electricity Consumers for the First Time. The main features are: Reliability of service: State Electricity Regulatory Commissions to fix average number and duration of outages per consumer per year for DISCOMs. (A power outage is the loss of the electrical power network supply to an end user.) Timely and simplified procedure for connection: Only two documents for connection up to load of 10 kw and no estimation of demand charges for loads up to 150 kw to expedite giving connection. Time period to provide new connection: Not more than 7 days in metro cities, 15 days in other municipal areas and 30 days in rural areas, to provide new connection and modify existing connection. 2 to 5% rebate on serving bills with delay of sixty days or more. Push to online payment: Option to pay bills in cash, cheque, debit cards, net banking etc but bills of Rs. 1000 or more to be paid online. Prosumers: Recognition to the emerging category of consumers known as “Prosumers”. They will have right to produce electricity for self-use and inject excess in the grid using same point of connection up to limits prescribed by the SERC. Consumer Grievance Redressal Forum with 2-3 representatives of consumers at various levels starting from Sub-division for ease of consumer grievance redressal.

Answer 319

Persons who are consumers and have also set up a rooftop units or solarised their irrigation pumps.

Answer 320

Context: According to the latest data released by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB), a total of 3,005 cases were registered in the country under anti-terror law Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) in 2016, 2017 and 2018, and 3,974 people were arrested under the Act About Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act: Passed in 1967, the law aims at effective prevention of unlawful activities associations in India. The Act assigns absolute power to the central government, by way of which if the Centre deems an activity as unlawful then it may, by way of an Official Gazette, declare it so. It has death penalty and life imprisonment as highest punishments.

Answer 321

Under UAPA, both Indian and foreign nationals can be charged. It will be applicable to the offenders in the same manner, even if crime is committed on a foreign land, outside India. Under the UAPA, the investigating agency can file a charge sheet in maximum 180 days after the arrests and the duration can be extended further after intimating the court.

Answer 322

The 2004 amendment, added “terrorist act” to the list of offences to ban organisations for terrorist activities, under which 34 outfits were banned. Till 2004, “unlawful” activities referred to actions related to secession and cession of territory. As per amendments of 2019: The Act empowers the Director General of National Investigation Agency (NIA) to grant approval of seizure or attachment of property when the case is investigated by the said agency. The Act empowers the officers of the NIA, of the rank of Inspector or above, to investigate cases of terrorism in addition to those conducted by the DSP or ACP or above rank officer in the state.

Answer 323

The law is often misused and abused. Could be used against political opponents and civil society activists who speak against the government and brand them as “terrorists.” The 2019 amendment gives unfettered powers to investigating agencies. The law is against the federal structure, given that ‘Police’ is a state subject under 7th schedule of Indian Constitution.

Answer 324

Inaugurated recently in Bihar. Sanctioned by the Centre during 2003-04. Connects Nirmali and Saraigarh districts of Bihar. Provides a shorter route to the Northeast. The bridge is of strategic importance along the India-Nepal border.

Answer 325

The bill has been passed by both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. This paves the way to establish a state-of-the-art Ayurvedic institution called the Institute of Teaching and Research in Ayurveda (ITRA) at Jamnagar, Gujarat, and to confer the status of Institution of National Importance (INI) to it. ITRA will be the first institution with INI status in the AYUSH Sector. It will be established by conglomerating the presently existing Ayurveda institutes at Gujarat Ayurved University campus Jamnagar.

Answer 326

Presently, two public sector companies of the Department of Atomic Energy, Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) and Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Limited (BHAVINI) are involved in nuclear power generation. There is no proposal under consideration at present to permit non-Government sector in the area of nuclear power generation. There are presently twenty-two (22) reactors with a capacity of 6780 MW in operation in the country.

Answer 327

The present policy (Consolidated FDI Policy of Government) puts atomic energy in the list of prohibited sectors. However, there is no restriction on FDI in the nuclear industry for manufacturing of equipment and providing other supplies for nuclear power plants and related other facilities. Besides, the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 was amended in 2015 to enable the licensing of NPCIL’s Joint Ventures for setting up nuclear power projects.

Answer 328

Why in News? Scientists have reported a first-of-its-kind discovery of morphological phenotypic plasticity (MPP) in the Kalinga cricket frog. What is MPP? MPP is the ability of an organism to show drastic morphological (physical features) variations in response to natural environmental variations or stimuli. About Kalinga Frog: Its documentation was done in 2018 and reported from the Eastern Ghats. It was thought to be endemic to the hill ranges of the Eastern Ghats. But now, researchers have reported the Kalinga cricket frog from the central Western Ghats, with the evidence of considerable ‘morphological phenotypic plasticity (MPP)’.

Answer 329

Why in News now? The Supreme Court has asked for the government’s response to a plea that wide publication of the personal details of a couple who want to wed under the Special Marriage Act is a violation of their privacy. What’s the issue? The petitioner had argued that the publication of confidential details through a public notice has a chilling effect on the right to marry, particularly in the backdrop of honour killings and violence committed against those who enter into inter-caste and inter-religious marriages. In other words, couples are asked to waive the right to privacy to exercise the right to marry.

Answer 330

Dhrupad is the most ancient style of Hindustani classical music that has survived until today in its original form. The nature of Dhrupad music is spiritual. It does not seek to entertain, but to induce feelings of peace and spirituality in the listener. It is primarily a form of worship, in which offerings are made to the divine through sound or Nada. Dhrupad was initially sung only in the temples, the singer facing the Lord. From this early chanting, Dhrupad evolved into a sophisticated classical form of music.

Answer 331

It lays emphasis on maintaining purity of the Raga. The language of Dhrupad changed from Sanskrit to Brij Bhasha sometime between the 12th and the 16th century.

Answer 332

It is a form of devotional music that traces its origin to the ancient text of SamVeda. The SAM VEDA was chanted with the help of melody and rhythm called Samgana. Gradually this developed into other vocal style called ‘Chhanda’ and ‘Prabandha’ with introduction of verse and meter. The fusion of these two elements led to the emergence of Dhrupad.

Answer 333

In medieval India, Dhrupad had mainly thrived under the patronage of Mughal and Rajput kings. Later it declined with the shift of interest in Khayal.

Answer 334

Performance of Dhrupad is done in two parts viz. the Alap and Bandish. In the Alap, the singer uses syllables from Sanskrit Mantra which add texture to the notes. The Raga is slowly and methodically developed in a meditative mode.

Answer 335

Why in News? NHRC has ordered the Assam government to pay ₹1 lakh to a 48-year-old man who was thrashed more than a year ago in Biswanath district for selling cooked beef at his tea stall at a weekly market. Relevance of this article for UPSC exam: From this article, we can understand whether NHRC has powers to recommend payment of compensation or not.

Answer 336

It is a statutory body established on 12th October, 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993. The Act also provides for the creation of the State Human Rights Commission as well. Composition: The chairperson is a retired chief justice of India or a judge of the Supreme Court. They are appointed by the President on the recommendations of a six-member committee consisting of: ``` Prime Minister (head) Speaker of the Lok Sabha Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha Leaders of the Opposition in both the Houses of Parliament Union Home Minister. ```

Answer 337

They hold office for a term of three years or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier. The President can remove them from the office under specific circumstances.

Answer 338

Context: Pakistan has decided to elevate Gilgit-Baltistan’s status to that of a full-fledged province. However, India has clearly conveyed to Pakistan that the entire union territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh, including the areas of Gilgit and Baltistan, are an integral part of the country by virtue of its fully legal and irrevocable accession. What’s the issue? Gilgit-Baltistan has functioned as a “provincial autonomous region” since 2009. It is controlled by Pakistan. Besides, in a recent order, the Pakistan Supreme Court also allowed the amendment to the Government of Gilgit-Baltistan Order of 2018 to conduct the general elections in the region.

Answer 339

It borders China in the North, Afghanistan in the west and Kashmir in the south east. It shares a geographical boundary with Pakistan-occupied Kashmir, and India considers it as part of the undivided Jammu and Kashmir, while Pakistan sees it as a separate from PoK. It has a regional Assembly and an elected Chief Minister.

Answer 340

China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) passes through this region. The region is home to five of the “eight-thousanders” and to more than fifty peaks above 7,000 metres (23,000 ft). Three of the world’s longest glaciers outside the polar regions are found in Gilgit-Baltistan.

Answer 341

The British sold it, along with the rest of Jammu and Kashmir, to the Dogra ruler of Jammu, Gulab Singh, after defeating the Sikh army in 1846, but retained controlled over the area through a lease extracted from the Maharaja. This lease was last renewed in 1935. In 1947, a British army officer of the rank of Colonel imprisoned Maharaja Hari Singh’s governor in the region, and handed over the area for accession to Pakistan.

Answer 342

Gilgit- Baltistan is part of J&K and any such move would seriously damage Pakistan’s Kashmir case. Two UN resolutions of August 13, 1948 and January 5, 1949 clearly established a link between GB and the Kashmir issue. Making the region its fifth province would thus violate the Karachi Agreement — perhaps the only instrument that provides doubtful legal authority to Pakistan’s administration of GB — as well as the UN resolutions that would damage its position on the Kashmir issue. Any such move would also be violative of the 1963 Pak-China Boundary Agreement that calls for the sovereign authority to reopen negotiations with China “after the settlement of the Kashmir dispute between Pakistan and India” and of the 1972 Simla Agreement that mentions that “neither side shall unilaterally alter the situation”.

Answer 343

Context: After being stuck on the issue of who will represent Kulbhushan Jadhav in the civilian court in Pakistan, India has invoked the Commonwealth grounds to end the debate over the appointment of his counsel. India has called for the appointment of an Indian lawyer or a Queen’s Counsel for the death row prisoner, Kulbhushan Jadhav, so that he receives a fair trial in his death sentence review.

Answer 344

India’s suggestion comes against the backdrop of negotiations between the two sides to ensure a free and fair trial. The International Court of Justice had asked Pakistan to ensure a fair review of the death sentence, but India says Pakistan has not provided “unimpeded” access to him till now.

Answer 345

Queen’s Counsel is a barrister or advocate, appointed Counsel to the UK Crown on the recommendation of the Lord Chancellor. Queen’s counsels are recognised in almost all courts around the world. A Queen’s Counsel is appointed from within the legal profession on the basis of merit rather than the level of experience.

Answer 346

Context: The U.S. is expecting India to sign the last foundational agreement, Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement for Geo-Spatial cooperation (BECA), at the next India-U.S. 2+2 ministerial dialogue likely to held in October end.

Answer 347

So far, India has signed three foundational agreements: The Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA). The Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA). The General Security of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA) was signed a long time ago. An extension to the GSOMIA, the Industrial Security Annex (ISA), was signed at the last 2+2 dialogue.

Answer 348

This agreement would facilitate exchange of geospatial information between India and United States for both military and civilian use. Significance and benefits for India from BECA: BECA will allow India to use US expertise on geospatial intelligence and to enhance military accuracy of automated hardware systems and weapons like cruise, ballistic missiles and drones.

Answer 349

The 2+2 dialogue is the highest-level institutional mechanism between India and USA that brings together the perspectives of the two countries on foreign policy, defence and strategic issues. The new dialogue format was agreed to between the India and the US during the visit of Prime Minister Narendra Modi to Washington D.C. in June, 2017. The dialogue mechanism includes defence and foreign ministers of the two countries. It replaced India-U.S. Strategic and Commercial Dialogue for trade and commercial issues.

Answer 350

Astronomers study Blackholes by watching for their effects on nearby stars and gas. Stars are disrupted when the black hole’s tidal gravity exceeds the star’s self-gravity, and this phenomenon is called tidal disruption events (TDE). The tidal disruption events are crucial and useful phenomena to detect and predict the mass of supermassive black holes in quiescent galaxies.

Answer 351

An air bubble is essentially a temporary arrangement between two countries to restart commercial flight services at a time when regular international flights are suspended due to COVID-19. Under the arrangement, airlines from both countries are allowed to operate, unlike Mission Vande Bharat where only Indian air carriers were allowed to operate flights. Why in News? India has entered into Air Bubble agreements with 10 countries viz. USA, Canada, France, Germany, UK, Maldives, UAE, Qatar, Afghanistan and Bahrain, till 13.09.2020.

Answer 352

Initiated by the World Health Organisation. First observed in 2019. It calls for global solidarity and concerted action by all countries and international partners to improve patient safety. 2020 theme: Health Worker Safety: A Priority for Patient Safety.

Answer 353

The Supreme Court has asked the Chief Justices of High Courts to head Special Benches and immediately hear long-pending criminal cases against sitting and former legislators. What’s the issue? Over 4,400 criminal trials have been held up, some for decades, because the powerful MPs and MLAs had approached the High Courts and got an interim stay. Some date back nearly 40 years. Most are stuck at the stage of framing of criminal charges. There are over 2,500 criminal cases against sitting legislators alone.

Answer 354

Context: Delhi high court has ordered schools (Both Private and Government) to provide gadgets and internet access to students from economically weaker section (EWS) and disadvantaged groups (DG) categories to assist in their online education during the Covid-19 crisis. What’s the issue? The court passed the order over concerns that these EWS category students were unable to sustain their online studies due to a lack of resources and unavailability of laptops and mobile phones during the COVID-19 pandemic.

Answer 355

To address discrimination: All students do not have access to such facilities. The intra-class discrimination, upsets the level playing field and amounts to discrimination as well as creates a vertical division, digital divide or digital gap or digital apartheid in addition to segregation in a classroom which is violative of RTE, 2009, and Articles 14, 15 and 21 of the Constitution. A financial barrier: Such mode of teaching will erect a financial barrier for EWS/DG category students by not providing the required equipment, preventing them from pursuing their elementary education.

Answer 356

The Court has made it clear that the private unaided schools will be entitled to claim reimbursement of reasonable cost for procurement of the gadget and Internet package from the government under Section 12(2) of the RTE Act.

Answer 357

The RTE Act aims to provide primary education to all children aged 6 to 14 years. It enforces Education as a Fundamental Right (Article 21). The act mandates 25% reservation for disadvantaged sections of the society. It also makes provisions for a non-admitted child to be admitted to an age appropriate class. It also states that sharing of financial and other responsibilities between the Central and State Governments. It also provides for prohibition of deployment of teachers for non-educational work, other than decennial census, elections to local authority, state legislatures and parliament, and disaster relief. It had a clause for “No Detention Policy” which has been removed under The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (Amendment) Act, 2019. It lays down the norms and standards related to: Pupil Teacher Ratios (PTRs). Buildings and infrastructure. School-working days. Teacher-working hours.

Answer 358

Context: As per the information provided by Union Minister of Textiles, under Samarth, 18 State Governments have been allocated a training target of 3.6 lakh beneficiaries for conducting training programme in traditional and organized sectors. Samarth_Scheme About Samarth Scheme: Also known as the ‘Scheme for Capacity Building in Textile Sector (SCBTS)’. Implemented by the Ministry of Textiles. It seeks to Provide demand driven, placement oriented National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF) compliant skilling programmes.

Answer 359

To train 10.00 lakh persons (9 lakhs in organised & 1 lakh in traditional sector) excluding Spinning & Weaving in the organized Sector.

Answer 360

Training of Trainers (ToT). Aadhar Enabled Biometric Attendance System (AEBAS). CCTV recording of training programme. Dedicated call centre with helpline number.

Answer 361

Textile Industry. Institutions/Organization of the Ministry of Textiles/State Governments having training infrastructure and placement tie-ups with textile industry. Reputed training institutions/ NGOs/ Societies/ Trusts/ Organizations/ Companies /Start Ups / Entrepreneurs active in textile sector having placement tie-ups with textile industry.

Answer 362

Context: September 19 marks the 60th anniversary of the Indus Water Treaty (IWT) between India and Pakistan. About the Indus Water Treaty: It is a Water-Distribution Treaty, signed in Karachi in 1960, between India (PM Jawaharlal Nehru) and Pakistan (President Ayub Khan), brokered by the World Bank.

Answer 363

Under the treaty, India has control over water flowing in the eastern rivers– Beas, Ravi and Sutlej. Pakistan has control over the western rivers– Indus, Chenab and Jhelum.

Answer 364

India is allowed to use 20% water of the western rivers for irrigation, power generation and transport purposes. It also granted 3.6 million acre-feet (MAF) of “permissible storage capacity” to India on the western rivers.

Answer 365

As per the treaty, the water commissioners of Pakistan and India are required to meet twice a year and arrange technical visits to projects’ sites and critical river head works. Both the sides share details of the water flow and the quantum of water being used under the treaty. The treaty sets out a mechanism for cooperation and information exchange between the two countries regarding their use of the rivers.

Answer 366

Context: On the occasion of International Coastal Clean-Up Day (Celebrated since 1986), for the first time eight beaches of India are recommended for the coveted International eco-label, the Blue flag certification. International Coastal Clean-Up Day is marked each year on the third Saturday of September as an initiative of the Washington-based Ocean Conservancy, a volunteer effort for ocean health.

Answer 367

Shivrajpur in Gujarat, Ghoghla in Daman and Diu, Kasarkod and Padubidri in Karnataka, Kappad in Kerala, Rushikonda in Andhra Pradesh, Golden in Odisha and Radhanagar in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Answer 368

The Blue Flag Programme for beaches and marinas is run by the international, non-governmental, non-profit organisation FEE (the Foundation for Environmental Education). It started in France in 1985 and has been implemented in Europe since 1987, and in areas outside Europe since 2001, when South Africa joined.

Answer 369

The ‘Blue Flag’ beach is an ‘eco-tourism model’ and marks out beaches as providing tourists and beachgoers clean and hygienic bathing water, facilities/amenities, a safe and healthy environment, and sustainable development of the area.

Answer 370

Japan and South Korea are the only countries in South and southeastern Asia to have Blue Flag beaches. Spain tops the list with 566 such beaches; Greece and France follow with 515 and 395, respectively.

Answer 371

There are nearly 33 criteria that must be met to qualify for a Blue Flag certification, such as the water meeting certain quality standards, having waste disposal facilities, being disabled- friendly, have first aid equipment, and no access to pets in the main areas of the beach. Some criteria are voluntary and some compulsory.

Answer 372

13 pilot beaches have been identified for the certification. Chandrabhaga beach of Odisha’s Konark coast is the first to complete the tag certification process.

Answer 373

Context: India has launched its own eco-label BEAMS (Beach Environment & Aesthetics Management Services) under ICZM (Integrated Coastal Zone Management) project. BEAMS has been prepared over two years by the Society of Integrated Coastal Management (SICOM) under MoEFCC. Its objective is to: Abate pollution in coastal waters. Promote sustainable development of beach facilities. Protect and conserve coastal ecosystems and natural resources. Maintain high standards of cleanliness, hygiene and safety for beachgoers in accordance with coastal environment and regulations.

Answer 374

ICZM aims to improve livelihood of coastal communities and conserve the coastal ecosystem. It is a World Bank assisted project. The National Centre for Sustainable Coastal Management (NCSCM), Chennai, will provide scientific and technical inputs. The concept of ICZM was born in 1992 during the Earth Summit of Rio de Janeiro.

Answer 375

Why in News? Concerns over the back-to-back deaths of two sloth bears at the park. IUCN status of Sloth Bear- Vulnerable. About the Park: Located in Bhubaneswar, Odisha. Adjacent to Chandaka-Dampara Wildlife Sanctuary. Uniqueness of the Zoo: It is the only zoological park in India to become an institutional member of World Association of Zoos and Aquarium (WAZA). Host zoo for white tigers. White tigers born to normal coloured parents in the year 1980. First captive breeding centre for endangered Gharials in the year 1980. Kanjia Lake – A wetland of National importance (2006). Conservation Breeding Centres for Indian Pangolin and Long billed vultures. Largest pools for housing Gharials and Hippopotamus. First record of breeding of Indian Ratels in captivity (in 2012). Only zoo in India after which an express train (Nandankanan Express) has been named by Indian Railways. One among the three zoos in India for breeding Long billed vulture. First birth of Melanistic tiger in captivity in the year 2014.

Answer 376

Vaishwik Bharatiya Vaigyanik (VAIBHAV) Summit will be inaugurated on 2nd October 2020 – the birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi. It is a global summit of Overseas and Resident Indian scientists and academicians. The Summit is a joint effort of various Science & Technology (S&T) and Academic organisations, including Department of S&T, Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). Objectives: To bring out the comprehensive roadmap to leverage the expertise and knowledge of global Indian researchers for solving emerging challenges. To reflect in-depth on the collaboration and cooperation instruments with academia and scientists in India. To create an ecosystem of Knowledge and Innovation in the country through global outreach.

Answer 377

Observed annually on September 18th. Officially established by the World Bamboo organization at the 8th World Bamboo Congress held in Bangkok in 2009. Theme for 2020: ‘BAMBOO NOW.’ World Bamboo Organization was set up at the 1992 International Bamboo Congress in Japan. The Indian Forest Act 1927 was amended in 2017 to remove bamboo for the category of trees.

Answer 378

Context: The All India Judges Association has passed a resolution condemning Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister Y.S. Jagan Mohan Reddy’s letter against Supreme Court judge Justice N.V. Ramana as a “deliberate attempt to scandalise and coerce the judiciary”. The Association said the “tone, tenor and timing of the letter portrays malafide intent and appears to be orchestrated for hidden agendas”.

Answer 379

AP CM’s complaint is with respect to Supreme Court Justice N.V. Ramana’s alleged influencing of posting of cases in the State High Court. The complaint also alleges the hostile attitude of some High Court judges towards the current state government of Andhra Pradesh and their deliberate and unsubstantiated striking down of the state government’s decisions and orders. This amounts to an accusation of misconduct, corruption and the political bias among the judges.

Answer 380

Though there have been previous instances of such allegations against certain judges, the current situation is unprecedented given that the current allegations have been made by a constitutional body, The Chief Minister of a state. This marks an open conflict between the judiciary and a Chief Minister. But, How are allegations of misconduct against judges dealt with? There are two broad alternatives when it comes to complaints against sitting judges: Impeachment. In-house procedure.

Answer 381

Since 1997, judges have adopted an ‘in-house procedure’ for inquiring into charges. Under this, when a complaint is received against a High Court judge: The CJI should decide on the authenticity of the complaint and decide whether it is frivolous or it involves serious misconduct and impropriety. The CJI would ask for the concerned judge’s response if he feels the complaint is serious, The CJI may close the matter if he is satisfied with the response. Suppose, If the CJI feels that a deeper probe is necessary: He forms a three-member committee consisting of only the judiciary members. The composition of this three-member committee depends on the position of the judge against whom the complaint has been filed. The inquiry it holds is of the nature of a fact-finding mission and is not a formal judicial inquiry involving examination of witnesses. The committee can give two kinds of recommendations, one where it deems the misconduct as serious enough to require removal from office, or that it is not serious enough to warrant removal. Actions taken on the recommendations of the committee: If the committee deems the charges against the judge as genuine, the concerned judge will be urged to resign or seek voluntary retirement. If the judge is unwilling to quit, the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned would be asked to withdraw judicial work from him. The executive i.e, the President and the Prime Minister are informed of the situation and are expected to begin the process of impeachment. If the misconduct does not warrant removal, the judge would be advised accordingly.

Answer 382

The public disclosure of the letter could have compromised the dignity, independence and majesty of the top court and the A.P. High Court. It could amount to scandalising the judiciary in the eyes of the people by sensationalising the issue and could also be deemed an interference with the administration of justice. In such cases the faith of the people in the judiciary and the rule of law are at stake.

Answer 383

Article 121 and Article 211 of the Indian Constitution expressly bar Parliament and the state legislatures to discuss the conduct of any judge. Besides, the SC in the Ravichandran Iyer v. Justice A.M. Bhattacharjee (1995) case has held that complaints against sitting judges should be kept confidential.

Answer 384

Context: The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) has dismissed an appeal against Siemens Gamesa Renewable Power Pvt. Ltd over alleged non-payment of settlement dues. About NCLAT: Constituted under Companies Act, 2013. Functions: It hears appeals against the orders of: NCLT under Section 61 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC). Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India under Section 202 and Section 211 of IBC. The Competition Commission of India (CCI).

Answer 385

The President of the Tribunal and the chairperson and Judicial Members of the Appellate Tribunal shall be appointed after consultation with the Chief Justice of India. The Members of the Tribunal and the Technical Members shall be appointed on the recommendation of a Selection Committee consisting of: Chief Justice of India or his nominee—Chairperson. A senior Judge of the Supreme Court or a Chief Justice of High Court— Member. Secretary in the Ministry of Corporate Affairs—Member. Secretary in the Ministry of Law and Justice—Member. Secretary in the Department of Financial Services in the Ministry of Finance— Member.

Answer 386

Chairperson – Should be/been judge of the Supreme Court or should be/been Chief Justice of the High Court. Judicial Member – Is/has been a judge of a High Court or is a judicial member of a tribunal for 5 years or more. Technical member– Person with proven ability, integrity and standing having special knowledge and experience of 25 years or more (in specified areas).

Answer 387

Term of office of chairperson and members is 5 years and they can be reappointed for additional 5 years.

Answer 388

Context: The International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) has introduced a framework for “Regulatory Sandbox”. Firstly, what is a regulatory sandbox? It is a safe harbour, where businesses can test innovative products under relaxed regulatory conditions. Typically, participating companies release new products in a controlled environment to a limited number of customers for a limited period of time.

Answer 389

The Regulatory Sandbox shall operate within the IFSC located at GIFT City. Entities operating in the capital market, banking, insurance and financial services space shall be granted certain facilities and flexibilities to experiment with innovative FinTech solutions in a live environment with a limited set of real customers for a limited time frame. These features shall be fortified with necessary safeguards for investor protection and risk mitigation.

Answer 390

It is a statutory body established in 2020. It works under the Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance. Headquartered in Gandhinagar, Gujarat.

Answer 391

Its main function is to develop and regulate the financial products, financial services and financial institutions located/performed in the International Financial Services Centres in India. The Authority is empowered to exercise the powers of RBI, SEBI, IRDAI and PFRDA in respect of financial services, financial products and financial institutions performed/located in the international financial services centres in the country.

Answer 392

Chairperson, one Member each to be nominated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), the Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI), the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) and the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), two members to be dominated by the Central Government and two other whole-time or full-time or part-time members. They will have a three-year term subject to reappointment.

Answer 393

The SEZ Act 2005 allows setting up an IFSC in an SEZ or as an SEZ after approval from the central government.

Answer 394

Context: As per government data, ‘Ghar Tak Fibre’ scheme is off to a slow start in Bihar, the first state that aims to connect all its 45,945 villages by March 31. Status: To connect all villages by March 31, the state would need to dig trenches, lay cables, and provide connectivity to an average of 257 villages daily, or a monthly average of over 7,500 villages. However, nearly a month after the scheme was inaugurated, optical fibre cable has been laid only in 4,347 villages as of October 14, or at the rate of 181 villages per day.

Answer 395

Launched in September this year. It aims to connect all the villages with high-speed internet. Targets: Under the scheme, Bihar has to provide at least five fibre-to-the-home (FTTH) connections per village, while there should also be at least one WiFi hotspot per village. Implementation: The project will be jointly executed by the Department of Telecom (DoT), ministry of Electronics & Information Technology and Common Service Centres (CSC).

Answer 396

Context: Air pollution in Delhi and the whole of the Indo-Gangetic Plains is a complex phenomenon that is dependent on a variety of factors. But, every year in October, Delhi’s air quality starts to dip.

Answer 397

Withdrawal of monsoons: During monsoons, the prevalent direction of wind is easterly. Once monsoon withdraws, the predominant direction of winds changes to north westerly. During summers, too, the direction of wind is north westerly and storms carry dust from Rajasthan and sometimes Pakistan and Afghanistan. 2. Dip in Temperatures: As temperature dips, the inversion height — which is the layer beyond which pollutants cannot disperse into the upper layer of the atmosphere – is lowered. The concentration of pollutants in the air increases when this happens. 3. High-speed winds: They are very effective at dispersing pollutants, but winters bring a dip in wind speed over all as compared to in summers. 4. Farm fires: A 2015 source-apportionment study on Delhi’s air pollution conducted by IIT-Kanpur also states that 17-26% of all particulate matter in Delhi in winters is because of biomass burning. 5. Dust pollution: Dry cold weather means dust is prevalent in the entire region, which does not see many rainy days between October and June. Dust pollution contributes to 56% of PM 10 and and the PM2.5 load at 59 t/d, the top contributors being road 38 % of PM 2.5 concentration. 6. Vehicular pollution: It is the second biggest cause of pollution in winters. According to the IIT Kanpur study, 20 % of PM 2.5 in winters comes from vehicular pollution.

Answer 398

Improving public transport Limiting the number of polluting vehicles on the road Introducing less polluting fuel Strict emission regulations Improved efficiency for thermal power plants and industries Moving from diesel generators to rooftop solar Increased use of clean renewable energy Electric vehicles Removing dust from roads Regulating construction activities Stopping biomass burning, etc.

Answer 399

It was launched by National Jal Jeevan Mission in partnership with Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY). Objective: To create innovative, modular, and cost-effective solution to develop a ‘Smart Water Supply Measurement and Monitoring System’ to be deployed at the village level. The mission focuses on service delivery rather than mere creation of infrastructure. The best solution will get cash prize of Rs. 50 Lakh and runner ups will get prize of Rs. 20 Lakh each.

Answer 400

The first-ever multi-modal logistic park will be built in Assam. The park will provide direct connectivity to air, road, rail and waterways to the people. It will be developed under the ambitious BharatmalaPariyojana of the Government of India.

Answer 401

Asafoetida, or heeng, is a common ingredient in most Indian kitchens. Heeng is not cultivated in India. India imports Rs 600 crore worth of this pungent flavoured herb every year. It is a perennial plant. The plant stores most of its nutrients inside its deep fleshy roots. Asafoetida is endemic to Iran and Afghanistan, the main global suppliers. It thrives in dry and cold desert conditions. Why in News? Scientists at CSIR-Institute of Himalayan Bioresource, Palampur (IHBT), are on a mission to grow heeng in the Indian Himalayas. The first sapling has been planted in Himachal Pradesh’s Kwaring village in Lahaul valley last week.

Answer 402

It is an island country in Melanesia, part of Oceania in the South Pacific Ocean about 1,100 nautical miles northeast of New Zealand. Fiji consists of an archipelago of more than 330 islands.

Answer 403

The dispute stems from a notification of 1875 that differentiated Lushai Hills from the plains of Cachar, and another of 1933 that demarcates a boundary between Lushai Hills and Manipur. Location: Mizoram borders Assam’s Barak Valley; both border Bangladesh.

Answer 404

Australia will join the Malabar 2020 naval exercise, consisting of India, Japan and the U.S., to be held next month. Australia had first requested to join more than three years ago.

Answer 405

The Pearl River estuary includes Hong Kong, Macau as well as the mainland Chinese cities of Shenzhen, Guangzhou and Dongguan. Why in News? Chinese pink dolphins are making a comeback in the Pearl river estuary, one of the most heavily industrialised areas on Earth.

Answer 406

Why in News? Kakatii Devi temple built by Kakatiya ruler Ganapati Deva in Dharanikota (Andhra Pradesh) converted into an abode of local Goddess ‘Balusulamma’. Key points: The presiding deity at this 13th century temple was Kakati Devi, the tutelary deity of Kakatiya rulers. Ganapati Deva is the first king who introduced the worship of Kakati Devi into the coastal region of Andhra and outside the dominions of his kingdom. Architectural significance of the temple: The ceiling bears decorations of lotus medallions and no sikhara on its top. These architectural features are totally akin to their counterparts found in shrines at Hanamkonda and Warangal fort etc.

Answer 407

The 12th and the 13th centuries saw the emergence of the Kakatiyas. They were at first the feudatories of the Western Chalukyas of Kalyana, ruling over a small territory near Warangal. The dynasty saw powerful leaders like Ganapathi Deva and Rudramadevi. Prataparudra I, also known as Kakatiya Rudradeva, was the son of the Kakatiya leader Prola II. It was under his rule that the Kakatiyas declared sovereignty. He ruled the kingdom till 1195 A.D. It was under the rule of Prataparudra I that usage of Telugu language in inscriptions began. Before the establishment of Orugallu/Warangal as the capital, Hanamakonda was the first capital of the Kakatiyas. The great Italian traveller Marco Polo visited the Kakatiya Kingdom sometime during Rudramadevi’s tenure as the ruler of the Kakatiya Dynasty and made note of her administrative style; admiring her extensively.

Answer 408

The iconic Kakatiya Thoranam was built by Rudramadevi’s father in the 12th Century. This ornate arch is said to have many similarities with the gateways at the Sanchi Stupa and is also the emblem of Telangana. The scenic Pakhal lake in Warangal was built by Ganapathi Deva. The 1000 pillar temple in Warangal was built during the Kakatiya Rule and is another example to the exquisite Kakatiya Architecture. The Koh-i-Noor Diamond, which is now among the jewels set in the British Crown, was mined and first owned by the Kakatiya Dynasty.

Answer 409

Under the Kakatiya rule, the caste system was not rigid and in fact, it was not given much significance socially. Anyone could take up any profession and people were not bound to an occupation by birth. The Kakatiya rule finally came to an end in 1323 A.D. when Warangal was conquered by the Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq, the then Sultan of Delhi.

Answer 410

Context: Rajya Sabha Chairman M Venkaiah Naidu has rejected the no-confidence motion moved by the Opposition against the Deputy Chairman Harivansh saying that it is “not admissible under the rules”. A no-confidence motion against the Deputy Chairman is a first in parliament and the convention is that Mr Singh should not preside over house sessions till the matter is settled.

Answer 411

Opposition parties have accused Deputy Chairman of violating the parliamentary procedures in trying to pass the farm sector Bills in haste, circumventing all demands for proper voting. They also say that the Deputy Chairman did not allow points of order to be raised and did not allow large numbers of members of Rajya Sabha, from diverse political parties, to even speak against farm bills.

Answer 412

Rajya Sabha elects a Deputy Chairman to perform the functions of the Chairman in case of a vacancy in the office of the Chairman or when the Vice-President is acting as or discharging the functions of the President.

Answer 413

Context: Introduced in the Lok Sabha. It seeks to make significant changes to the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA). Proposed amendments- the Bill It seeks to prohibit ‘public servants’ from receiving any foreign funding. It proposes to reduce the use of foreign funds to meet administrative costs by NGOs from the existing 50 per cent to 20 per cent. It seeks to “prohibit any transfer of foreign contribution to any association/person”. It proposes to make Aadhaar cards a mandatory identification document for all office-bearers, directors and other key functionaries of NGOs or associations eligible to receive foreign donations.

Answer 414

To allow for the central government to hold a summary inquiry to direct bodies with FCRA approval to “not utilise the unutilised foreign contribution or receive the remaining portion of foreign contribution”. To limit the use of foreign funds for administrative purposes. This would impact research and advocacy organisations which use the funding to meet their administrative costs.

Answer 415

The Bill will enhance government power and restrict foreign-funded civil society work in India. It can be used as a means to “target those who speak against the government”. It will curtail the ease of doing business for civil society organisations.

Answer 416

The need to strengthen the Act has arisen due to several organisations “misutilising or misappropriating” the funds leading to the government cancelling 19,000 such registrations in the past few years. The annual inflow of foreign contribution has almost doubled between the years 2010 and 2019, but many recipients of foreign contribution have not utilised the same for the purpose for which they were registered or granted prior permission under the said Act. Criminal investigations also had to be initiated against dozens of such non-governmental organisations which indulged in outright misappropriation or mis-utilisation of foreign contribution.

Answer 417

Context: The $1 billion World Bank loan to curb covid pandemic for India comes with a condition of “universal eligibility” in procurements. What is “universality eligibility” condition? This would mean that all preferential market access policies, including Public Procurement Order, Micro Small & Medium Enterprises (MSME) Policy, certain benefits to start-ups, shall not be applicable on purchases made while implementing the national project.

Answer 418

The World Bank would have the right to review the procurement documents, inspect/audit all accounts, records and other files relating to the project. Compliance to these conditions has been made mandatory for the funding.

Answer 419

World Bank has approved 1 billion USD aid to India to accelerate “India’s COVID-19 Special Protection Response Programme”. Of the 1 billion USD aid, around 550 million USD is to be credited by the IDA (International Development Association) and 220 million USD by the IBRD (International Bank of Reconstruction and Development). The final maturity amount of the loan is 18.5 years. It also includes a grace period of five years.

Answer 420

Context: Election Commission of India has completed one year of Chairmanship of the Association of World Election Bodies (A-WEB). About The Association of World Election Bodies (A-WEB): It is the largest association of Election Management Bodies (EMBs) worldwide. Established on October 14, 2013 in Song-do, South Korea. Permanent secretariat is located at Seoul. Aims to foster efficiency and effectiveness in conducting free, fair, transparent and participative elections worldwide. Composition: 115 EMBs as Members & 16 Regional Associations/Organisations as Associate Members.

Answer 421

Why in News? Care 4 Chendamangalam, which works with weavers in Kerala, brings the eponymous GI-tagged sari for a fund-raiser exhibition to Bengaluru. Key facts: Chendamangalam is a small town near Ernakulam that stands at the crossroads of three rivers. The town was part of the ancient port complex of Muziris and known for its fine cotton spun here by the Devanga Chettiars, a community of weavers originally from Karnataka. The GI-tagged Chendamangalam saree is recognisable by its puliyilakara border, a thin black line that runs abreast with the sari’s selvedge.

Answer 422

Observed around the world on 21st September. The UN General Assembly has declared this as a day devoted to strengthening the ideals of peace, through observing 24 hours of non-violence and cease-fire. 2020 Theme: Shaping Peace Together. Background: The International Day of Peace was established in 1981 by the United Nations General Assembly. Two decades later, in 2001, the General Assembly unanimously voted to designate the Day as a period of non-violence and cease-fire.