August To September 4 Flashcards

Question

What is ‘Operation Twist’?

Answer 1

‘Operation Twist’ is RBI’s simultaneous selling of short-term securities and buying of long term securities through open market operations (OMO). Under this mechanism, the short-term securities are transitioned into long-term securities.

Answer 2

This operation involves buying and selling government securities simultaneously in order to bring down long-term interest rates and bolster short-term rates. There is an inverse relationship between the bond prices and their yields. As the central bank buys long-term securities (bonds), their demand rise which in turn pushes up their prices. However, the bond yield comes down with an increase in prices. Yield is the return an investor gets on his (bond) holding/investment. The interest rate in an economy is determined by yield. Thus, lower long-term interest rates mean people can avail long-term loans (such as buying houses, cars or financing projects) at lower rates. This also results in a dip in the expected returns from long-term savings which tilts the balance from saving towards spending. Hence, cheaper retail loans can help encourage consumption spending which is the largest GDP component in the economy.

Answer 3

Fixed income investors with higher exposure to long term debt will benefit from easing yield of long-term bonds. Consumers/borrowers will also profit from ‘Operation Twist’ as the retail loans will now get cheaper. Cheaper retail loans mean a boost in consumption and spending in the economy which in turn will revive growth.

Answer 4

OMOs are the market operations conducted by the RBI by way of sale and purchase of G-Secs to and from the market with an objective to adjust the rupee liquidity conditions in the market on a durable basis. When the RBI feels that there is excess liquidity in the market, it resorts to sale of securities thereby sucking out the rupee liquidity. Similarly, when the liquidity conditions are tight, the RBI may buy securities from the market, thereby releasing liquidity into the market.

Answer 5

Context: Union Minister of Coal and Mines recently addressed a webinar on Coal Gasification and Liquefaction. He said; India aims for 100 million tonnes (MT) coal gasification by 2030 with investments worth over Rs. 4 lakh crores. For encouraging use of clean sources of fuel, government has provided for a concession of 20% on revenue share of coal used for gasification. This will boost production of synthetic natural gas, energy fuel, urea for fertilisers and production of other chemicals. What is coal gasification? It is the process of producing syngas, a mixture consisting carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen (H2), carbon dioxide (CO2), natural gas (CH4), and water vapour (H2O). During gasification, coal is blown with oxygen and steam while also being heated under high pressure. During the reaction, oxygen and water molecules oxidize the coal and produce syngas.

Answer 6

Transporting gas is a lot cheaper than transporting coal. Help address local pollution problems. Has greater efficiency than conventional coal-burning because it can effectively use the gases twice: the coal gases are first cleansed of impurities and fired in a turbine to generate electricity. The exhaust heat from the gas turbine can be captured and used to generate steam for a steam turbine-generator.

Answer 7

Coal gasification is one of the more water-intensive forms of energy production. There are also concerns about water contamination, land subsidence and disposing of waste water safely.

Answer 8

Also called Coal to Liquid (CTL) technology, it is an alternative route to produce diesel and gasoline and makes economic sense only in a world of high crude oil prices. The process involves gasification of coal, which in turn will produce synthetic gas (a mix of CO+H2). The synthetic gas can be liquefied to its fuel equivalent in presence of cobalt/iron-based catalysts at higher pressure and temperature. However, liquefied coal emits twice as much CO2 as burning oil. It also emits a large volume of SO2. Benefits of liquefaction: The CO2 emissions are more readily and cheaply captured from CTL plants than from conventional coal-fired power stations. The captured CO2 can be transported and injected into underground storage reservoirs (a procedure known as “carbon capture and storage”—CCS—or “geosequestration”).

Answer 9

Context: CSIR-CMERI has developed the World’s Largest Solar Tree, which is installed at CSIR-CMERI Residential Colony, Durgapur. Key points: The installed capacity of the Solar Tree is above 11.5 kWp. It has the annual capacity to generate 12,000-14,000 units of Clean and Green Power. The Tree has been designed in a manner to ensure maximum exposure of each Solar PV Panel to Sunlight and also creation of the least amount of shadow area beneath.

Answer 10

These Solar Trees can be aligned with Agriculture for substituting price-volatile fossil fuels. Each Solar Tree has the potential to save 10-12 tons of CO2 emissions being released into the atmosphere as Greenhouse Gases when compared with fossil fuel fired energy generation. Besides, the surplus generated power can be fed into an Energy Grid. This Agricultural Model can provide a consistent economic return and help the farmers counter the effects of the uncertain variations in Agriculture related activities, thus, making farming an Economic and Energy Sustainable practice. The solar tree also has the capability to incorporate IOT based features,e. round-the-clock CCTV surveillance in agricultural fields, real-time humidity, wind speed, rainfall prediction and soil analytics sensors. The CSIR-CMERI developed solar powered e-Suvidha Kiosks may also be connected to the Solar Trees for real-time access to the vast majority of agricultural database as well as to the eNAM i.e. National Agricultural MarketPlace for instant and real-time access to an unified online market.

Answer 11

Context: India and China have unsettled borders, and the perception of the Line of Actual Control (LAC) differs in multiple sectors, including on Pangong Tso. Recently, Indian soldiers thwarted an attempt by Chinese troops to occupy some heights near the southern bank of Pangong Tso.

Answer 12

The Line of Actual Control (LAC) – the line that separates Indian and Chinese troops since 1962 – generally runs along the land except for the width of Pangong Tso. Here, it runs through water. Both sides have marked their areas announcing which side belongs to which country. India controls about 45 km stretch of the Pangong Tso and China the rest. The lake is divided into sections called fingers. There are eight of them in contention here. India and China have different understanding of where the LAC passes through. India has maintained that the LAC passes through Finger 8, which has been the site of the final military post of China. India has been patrolling the area – mostly on foot because of the nature of the terrain – up to Finger 8. But Indian forces have not had active control beyond Finger 4. China, on the other hand, says the LAC passes through Finger 2. It has been patrolling up to Finger 4- mostly in light vehicles, and at times up to Finger 2.

Answer 13

Pangong Tso is strategically crucial as it is very close to Chusul Valley,which was one of the battlefronts between India and China during the 1962 war. China appears to keep India constricted in the region by taking strategic advantage of looking over the Chusul Valley, which it can do if it advances along Pangong Tso. China also does not want India to boost its infrastructure anywhere near the LAC. China fears it threatens its occupation of Aksai Chin and Lhasa-Kashgar highway. Any threat to this highway also puts Chinese rather imperialist plans in Pakistan-occupied territories in Ladakh and Jammu and Kashmir, and beyond in Pakistan.

Answer 14

Pangong Tso literally translates into a “conclave lake”. Pangong means conclave in Ladakhi and Tso means a lake in Tibetan language. Situated at over 14,000 feet, the Lake is about 135 km long. It is formed from Tethys geosyncline. The Karakoram Mountain range, which crosses Tajikistan, Afghanistan, Pakistan, China and India, with heights of over 6,000 metres including K2, the world’s second highest peak, ends at the north bank of Pangong Tso. Its southern bank too has high broken mountains sloping towards Spangur Lake in the south. The lake’s water, while crystal clear, is brackish, making it undrinkable.

Answer 15

It is a geopolitical term, typically used to group the three sovereign states in Northern Europe on the eastern coast of the Baltic Sea: Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania. The most important areas of cooperation between the three countries are foreign and security policy, defence, energy and transportation. All three countries are members of the European Union, NATO, the eurozone and the OECD. All three are classified as high-income economies by the World Bank and maintain a very high Human Development Index.

Answer 16

Organisation for the prohibition of chemical weapons India ratified the chemical weapons convention in 1996

Answer 17

Assam rifles is under administrative control of MHA But under the operation control of Army i.e Defence minister This means salaried and infrastructure is given by MHA While deployment, posting is by MoD

Answer 18

Ministry of Women and child affairs

Answer 19

BSF ITBP SSB CISF CRPF NSG

Answer 20

South Asia Cooperative Environment Programme | SACEP

Answer 21

Arunachal Pradesh

Answer 22

Central highlands

Answer 23

State business reform action plan was brought by DPIIT and world bank It gives the ease of doing business among the states AP topped this time

Answer 24

Indian coast guard

Answer 25

Why in News? The International Commission of Jurists (ICJ) has said civil rights lawyer Prashant Bhushan’s conviction for criminal contempt of court by the Supreme Court seemed to be inconsistent with the freedom of expression law guaranteed by the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights that India was a party to. What is International Commission of Jurists (ICJ)? It is an international human rights non-governmental organization. Composition: It is a standing group of 60 eminent jurists—including senior judges, attorneys and academics. Functions: To develop national and international human rights standards through the law. Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland.

Answer 26

The conviction appears to be inconsistent with international standards on freedom of expression and the role of lawyers. The judgment risked having a “chilling effect on the exercise of protected freedom of expression in India”. While some restrictions of freedom of expression are permitted by international standards, a particularly wide scope must be preserved for debate and discussion about such matters as the role of the judiciary, access to justice, and democracy, by members of the public, including through public commentary on the courts.

Answer 27

It is a multilateral treaty adopted by the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA). Monitored by the United Nations Human Rights Committee. The covenant commits its parties to respect the civil and political rights of individuals, including the right to life, freedom of religion, freedom of speech, freedom of assembly, electoral rights and rights to due process and a fair trial. The ICCPR is part of the International Bill of Human Rights, along with the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) and the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR). It became effective in 1976. Article 49 allowed that the covenant would enter into force three months after the date of the deposit of the thirty-fifth instrument of ratification or accession. India is a party to this treaty.

Answer 28

Context: Report was released recently by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB). Overall, the report shows that the number of suicide cases and accidental deaths registered an increase across the country last year from the 2018 figures. Report on Suicides in the country: Suicides in the country went up slightly from 1,34,516 to 1,39,123. Of the 97,613 male suicides, the most were of daily wage earners (29,092), followed by self-employed persons (14,319) and the unemployed (11,599). Of the 41,493 female, over half were housewives. Most suicides by unemployed persons were in Kerala at 14% (1,963), followed by 10.8% in Maharashtra, 9.8% in Tamil Nadu, 9.2% in Karnataka and 6.1% in Odisha. Most suicides by those in business activities were in Maharashtra (14.2%), Tamil Nadu (11.7%), Karnataka (9.7%), West Bengal (8.2%) and Madhya Pradesh (7.8%). The suicide rate in cities (13.9%) was higher compared to the all-India average. Most cases of mass/family suicides were reported from Tamil Nadu (16), followed by Andhra Pradesh (14), Kerala (11) and Punjab (9) and Rajasthan (7).

Answer 29

Accidental deaths in the country increased by 2.3%. Compared with 4,11,824 in 2018, the figure stood at 4,21,104 last year. The most casualties of 30.9% were reported in the 30-45 age group, followed by 26% in the 18-30 age group. Maharashtra reported the highest deaths (70,329), amounting to nearly one-sixth of the total figure. A total of 8,145 deaths was due to the causes attributable to forces of nature, including 35.3% due to lightning, 15.6% by heat/sun stroke and 11.6% deaths in floods. Most deaths (400) due to lightning was reported each from Bihar and Madhya Pradesh, followed by Jharkhand (334) and Uttar Pradesh (321). The major causes were ‘traffic accidents’ (43.9%), ‘sudden deaths’ (11.5%), ‘drowning’ (7.9%), ‘poisoning’ (5.1%), ‘falls’ (5.1%) and ‘accidental fire’ (2.6%). A majority (57.2%) of deaths was in the age groups of 18-45 years.

Answer 30

Set -up in 1986 under the Ministry of Home Affairs to function as a repository of information on crime and criminals so as to assist the investigators in linking crime to the perpetrators. Set up based on the recommendations of the National Police Commission (1977-1981) and the MHA’s Task Force (1985). NCRB brings out the annual comprehensive statistics of crime across the country (‘Crime in India’ report). Being published since 1953, the report serves as a crucial tool in understanding the law and order situation across the country.

Answer 31

Why in News? The Supreme Court has allowed telecom companies 10 years’ time to pay their adjusted gross revenue (AGR) dues to the government. The judgment: The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) should decide whether or not spectrum can be sold under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code. Due to the current Covid-19situation, telcos should pay 10 per cent of the total dues by March 31, 2021. Telecom companies would also have to make payments on or before February 7 every year. The non-payment of dues in any year would lead to accrual of interest and invite contempt of court proceedings against such companies.

Answer 32

An October 2019 judgment of the court in the AGR issue originally wanted the telcos to make the repayments in three months. The court had concluded that the private telecom sector had long reaped the fruits of the Centre’s liberalized mode of payment by revenue sharing regime. Later, the government had proposed in court a 20-year “formula” for telcos to make staggered payments of the dues. But, the court observed that the period of 20 years fixed for payment is excessive. Even after part payment, the dues still run to ₹1.43 lakh crore.

Answer 33

Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR) is the usage and licensing fee that telecom operators are charged by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT). It is divided into spectrum usage charges and licensing fees, pegged between 3-5 percent and 8 percent respectively.

Answer 34

As per DoT, the charges are calculated based on all revenues earned by a telco – including non-telecom related sources such as deposit interests and asset sales.

Answer 35

The telecom sector was liberalised under the National Telecom Policy, 1994 after which licenses were issued to companies in return for a fixed license fee. However, to provide relief from the steep fixed license fee, the government in 1999 gave an option to the licensees to migrate to the revenue sharing fee model. Under this, mobile telephone operators were required to share a percentage of their AGR with the government as annual license fee (LF) and spectrum usage charges (SUC). License agreements between the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) and the telecom companies define the gross revenues of the latter. The dispute between DoT and the mobile operators was mainly on the definition of AGR. The DoT argued that AGR includes all revenues (before discounts) from both telecom and non-telecom services. The companies claimed that AGR should comprise just the revenue accrued from core services and not dividend, interest income or profit on sale of any investment or fixed assets.

Answer 36

Context: Qatar has brought about a change in its labour laws. The reforms, which were announced by the Emir of Qatar in October 2019, were signed into law recently. These reforms are now applicable to workers of all nationalities and in all sectors, including domestic workers who were previously excluded. What are Qatar’s new labour laws? Abolition of the unjustified ‘kafala system’ or requirement for a “no objection certificate” that migrant workers needed to get from their employers before changing jobs. Now, workers will have to serve a one-month notice period if they have worked for less than two years and notice period of two months if they have worked longer. Increasing the minimum wage by 25 per cent to $274 or 1000 Qatari riyals and an additional 300 QAR for food and 500 QAR for accommodation in case not provided by the company.

Answer 37

Qatar has introduced a series of labour reforms since its selection as the 2022 World Cup host, with the event setting in motion a huge construction programme employing foreign workers.

Answer 38

The ‘kafala’ system is a system that lays down obligations in the treatment and protection of foreign ‘guests’. Kafala means ‘to guarantee’ or ‘to take care of’ in Arabic. Under the system, a migrant worker’s immigration status is legally bound to an individual employer or sponsor (‘kafeel’) during the contract period. The migrant worker cannot enter the country, transfer employment nor leave the country for any reason without first obtaining explicit written permission from the kafeel.

Answer 39

The kafala system began in the 1950s when several Middle East countries started hiring foreign workers to accelerate development following the discovery of oil. Where is the kafala system practiced? It is being practiced in the Gulf Cooperation Council member countries of Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates, and also in the Arab states of Jordan and Lebanon.

Answer 40

Human rights groups say the migration management system enables exploitation and forced labor—labor extracted by under the threat of penalty, and not offered voluntarily by the worker. The media have likened employment conditions under kafala to “modern-day slavery.” Some migrant workers end up absconding from their employers to seek refuge elsewhere. In the Gulf states, absconding is considered a crime and that leads to indefinite detention and deportation. Complaining puts them in conflict with their sponsor, who has the power to cancel their residence visa and have them deported. The kafala directly contradicts the labour law. The employer can dictate the recruitment process and working conditions. It restricts labour mobility. It prohibits any mobility on part of the worker unless approved by the kafeel. If the kafeels are unwilling to let them go, workers cannot leave them for better employment.

Answer 41

Context: The IRDAI has set up a working group on Index Linked Products to examine the various aspects of Index Linked Products in the life insurance segment. Current IRDAI product regulations do not specifically permit insurers to sell index-linked products. Background: Life insurers had approached Irdai with a request to allow them to offer index-linked products. Life insurance companies currently offer two product categories — unit-linked insurance plans and traditional plans.

Answer 42

They are insurance products whose returns are linked to benchmark indices. These products are linked to the 10-year government bonds or equity indices such as Sensex or Nifty. Such products allow the policyholder to get a guaranteed value.

Answer 43

Context: Green Term Ahead Market (GTAM) in electricity launched as a first step towards greening the Indian short term power market. What is GTAM? It is an alternative new model introduced for selling off the power by the renewable developers in the open market without getting into long term PPAs.

Answer 44

Transactions through GTAM will be bilateral in nature with clear identification of corresponding buyers and sellers, there will not be any difficulty in accounting for Renewable Purchase Obligations (RPO). GTAM contracts will be segregated into Solar RPO & Non-Solar RPO as RPO targets are also segregated. Daily & Weekly Contracts – Bidding will take place on MWh basis. Price discovery will take place on a continuous basise. price time priority basis. Subsequently, looking at the market conditions open auction can be introduced for daily & weekly contracts. Energy scheduled through GTAM contract shall be considered as deemed RPO compliance of the buyer.

Answer 45

The introduction of GTAM platform would lessen the burden on RE-rich States and incentivize them to develop RE capacity beyond their own RPO. This would promote RE merchant capacity addition and help in achieving RE capacity addition targets of the country. GTAM platform will also lead to increase in number of participants in renewable energy sector. It will benefit buyers of RE through competitive prices and transparent and flexible procurement. It will also benefit RE sellers by providing access to pan- India market.

Answer 46

Why in News? The Allahabad High Court has set aside the National Security Act order passed against Gorakhpur doctor Kafeel Khan, terming it illegal, and directed the Uttar Pradesh government to forthwith release him from jail. The court also declared the extension of the period of his detention under the NSA as “illegal”. Background: government had in February slapped the NSA on Dr. Khan for allegedly making inflammatory and provocative comments during a speech by him against the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) at Aligarh Muslim University in December 2019.

Answer 47

It is a stringent law that allows preventive detention for months, if authorities are satisfied that a person is a threat to national security or law and order. The person does not need to be charged during this period of detention. The goal is to prevent the individual from committing a crime. It was promulgated on September 23, 1980, during the Indira Gandhi government.

Answer 48

acting in any manner prejudicial to the defence of India, the relations of India with foreign powers, or the security of India. regulating the continued presence of any foreigner in India or with a view to making arrangements for his expulsion from India. preventing them from acting in any manner prejudicial to the security of the State or from acting in any manner prejudicial to the maintenance of public order or from acting in any manner prejudicial to the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community it is necessary so to do.

Answer 49

Under the National Security Act, an individual can be detained without a charge for up to 12 months; the state government needs to be intimated that a person has been detained under the NSA. No such order shall remain in force for more than 12 days unless approved by the State Government. A person detained under the National Security Act can be held for 10 days without being told the charges against them. Appeal: The detained person can appeal before a high court advisory board but they are not allowed a lawyer during the trial.

Answer 50

Preventive detention laws in India date back to early days of the colonial era when the Bengal Regulation III of 1818 was enacted to empower the government to arrest anyone for defence or maintenance of public order without giving the person recourse to judicial proceedings. A century later, the British government enacted the Rowlatt Acts of 1919 that allowed confinement of a suspect without trial.

Answer 51

The Central Government and each State Government shall, whenever necessary, constitute one or more Advisory Boards for the purposes of this Act. Every such Board shall consist of three persons who are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as, Judges of a High Court, and such persons shall be appointed by the appropriate Government. The appropriate Government shall appoint one of the members of the Advisory Board who is, or has been, a Judge of a High Court to be its Chairman, and in the case of a Union territory, the appointment to the Advisory Board of any person who is a Judge of the High Court of a State shall be with the previous approval of the State Government concerned.

Answer 52

As provided in this Act, in every case where a detention order has been made under this Act, the appropriate Government shall, within 3 weeks from the date of detention of a person under the order, place before the Advisory Board constituted by it, the grounds on which the order has been made and the representation if any made by the person affected by the order and in case where the order has been made by an officer.

Answer 53

In the normal course, if a person is arrested, he or she is guaranteed certain basic rights. These include the right to be informed of the reason for the arrest. Section 50 of the Criminal Procedure Code (Cr.PC) mandates that the person arrested has to be informed of the grounds of arrest, and the right to bail. Sections 56 and 76 of the Cr. PC also provides that a person has to be produced before a court within 24 hours of arrest. Additionally, Article 22(1) of the Constitution says an arrested person cannot be denied the right to consult, and to be defended by, a legal practitioner of his choice.

Answer 54

A person could be kept in the dark about the reasons for his arrest for up to five days, and in exceptional circumstances not later than 10 days. Even when providing the grounds for arrest, the government can withhold information which it considers to be against public interest to disclose. The arrested person is also not entitled to the aid of any legal practitioner in any matter connected with the proceedings before an advisory board, which is constituted by the government for dealing with NSA cases.

Answer 55

Hamas is a Palestinian Islamist political organization and militant group that has waged war on Israel since the group’s 1987 founding, most notably through suicide bombings and rocket attacks. It seeks to replace Israel with a Palestinian state. It also governs Gaza independently of the Palestinian Authority.

Answer 56

It is the largest and most populous of the Greek islands. Crete became part of Greece in December 1913. It is located in the southern part of the Aegean Seaseparating the Aegean from the Libyan Sea.

Answer 57

Context: 164th birth anniversary of Sree Narayana Guru observed on 2nd September. Who was Sree Narayana Guru? Narayana Guru (1856 – 1928) was a social reformer. He has been credited with transforming the social fabric of kerala and changing the beliefs of keralites in ways unimaginable at that point in time. He was born into an Ezhava family in an era when people from such communities, which were regarded as Avarna, faced much social injustice in the caste-ridden society of Kerala.

Answer 58

He led a reform movement in Kerala, rejected casteism, and promoted new values of spiritual freedom and social equality. He stressed the need for the spiritual and social upliftment of the downtrodden by their own efforts through the establishment of temples and educational institutions. In the process, he denounced the superstitions that clouded the fundamental Hindu cultural convention of caste. He preached the ‘oneness’ of humanity, crossing the boundaries of caste and creed. In 1888, he installed an idol of siva at Aravippuram in Kerala in his effort to show that the consecration of god’s image was not a monopoly of the brahmins. This is popularly known as Aravippuram movement. In one temple he consecrated at Kalavancode, he kept mirrors instead of idols. This symbolised his message that the divine was within each individual. He also founded an Advaita Ashram in Kalady. He also lent his support to the Vaikkom Satyagraha which was aimed at temple entry in Travancore for the lower castes. Mahatma Gandhi met Guru during this time.

Answer 59

He contributed many important literary works, the most influential being Atmopadesa Satakam which he composed in 1897.

Answer 60

Context: Approved by the Union Cabinet recently. What is it? It is a New National Architecture for Civil Services Capacity Building. It is also a Comprehensive reform of the capacity building apparatus at individual, institutional and process levels for efficient public service delivery.

Answer 61

PM led Public Human Resources (HR) Council to approve and monitor Civil Service Capacity Building Plans. Capacity Building Commission to harmonize training standards, create shared faculty and resources, and have supervisory role over all Central Training Institutions. Wholly owned Special Purpose Vehicle to own and operate the online learning platform and facilitate world-class learning content market-place. Coordination Unit headed by the Cabinet Secretary.

Answer 62

Supporting Transition from ‘Rules based’ to ‘Roles based’ HR Management. To emphasize on ‘on-site learning’ to complement the ‘off-site’ learning, To create an ecosystem of shared training infrastructure including that of learning materials, institutions and personnel, To calibrate all Civil Service positions to a Framework of Roles, Activities and Competencies (FRACs) approach and to create and deliver learning content relevant to the identified FRACs in every Government entity. To make available to all civil servants, an opportunity to continuously build and strengthen their Behavioral, Functional and Domain Competencies in their self-driven and mandated learning paths. To enable all the Central Ministries and Departments and their Organizations to directly invest their resources towards co-creation and sharing the collaborative and common ecosystem of learning through an annual financial subscription for every employee. To encourage and partner with the best-in-class learning content creators including public training institutions, universities, start-tips and individual experts, To undertake data analytics in respect of data emit provided by iGOT- Karmayogi pertaining to various aspects of capacity building, content creation, user feedback and mapping of competencies and identify areas for policy reforms.

Answer 63

The Programme will be delivered by setting up an Integrated Government Online Training-iGOTKarmayogiPlatform. · The platform brings the scale and state-of-the-art infrastructure to augment the capacities of over two crore officials in India. · The platform will evolve into a vibrant and world-class market place for content where carefully curated and vetted digital e-learning material will be made available. · Besides capacity building, service matters like confirmation after probation period, deployment, work assignment and notification of vacancies etc. would eventually be integrated with the proposed competency framework.

Answer 64

Capacity Building Commission: To assist the PM Public Human Resources Council in approving the Annual Capacity Building Plans. To exercise functional supervision over all Central Training Institutions dealing with civil services capacity building. To create shared learning resources, including internal and external faculty and resource centers. To coordinate and supervise the implementation of the Capacity Building Plans with the stakeholder Departments. To set norms for common mid-career training programs across all civil services. A wholly owned Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV): It will be set up under Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013. It will be a “not-for-profit” company. It will own and manage iGOT-Karmayogi platform. The SPV will create and operationalize the content, market place and manage key business services ofiGOT-Karmayogi platform, relating to content validation, independent proctored assessments and telemetry data availability. It will own all Intellectual Property Rights on behalf of the Government of India. Public Human Resources Council: It will include select Union Ministers, Chief Ministers, eminent public HR practitioners, thinkers, global thought leaders and Public Service functionaries under the Chairmanship of Hon’ble Prime Minister. It will serve as the apex body for providing strategic direction to the task of Civil Services Reform and capacity building. Larger significance of the programme: It aims to prepare the Indian Civil Servant for the future by making him more creative, constructive, imaginative, innovative, proactive, professional, progressive, energetic, enabling, transparent and technology-enabled. Empowered with specific role-competencies, the civil servant will be able to ensure efficient service delivery of the highest quality standards.

Answer 65

Why in News? A limit has been imposed on total rewards under the Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS). Limits imposed (Not so important for the exam. However, have a brief overview of the changes): The total reward which may be granted to an Import Export Code (IEC) holder under the scheme shall not exceed Rs.2 Crore per IEC of exports made in the period 1.9.2020 to 31.12.2020. Any IEC holder who has not made any exports for a period of one year preceding 1.9.2020 or any new IECs obtained on or after 1st September would not be eligible for submitting any claim under MEIS. About MEIS- What is it? Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS) under Foreign Trade Policy of India (FTP 2015-20) is one of the two schemes introduced in Foreign Trade Policy of India 2015-20, as a part of Exports from India Scheme (The other scheme is Service Exports from India Scheme (SEIS)). The rewards are given by way of duty credit scrips to exporters. The MEIS is notified by the DGFT (Directorate General of Foreign Trade) and implemented by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Answer 66

To offset infrastructural inefficiencies and associated costs involved in export of goods/products, which are produced/manufactured in India, especially those having high export intensity, employment potential and thereby enhancing India’s export competitiveness.

Answer 67

Focus Product Scheme (FPS). 2. Focus Market Scheme (FMS). 3. Market Linked Focus Product Scheme (MLFPS). 4. Infrastructure incentive scheme. 5. Vishesh Krishi Gramin Upaj Yojna (VKGUY).

Answer 68

Context: The Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) has rejected a plea from Red Bull, manufacturer of an energy drink, for the removal of a trademark registered in the name of Dr. Reddy’s Laboratories Limited. What’s the issue? Red Bull has adopted a trademark with tagline “Gives You Wings” and said due to the extensive publicity, the concept of an animal/human acquiring wings after consumption of the Red Bull Energy Drink has become exclusively associated with it. However, another trademark was registered in November 2001 with the tagline “Your Wings to Life”, in the name of Dr. Reddy’s Laboratories Limited. Now, Red Bull had sought its cancellation.

Answer 69

The rival trademarks are neither deceptively similar nor identical with. The applicant mark “Your Wings to life” is not the main mark. It is the sub-brand. Therefore, the goodwill and reputation alleged by the applicant is not pertaining to the main mark Red Bull. Hence, both trademarks are not similar.

Answer 70

In layman’s language, it is a visual symbol which may be a word signature, name, device, label, numerals or combination of colours used by one undertaking on goods or services or other articles of commerce to distinguish it from other similar goods or services originating from a different undertaking.

Answer 71

The selected mark should be capable of being represented graphically (that is in the paper form). It should be capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one undertaking from those of others. It should be used or proposed to be used mark in relation to goods or services for the purpose of indicating or so as to indicate a connection in the course of trade between the goods or services and some person have the right to use the mark with or without identity of that person.

Answer 72

Any name (including personal or surname of the applicant or predecessor in business or the signature of the person), which is not unusual for trade to adopt as a mark. An invented word or any arbitrary dictionary word or words, not being directly descriptive of the character or quality of the goods/service. Letters or numerals or any combination thereof. The right to proprietorship of a trademark may be acquired by either registration under the Act or by use in relation to particular goods or service. Devices, including fancy devices or symbols Monograms Combination of colors or even a single color in combination with a word or device Shape of goods or their packaging Marks constituting a 3- dimensional sign. Sound marks when represented in conventional notation or described in words by being graphically represented.

Answer 73

The Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks heads the TRADE MARKS Registry offices and functions as the Registrar of TRADE MARKS.

Answer 74

It was constituted on September 15, 2003 by the Indian Government to hear and resolve the appeals against the decisions of the registrar under the Indian Trademarks Act, 1999 and the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999. · Since April 2, 2007, IPAB has been authorized to hear and adjudicate upon the appeals from most of the decisions, orders or directions made by the Patent Controller under the Patents Act. Therefore, all pending appeals of Indian High Courts under the Patents Act were transferred to IPAB.

Answer 75

Each Bench of the IPAB includes a Judicial Member and a Technical Member. The qualifications for appointment as a technical member of the IPAB are mentioned in The Trade Marks Act and the Patents Act. Jurisdiction: Appeals from the decision of the Controller to the IPAB must be made within three months from the date of the decision/ order or direction, according to the, or within such further time as the IPAB permits, with the appropriate fees. An extension is available for filing the appeal by way of a Condonation of Delay (COD) petition.

Answer 76

What? 13th edition of Global Innovation Index released. · The index is a leading reference for measuring an economy’s innovation performance. Released By? The GII is co-published by Cornell University, INSEAD, and the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO), a specialized agency of the United Nations.

Answer 77

Theme: Who Will Finance Innovation? is timely given the human and global economic damage wreaked by the COVID-19 global pandemic.

Answer 78

GII rankings are based on 80 indicators, from traditional measurements like research and development investments and international patent and trademark applications.

Answer 79

This year, India climbed four spots and is now at 48th position in the list. India is at the top position among the nations in central and southern Asia. India has now become the third most innovative lower middle-income economy in the world. India ranks in the top 15 in indicators such as ICT (Information and Communication Technology) services exports, government online services, graduates in science and engineering, and R&D-intensive global companies.

Answer 80

The rankings show stability at the top but a gradual “eastward shift in the locus of innovation” as Asian economies like China, India, the Philippines and Vietnam have advanced considerably in the innovation ranking over the years. Top 5: Switzerland, Sweden, the US, the UK and the Netherlands lead the innovation ranking.

Answer 81

What? 118 mobile apps blocked. By? The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. How? By invoking it’s power under section 69A of the Information Technology Act read with the relevant provisions of the Information Technology (Procedure and Safeguards for Blocking of Access of Information by Public) Rules 2009. Why? In view of the emergent nature of threats. It has been said that these apps are engaged in activities which is prejudicial to sovereignty and integrity of India, defence of India, security of state and public order.

Answer 82

Government had received many complaints from various sources including several reports about misuse of some mobile apps available on Android and iOS platforms for stealing and surreptitiously transmitting users’ data in an unauthorized manner to servers which have locations outside India. The compilation of these data, its mining and profiling by elements hostile to national security and defence of India, which ultimately impinges upon the sovereignty and integrity of India, is a matter of very deep and immediate concern which requires emergency measures. The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre, Ministry of Home Affairs has also sent an exhaustive recommendation for blocking these malicious apps.

Answer 83

This was the goverment’s third round of bans. Besides, the Centre’s latest move comes in the backdrop of the tension between India and China on the Line of Actual Control (LAC). China’s People’s Liberation Army (PLA) has, for over four months now, been trying to shift its boundary with India in Ladakh.

Answer 84

Section 69A of the IT Act, empowers the Central Government to order that access to certain websites and computer resources be blocked in the interest of the defense of the country, its sovereignty and integrity, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order or for preventing incitement to the commission of an offence.

Answer 85

Context: A brochure featuring Entrepreneurs in Residence (EIR) under the National Initiative for Developing and Harnessing Innovations (NIDHI) programme was recently launched. What is Entrepreneurs-in-Residence (EIR) Programme? It is under the National Initiative for Developing and Harnessing innovations (NIDHI) of Department of Science and Technology. It supports aspiring or budding entrepreneur of considerable potential for pursuing a promising technology business idea over a period up to 18 months with a subsistence grant up to Rs 30000 per month with a maximum cap for total support of Rs 3.6 lakh to each EIR over a maximum of 18 months.

Answer 86

Department of Science & Technology has launched a NIDHI program (National Initiative for Developing and Harnessing Innovations) under which programmes for setting up of incubators, seed fund, accelerators and ‘Proof of concept’ grant for innovators and entrepreneurs have been launched. · Under NIDHI, PRAYAS (Promoting and Accelerating Young and Aspiring innovators & Startups) programme has been initiated in which established Technology Business Incubators (TBI) are supported with PRAYAS grant to support innovators and entrepreneurs with grants for ‘Proof of Concept’ and developing prototypes.

Answer 87

Context: Maharashtra Chief Minister Uddhav Thackeray has announced the reservation of 600 acres of Aarey land near Sanjay Gandhi National Park (SGNP) as forest, claiming it as the first instance of an extensive forest blossoming within the limits of metropolis anywhere in the world.

Answer 88

A reserve forest denotes forests accorded a certain degree of protection. The term was first introduced in the Indian Forest Act, 1927 in British India, to refer to certain forests granted protection under the British crown in British India, but not associated suzerainty. Unlike national parks or wildlife sanctuaries of India, reserved forests are declared by the respective state governments. At present, reserved forests and protected forests differ in one important way: Rights to all activities like hunting, grazing, etc. in reserved forests are banned unless specific orders are issued otherwise. In protected areas, rights to activities like hunting and grazing are sometimes given to communities living on the fringes of the forest, who sustain their livelihood partially or wholly from forest resources or products. The Indian Forests Act 1927 defines the procedure to be followed for declaring an area to be a reserved forest, a protected forest or a village forest.

Answer 89

Why in News? There have been reports that a Special Frontier Force (SFF) unit, referred to as Vikas Battalion, has been instrumental in occupying some key heights on the Line of Actual Control (LAC) with China in Ladakh to thwart any occupation by the Chinese troops. What is the Special Frontier Force (SFF)? SFF was raised in the immediate aftermath of the 1962 Sino-India war. It was a covert outfit which recruited Tibetans (now it has a mixture of Tibetans and Gorkhas) and initially went by the name of Establishment 22. It falls under the purview of the Cabinet Secretariat where it is headed by an Inspector General who is an Army officer of the rank of Major General. The units that comprise the SFF are known as Vikas battalions. Strictly speaking, the SFF units are not part of the Army but they function under operational control of the Army. Women soldiers too form a part of SFF units and perform specialised tasks.

Answer 90

It is a village in Leh, Ladakh, India. It is located in the Durbuk tehsil, in the area known as “Chushul valley”. It is close to Rezang Laand Panggong Lake at a height of 4,360 metres. Chushul is one of the five officially agreed Border Personnel Meeting points between the Indian Army and the People’s Liberation Army of China for regular consultations and interactions between the two armies to improve relations. This place is famous for the Indian Army who fought to the ‘last man, last round’ at Rezang La (Chushul) on November 18, 1962. Without this crucial victory, the territory might have been captured by China.

Answer 91

The first hour of every parliamentary sitting is termed as Question hour. It is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure of the House. During this time, the members ask questions and the ministers usually give answers. Question Hour in both Houses is held on all days of the session. But there are two days when an exception is made: There is no Question Hour on the day the President addresses MPs from both Houses in the Central Hall. Question Hour is not scheduled on the day the Finance Minister presents the Budget. Why in News? The Lok Sabha Secretariat has officially released the schedule for the monsoon Parliament session that starts on September 14, with Question Hour being dropped.

Answer 92

The Union Cabinet has approved a Bill to include Kashmiri, Dogri and Hindi as official languages in the newly-created Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. Only English and Urdu were official languages in the erstwhile State.

Answer 93

It is the largest private port of India located on the north shores of the Gulf of Kutch. Why in News? Mundra Port terminal deal under scrutiny over link with Chinese company. In this regard, the government is evaluating an agreement between the Adani Ports’ French joint venture partner CMA CGM and the China Merchants Group.

Answer 94

Why in News? 8 immunity boosting products launched under Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Priyojana (PMBJP) for sale through Janaushadhi Kendras across country. About PMBJP: It is a campaign launched by the Department of Pharmaceuticals of the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers to provide quality medicines at affordable prices to the masses through special kendra’s known as Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Kendra. Initially launched in 2008, the scheme was rechristened in 2015.

Answer 95

Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI) is the implementing agency of PMBJP. BPPI (Bureau of Pharma Public Sector Undertakings of India) has been established under the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Govt. of India, with the support of all the CPSUs.

Answer 96

Ensure access to quality medicines. Extend coverage of quality generic medicines so as to reduce the out of pocket expenditure on medicines and thereby redefine the unit cost of treatment per person. Create awareness about generic medicines through education and publicity so that quality is not synonymous with only high price. A public programme involving Government, PSUs, Private Sector, NGO, Societies, Co-operative Bodies and other Institutions. Create demand for generic medicines by improving access to better healthcare through low treatment cost and easy availability wherever needed in all therapeutic categories.

Answer 97

Why in News? Plea in Supreme Court over certain Special Marriage Act provisions. The petition seeks the court’s directions to strike down certain Sections. What are the controversial provisions? Why they should be struck down? Section 5 of the (Act) requires that a notice of intended marriage to be given by the parties to the marriage to the Marriage Officer of the district where at least one of the parties to the marriage has resided for a period of not less than thirty days immediately preceding the date on which such notice is given. Section 6 mandates that all such notices received shall be entered in the marriage notice book and the Marriage Officer shall publish a notice by affixing a copy thereof to some conspicuous place in his office, Sections6(2) and 6(3): The provisions under the Act require parties to an intended marriage to publish their private details for public scrutiny 30 days prior to the intended marriage. This provision violates the right to privacy of the parties. The right to privacy is held to be an aspect of the right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution. The requirement is also in violation of right to equality under Article 14 of the Constitution since no other laws prescribe such a requirement.

Answer 98

The SMA is a law which allows solemnization of marriages without going through any religious customs or rituals. People from different castes or religions or states get married under SMA in which marriage is solemnized by way of registration. The prime purpose of the Act was to address Inter-religious marriages and to establish marriage as a secular institution bereft of all religious formalities, which required registration alone.

Answer 99

The SMA prescribes an elaborate procedure to get the marriage registered. One of the parties to the marriage has to give a notice of the intended marriage to the marriage officer of the district where at least one of the parties to the marriage has resided for at least 30 days immediately prior to the date on which such notice is given. Such notice is then entered in the marriage notice book and the marriage officer publishes a notice of marriage at some conspicuous place in his office. The notice of marriage published by the marriage officer includes details of the parties like names, date of birth, age, occupation, parents’ names and details, address, pin code, identity information, phone number etc. Anybody can then raise objections to the marriage on various grounds provided under the Act. If no objection is raised within the 30 day period, then marriage can be solemnized. If objections are raised, then the marriage officer has to inquire into the objections after which he will decide whether or not to solemnize the marriage.

Answer 100

Why in News? Recently, the UNSC threw out a Pakistani attempt to get two Indians designated as terrorists under Resolution 1267. This was the third such attempt by Pak this year. What is UNSC 1267 committee? It was first set up in 1999, and strengthened after the September 11, 2001 attacks. It is now known as the Da’esh and Al Qaeda Sanctions Committee. It comprises all permanent and non-permanent members of the UNSC. The 1267 list of terrorists is a global list, with a UNSC stamp. It is full of Pakistani nationals and residents.

Answer 101

Any member state can submit a proposal for listing an individual, group, or entity. The 1267 Committee meets as required with a notice of four working days. Decisions on listing and de-listing are adopted by consensus. The proposal is sent to all the members, and if no member objects within five working days, the proposal is adopted. An “objection” means curtains for the proposal. Any member of the Committee may also put a “technical hold” on the proposal, and ask for more information from the proposing member state. During this time, other members may also place their own holds. The matter remains on the “pending” list of the Committee until such time as the member state that has placed the hold decides to turn its decision into an “objection”, or until all those who have placed holds remove them within a timeframe laid down by the Committee. Pending issues must be resolved in six months, but the member state that has placed the hold may ask for an additional three months. At the end of this period, if an objection is not placed, the matter is considered approved.

Answer 102

The proposal must include acts or activities indicating the proposed individual/group/entity had participated “in the financing, planning, facilitating, preparing, or perpetrating of acts or activities” linked to “ISIL (Da’esh), Al-Qaida or any cell, affiliate, splinter group or derivative thereof”.

Answer 103

Why in News? Novichok, Germany says was used to poison Alexei Navalny, a critic of Russian President Vladimir Putin who is in a coma in a Berlin hospital. What is Novichok? It was developed in the Soviet Union in the 1970s and 1980s. The name Novichok means “newcomer”. It is used for a family of highly toxic nerve agents. Novichok agents are believed to be five to 10 times more lethal than other poisonous substances like VX gas.

Answer 104

The weaponisation of any chemical is banned under the 1997 Chemical Weapons Convention, of which Moscow is a signatory. However, Moscow is not believed ever to have declared Novichok or its ingredients to the Hague-based Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW), which oversees a treaty banning their use.

Answer 105

Novichok were added to the Chemical Weapons Convention’s list of controlled substances last year. This was the first time that the list was updated since it was agreed upon in the 1990s.

Answer 106

It is a multilateral treaty that bans chemical weapons and requires their destruction within a specified period of time. The CWC is implemented by the Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW), which is headquartered in The Hague (OPCW won the 2013 Nobel peace prize). The CWC is open to all nations and currently has 193 states-parties. Israel has signed but has yet to ratify the convention. Three states have neither signed nor ratified the convention- Egypt, North Korea and South Sudan.

Answer 107

Developing, producing, acquiring, stockpiling, or retaining chemical weapons. The direct or indirect transfer of chemical weapons. Chemical weapons use or military preparation for use. Assisting, encouraging, or inducing other states to engage in CWC-prohibited activity. The use of riot control agents “as a method of warfare.”

Answer 108

Why in News? Chief of Defence Staff Gen. Bipin Rawat has backed the ‘Quad’ as a “good mechanism” to ensure freedom of navigation in the Indian Ocean-Pacific region — a statement that could rile up China. What is Quad grouping? The quadrilateral security dialogue includes Japan, India, United States and Australia. All four nations find a common ground of being the democratic nations and common interests of unhindered maritime trade and security. The idea was first mooted by Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe in 2007. However, the idea couldn’t move ahead with Australia pulling out of it.

Answer 109

Quad is an opportunity for like-minded countries to share notes and collaborate on projects of mutual interest. Members share a vision of an open and free Indo-Pacific. Each is involved in development and economic projects as well as in promoting maritime domain awareness and maritime security. It is one of the many avenues for interaction among India, Australia, Japan and the US and should not be seen in an exclusive context.

Answer 110

There is a general understanding that the Quad would not take on a military dimension against any country. The strategic community in China, nevertheless, had branded it an emerging “Asian NATO”. Notably, Japanese PM Shinzo Abe’s “Confluence of Two Seas” address to the Indian Parliament gave a fresh impetus to the Quad concept. This recognised the economic rise of India.

Answer 111

Context: Gravitational waves from a collision between two black holes were detected in 2019 at the gravitational wave observatory LIGO (United States) and the detector Virgo (Italy). It was calculated to have come from roughly 17 billion light years away, and from a time when the universe was about half its age. What’s unique about this meger? One of the two parent black holes was of an unusual “intermediate mass”, which challenges traditional scientific knowledge. It is the first “intermediate mass” black hole ever observed. What are Gravitational Waves? They are invisible ripples that form when a star explodes in a supernova; when two big stars orbit each other; and when two black holes merge. Travelling at the speed of light, gravitational waves squeeze and stretch anything in their path. Proposed by Albert Einstein in his General Theory of Relativity over a century ago. It was only in 2015, however, that the first gravitational wave was actually detected — by LIGO.

Answer 112

A black hole is an object in space that is so dense and has such strong gravity that no matter or light can escape its pull. Because no light can escape, it is black and invisible. There’s a boundary at the edge of a black hole called the event horizon, which is the point of no return — any light or matter that crosses that boundary is sucked into the black hole. It would need to travel faster than the speed of light to escape, which is impossible. Anything that crosses the event horizon is destined to fall to the very centre of the black hole and be squished into a single point with infinite density, called the singularity.

Answer 113

It is a massive observatory for detecting cosmic gravitational waves and for carrying out experiments. The objective is to use gravitational-wave observations in astronomical studies. The project operates three gravitational-wave (GW) detectors. Two are at Hanford, Washington, north-western US, and one is at Livingston in Louisiana, south-eastern US. The proposed LIGO India project aims to move one advanced LIGO detector from Hanford to India.

Answer 114

Why in News? NASA says asteroid 465824 2010 FR, which is twice as big as the Pyramid of Giza, may cross the Earth’s orbit on September 6. It is classified as a Near-Earth Object (NEO) and a potentially hazardous asteroid (PHA). What are NEOs? NASA defines NEOs as comets and asteroids nudged by the gravitational attraction of nearby planets into orbits that allow them to enter the Earth’s neighbourhood. These objects are composed mostly of water ice with embedded dust particles.

Answer 115

Asteroids are rocky objects that orbit the Sun, much smaller than planets. They are also called minor planets. As per NASA, 994,383 is the count for known asteroids, the remnants from the formation of the solar system over 4.6 billion years ago.

Answer 116

Most such objects can be found in the asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter, which is estimated to contain somewhere between 1.1-1.9 million asteroids. The explanation for the concentration of asteroids in this belt comes from the formation of Jupiter, whose gravity brought an end to the formation of any planetary bodies in this region, as a result of which the smaller bodies kept colliding with each other, fragmenting into asteroids.

Answer 117

Trojans, which are asteroids that share an orbit with a larger planet. Near-Earth Asteroids (NEA), which have orbits that pass close by the Earth. Those that cross the Earth’s orbit are called Earth-crossers.

Answer 118

To look for information about the formation and history of planets and the sun, since asteroids were formed at the same time as other objects in the solar system. To look for asteroids that might be potentially hazardous.

Answer 119

In the asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter Over 1,400 asteroids are classified as potentially hazardous asteroids (PHAs). According to NASA, “Potentially Hazardous Asteroids (PHAs) are currently defined based on parameters that measure the asteroid’s potential to make threatening close approaches to the Earth”. Specifically, all asteroids with a minimum orbit intersection distance (MOID) of 0.05 au or less are considered PHAs.

Answer 120

The most drastic measure undertaken so far is the Asteroid Impact and Deflection Assessment (AIDA), which includes NASA’s Double Asteroid Redirection Test (DART) mission and the European Space Agency’s (ESA) Hera. The mission’s target is Didymos, a binary near-Earth asteroid, one of whose bodies is of the size that could pose a significant threat to Earth. In 2018, NASA announced that it had started the construction of DART, which is scheduled to launch in 2021 with an aim to slam into the smaller asteroid of the Didymos system at around 6 km per second in 2022. Hera, which is scheduled to launch in 2024, will arrive at the Didymos system in 2027 to measure the impact crater produced by the DART collision and study the change in the asteroid’s orbital trajectory.

Answer 121

Why in News? The United Nations (UN) Special Rapporteurs have raised several concerns about the draft Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) notification, 2020 and have asked the government how its provisions correspond with India’s obligations under international law. Who are UN Special Rapporteurs? They are independent experts working on behalf of the United Nations. They work on a country or a thematic mandate specified by the United Nations Human Rights Council.

Answer 122

The draft notification includes under Clauses 14 (2) and 26 an exemption of several large industries and projects from public consultation — as part of the environment impact assessment process — such as chemical manufacturing and petroleum products; building, construction and area development; inland waterways and expansion or widening of national highways. These exemptions are unwarranted given the substantial environmental and human rights negative impacts that can arise from projects in these areas. The draft notification does not require publication of information or holding of public consultation for projects labelled by the Central government as ‘involving strategic considerations’. The draft does not provide clarification regarding the criteria for categorizing projects ‘strategic’ by the Central Government and hence could be open to excessively broad interpretations. There is a clause on “post-facto clearance”. These are for projects that have started without obtaining the required environmental clearances or permissions. This practice contradicts basic principles related to the environmental rule of law.

Answer 123

Under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, India notified its first EIA norms in 1994, setting in place a legal framework for regulating activities that access, utilise, and affect (pollute) natural resources. Every development project has been required to go through the EIA process for obtaining prior environmental clearance ever since. The 1994 EIA notification was replaced with a modified draft in 2006. Earlier this year, the government redrafted it again to incorporate the amendments and relevant court orders issued since 2006, and to make the EIA “process more transparent and expedient.”

Answer 124

It shortens the period of public consultation hearings to a maximum of 40 days. It reduces from 30 to 20 days the time provided for the public to submit their responses during a public hearing for any application seeking environmental clearance. It also allows the declaration of some areas as “economically sensitive areas” without a public hearing or environmental clearance, and several “red” and “orange”-classified toxic industries could now operate as close as 0-5 km from a Protected Area in “callous disregard” for forests. The increased validity of the environment clearances for mining projects (50 years versus 30 years currently) and river valley projects (15 years versus 10 years currently) raises the risk of irreversible environmental, social and health consequences on account of the project remaining unnoticed for long.

Answer 125

Why in News? Mizoram Chief Minister Zoramthanga has asked the Assam Rifles to shift its base from the heart of State capital Aizawl to Zokhawsang about 15 km away at the earliest. What’s the issue? The stand-off between the Mizoram government and the Assam Rifles began on August 18, when 15 personnel of the force’s 46th Battalion allegedly forced their way into the State ignoring COVID-19 safety protocols. Previously, The Mizo National Front government had in 1988 asked the Assam Rifles to shift from Aizawl after the killing of 12 civilians in an “encounter”.

Answer 126

Assam Rifles which is also referred to as the Sentinels of North East is the oldest paramilitary force of India. It was formed as a single unit called Cachar Levy in 1835 to assist the British rulers in maintaining peace in the Northeast. Incremental gains were accompanied by name changes for the primary law enforcement agency – Assam Frontier Police to Assam Military Police to Eastern Bengal to Assam Military Police – before Assam Rifles became the official name in 1917. It served in both the World Wars.

Answer 127

It was after the Chinese aggression in 1962 that the Assam Rifles battalions were placed under the operational control of the Army. Today, the administrative control of Assam Rifles lies with the Home Ministry, while the operational control is with the Defence Ministry.

Answer 128

It is an online Business Simulation Game conducted every year. It is aimed at ensuring that participating executives from various industries get an introduction to the complexities of running an organisation and gain expertise and skills from this event. National Management Games (NMG) is one of its kind platform for Corporate Managers to face the thrill of Managing Business in a competitive mode. It is one of the most anticipated and reputable annual events based on Business Management Simulation, conducted by AIMA (All India Management Association). The participants experience the complexities of running a company by focusing on resource management, market trends, cost analysis, product positioning, production planning, and inventory control. Why in News? NTPC emerged as winner in this edition.

Answer 129

Context: Teacher’s Day is observed annually on September 5. The day commemorates the birth anniversary of Radhakrishnan. radhakrishnan About Dr Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan: He was born on September 5, 1888 in Thiruthani, Tamil Nadu. He was India’s first Vice President and second President.

Answer 130

His book, ‘The Philosophy of Rabindranath Tagore’ attracted global attention to Indian philosophy. His philosophy was grounded in Advaita Vedanta. He defended Hinduism against “uninformed Western criticism” and played a major role in the formation of contemporary Hindu identity. His other works include Indian Philosophy, (1923-27), The Philosophy of the Upanishads (1924), An Idealist View of Life (1932), Eastern Religions and Western Thought (1939), and East and West: Some Reflections (1955).

Answer 131

He was awarded the Bharat Ratna, India’s highest civilian award, in 1954. He received a knighthood in 1931 and honorary membership of the British Royal Order of Merit in 1963. He was elected chairman of UNESCO’s executive board in 1948. He was one of the founders of Helpage India, a renowned NGO for elderly underprivileged in India. He had also formed the Krishnarpan Charity Trust along with Ghanshyam Das Birla and some other social workers in the pre-independence era. He was the first Indian to hold a chair at the University of Oxford – the Spalding Professor of Eastern Religion and Ethics (1936-1952) In 1930, he was appointed Haskell lecturer in Comparative Religion at the University of Chicago.

Answer 132

Why in News? A judge of the Punjab and Haryana High Court has recused from hearing the anticipatory bail application moved by former Punjab Director General of Police (DGP) Sumedh Singh Saini, in connection with the case of disappearance and murder of a man in year 1991. The Judge, while recusing himself from the case referred the matter to the Chief Justice for listing. What is a recusal? Judicial disqualification, referred to as recusal, is the act of abstaining from participation in an official action such as a legal proceeding due to a conflict of interest of the presiding court official or administrative officer.

Answer 133

Motions to recuse or disqualify judges and other adjudicators have been made for all sorts of reasons. Most commonly such motions are predicated upon a claim that the judge is biased in favour of one party, or against another, or that a reasonable objective observer would think he might be.

Answer 134

Interest in the subject matter, or relationship with someone who is interested in it. Background or experience, such as the judge’s prior work as a lawyer. Personal knowledge about the parties or the facts of the case. Ex parte communications with lawyers or non-lawyers. Rulings, comments or conduct.

Answer 135

There are no definite rules on recusals by Judges. Justice J. Chelameswar in his opinion in Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India (2015) held that “Where a judge has a pecuniary interest, no further inquiry as to whether there was a ‘real danger’ or ‘reasonable suspicion’ of bias is required to be undertaken”. Besides, In taking oath of office, judges, both of the Supreme Court and of the high courts, promise to perform their duties, to deliver justice, “without fear or favour, affection or ill-will”. Need of the hour: Definite rules need to be framed in this regard. Judges should express their decisions in writing while recusing.

Answer 136

What is it? Both these indices are part of the ‘State of the Young Child’ in India report. It is a report brought out by non-governmental organisation Mobile Creches. About the young child outcomes index: It measures health, nutrition and cognitive growth with the help of indicators such as infant mortality rate, stunting and net attendance at the primary school level.

Answer 137

Top 5: Kerala, Goa, Tripura, Tamil Nadu and Mizoram are among the top five States for well-being of children. Eight States have scores below the country’s average: they are Assam, Meghalaya, Rajasthan, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.

Answer 138

Its objective is to understand the policy and environment enablers that influence a child’s well-being. How is it measured? It uses five policy enablers that influence child well-being outcomes, including poverty alleviation, strengthening primary healthcare, improving education levels, safe water supply and promotion of gender equity.

Answer 139

Top 5: Kerala, Goa, Sikkim, Punjab and Himachal Pradesh secured the top five positions. Eight States that have a below average score on the outcomes index also fared poorly on this one.

Answer 140

India spent ₹1,723 per child in 2018 on expenses towards child nutrition, healthcare, education and other necessary protection services. This is insufficient and fails to reach the entire eligible population. Therefore, the need of the hour is to Increase in public spending on children.

Answer 141

Context: The 5th BRICS Culture Ministers’ Meeting was held through video conference under the Chairpersonship of Russian Federation. Basic facts that you must know about BRICS: BRICS is an acronym for the grouping of the world’s leading emerging economies, namely Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa. In 2001, the British Economist Jim O’Neill coined the term BRIC to describe the four emerging economies of Brazil, Russia, India, and China. The grouping was formalised during the first meeting of BRIC Foreign Ministers in 2006. South Africa was invited to join BRIC in December 2010, after which the group adopted the acronym BRICS.

Answer 142

The chairmanship of the forum is rotated annually among the members, in accordance with the acronym B-R-I-C-S. The BRICS Leaders’ Summit is convened annually. During the Sixth BRICS Summit in Fortaleza (2014) the leaders signed the Agreement establishing the New Development Bank (NDB). They also signed the BRICS Contingent Reserve Arrangement.

Answer 143

Track I: Formal diplomatic engagement between the national governments. Track II: Engagement through government-affiliated institutions, e.g. state-owned enterprises and business councils. Track III: Civil society and People-to-People engagement.

Answer 144

Why in News? Greece rejects NATO mediation. It says ‘de-escalation’ only after Turkey withdraws vessels from Greek waters. What’s the issue? Over recent weeks, tensions have been rising in the waters of the Eastern Mediterranean, prompted by what seems like a simple rivalry over energy resources. Turkey has pursued an aggressive gas exploration effort, its research vessel heavily protected by warships of the Turkish Navy. There have been encounters with rival Greek vessels and a third Nato country, France, has become involved, siding with the Greeks. These tensions also highlight another shift in the region – the decline of US power.

Answer 145

Tensions are mounting to breaking point between Turkey and Greece over Turkey’s drilling work near the Mediterranean island of Cyprus, which like Greece is an EU member country. Turkey doesn’t recognize the divided island of Cyprus as a state and claims 44 per cent of Cyprus’ exclusive economic zone as its own. Cyprus was split along ethnic lines in 1974 when Turkey invaded in the wake of a coup by supporters of union with Greece.

Answer 146

It is an intergovernmental military alliance. Established by Washington treaty. Treaty that was signed on 4 April 1949. Headquarters — Brussels, Belgium. Headquarters of Allied Command Operations — Mons, Belgium.

Answer 147

It constitutes a system of collective defence whereby its independent member states agree to mutual defence in response to an attack by any external party. Composition: Since its founding, the admission of new member states has increased the alliance from the original 12 countries to 30. The most recent member state to be added to NATO was North Macedonia on 27 March 2020. NATO membership is open to “any other European state in a position to further the principles of this Treaty and to contribute to the security of the North Atlantic area.”

Answer 148

Political – NATO promotes democratic values and enables members to consult and cooperate on defence and security-related issues to solve problems, build trust and, in the long run, prevent conflict. Military – NATO is committed to the peaceful resolution of disputes. If diplomatic efforts fail, it has the military power to undertake crisis-management operations. These are carried out under the collective defence clause of NATO’s founding treaty – Article 5 of the Washington Treaty or under a United Nations mandate, alone or in cooperation with other countries and international organisations.

Answer 149

Why in News? Iran has granted IAEA inspectors access to one of two sites where undeclared nuclear activity may have taken place in the early 2000s. What’s the issue? Iran signed the nuclear deal in 2015 with the United States, Germany, France, Britain, China and Russia. Known as the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action, or JCPOA, it allows Iran only to keep a stockpile of 202.8 kilograms (447 pounds). However, as per IAEA reports, Iran continues to increase its stockpile of enriched uranium in violation of limitations set in the deal.

Answer 150

The suspected work on a uranium metal disk, which could be used as a nuclear weapon component, and on neutrons—which are used to trigger a nuclear implosion—point to Iranian work on a neutron initiator for a nuclear weapons test or nuclear weapons device. Iran’s stockpile of enriched uranium has grown by around 50% since February to 1,572 kilograms. That puts Iran’s stockpile of the nuclear fuel far above the limit of 202.8 kilograms stipulated in the 2015 nuclear accord. With 1,000 kilograms of low-enriched uranium, Iran would likely have enough material to fuel a single bomb once the material is further enriched, a process some experts believe could take as little as three months.

Answer 151

Set up as the world’s “Atoms for Peace” organization in 1957 within the United Nations family. Reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and Security Council. Headquarters in Vienna, Austria. Functions: Works with its Member States and multiple partners worldwide to promote the safe, secure and peaceful use of nuclear technologies. Seeks to promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy, and to inhibit its use for any military purpose, including nuclear weapons.

Answer 152

22 member states (must represent a stipulated geographic diversity) — elected by the General Conference (11 members every year) – 2 year term. At least 10 member states — nominated by the outgoing Board. Board members each receive one vote. Functions: Recommendations to the General Conference on IAEA activities and budget. Responsible for publishing IAEA standards. Responsible for making most of the policy of the IAEA. Appoints the Director General subject to General Conference approval.

Answer 153

Program of Action for Cancer Therapy (PACT). Human Health Program. Water Availability Enhancement Project. International Project on Innovative Nuclear Reactors and Fuel Cycles, 2000.

Answer 154

Why in News? This week, attributing the shortfall in GST collections to disruptions due to Covid-19, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman said the economy is facing an Act-of-God-like situation. In February this year too, the Finance Ministry had said that this pandemic “should be considered a case of natural calamity and Force majeure clause (FMC) may be invoked, wherever considered appropriate”.

Answer 155

The force majeure or “Act of God” clause has its origins in the Napoleonic Code. FMC is a clause that is present in most commercial contracts and is a carefully drafted legal arrangement in the event of a crisis. When the clause is triggered, parties can decide to break from their obligations temporarily or permanently without necessarily breaching the contract. Force majeure clause (FMC) is mentioned in the 2017 Manual for Procurement of Goods issued by the Department of Expenditure. Besides, some reference can also be found in Section 32 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 (the “Contract Act”).

Answer 156

Generally, an “Act of God” is understood to include only natural unforeseen circumstances, whereas force majeure is wider in its ambit and includes both naturally occurring events and events that occur due to human intervention.

Answer 157

War, riots, natural disasters or acts of God, strikes, introduction of new government policy imposing an embargo, boycotts, outbreak of epidemics and such situations are generally listed.

Answer 158

Court rulings have established that force majeure cannot be invoked when performance of the contract has become difficult, but only when it has become impossible. In April this year, the Bombay High Court did not accept the force majeure argument in a case where the petitioner argued that Covid-19-related lockdowns had frustrated a contract for supply of steel.

Answer 159

China’s Supreme People’s Court had recognised the 2002 SARS outbreak as a force majeure event. Singapore enacted the Covid-19 (Temporary Measures) Act in April to provide relief to businesses that could not perform their contractual obligations due to the pandemic. The Paris Commercial Court in July ruled that the pandemic could be equated to a force majeure event.

Answer 160

The International Chamber of Commerce has developed a Model Code on the force majeure clause reflecting current international practice. The Code states that the impediment triggering the operation of the force majeure clause must be beyond the party’s reasonable control; and that it could not reasonably have been foreseen at the time of the conclusion of the contract; and that the effects of the impediment could not reasonably have been avoided or overcome by the affected party.

Answer 161

Why in News? The Assam government has approved the addition of 30.53 sq. km (3,053 hectares) to the 884 sq. km Kaziranga National Park. Implications and significance of the move: The latest additions would help provide connectivity to Orang and Nameri National Parks across river Brahmaputra, besides the hills of Karbi Anglong to the south of the park, where the rhino, tiger, deer and other animals take refuge during the floods.

Answer 162

They are the areas that are set by the government to conserve the natural environment.” A national park has more restrictions as compared to a wildlife sanctuary. Their boundaries are fixed and defined. The main objective of a national park is to protect the natural environment of the area and biodiversity conservation.

Answer 163

Here, no human activity is allowed. Grazing of livestock and private tenurial rights are not permitted here. Species mentioned in the Schedules of the Wildlife Act are not allowed to be hunted or captured. No person shall destroy, remove, or exploit any wildlife from a National Park or destroy or damage the habitat of any wild animal or deprive any wild animal of its habitat within a national park. They cannot be downgraded to the status of a ‘sanctuary’.

Answer 164

National parks can be declared both by the Central Government and State governments. No alteration of the boundaries of a national park shall be made except on a resolution passed by the State Legislature.

Answer 165

Context: The 11th edition of exercise INDRA NAVY has begun. It is a biennial bilateral maritime exercise between Indian Navy and Russian Navy. Initiated in 2003, Ex INDRA NAVY epitomises the long-term strategic relationship between the two Navies.

Answer 166

Yanomami live in the rainforests and mountains of northern Brazil and southern Venezuela, and are, according to Survival International, the largest relatively isolated tribe in South America. They live in large, circular houses called yanos or shabonos, some of which can hold up to 400 people. It is a Yanomami custom that a hunter does not eat the meat he has killed. The Yanomami consider all people to be equal, and do not have a chief. Instead, all decisions are based on consensus after long discussions and debates. Why in News? Since the 1980s, the Yanomami have been facing an onslaught from illegal gold miners. It is believed that gold mined illegally in Yanomami land has most likely been coming to India since at least 2018. Calling the gold mined there as blood gold, they have recently asked the Indian government to stop buying this gold.

Answer 167

It says that if any person begs in any railway carriage or at a railway station, he shall be liable for punishment, which prescribes imprisonment for a term that may extend to one year, or with fine that may extend to ₹2,000, or with both. Why in News? The Ministry of Railways has proposed to decriminalise begging on trains or railway premises. In this regard, it has called for comments/suggestions on the proposed amendments to the Act.