Sepsis Flashcards

1
Q

what is colonisation?

A

the presence of a microbe in the human body without an inflammatory response

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2
Q

what is infection?

A

inflammation due to a microbe

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3
Q

what is bacteraemia?

A

the presence of viable bacteria in the blood

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4
Q

what is sepsis?

A

life threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection

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5
Q

what is septic shock>

A

a subset of sepsis with circulatory and cellular/metabolic dysfunction associated with a higher risk of mortality

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6
Q

what clinical features need to be present to diagnose septic shock?

A

sepsis
persistent hypotension
lactate >2

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7
Q

when would the SOFA score be used?

A

assessing sepsis outcomes in an ICU setting

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8
Q

what is the qSOFA used for?

A

screening for sepsis outcomes in acute settings - gives information about mortality

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9
Q

what three things are included in the qSOFA score?

A

RR >20
systolic BP <100
altered GCS

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10
Q

when does sepsis 6 need to be done after sepsis is suspected?

A

within one hour

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11
Q

what fluids can be given in sepsis?

A

colloids or crystalloids

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12
Q

when should vasopressors be given in sepsis?

A

1-6 hours after onset

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13
Q

what vasopressors are suitable for use in sepsis?

A

norepinephrine
epinephrine
vasopressin

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14
Q

what is involved in the sepsis 6 bundle (BUFALO)?

A
blood cultures 
urine output 
fluid resus 
antibiotics IV 
lactate measurement 
oxygen if needed
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15
Q

when should urine output be monitored in sepsis?

A

hourly

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16
Q

how many blood cultures should be taken in suspected sepsis?

A

one is enough

aim for three within the hour

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17
Q

when should blood cultures ideally be taken?

A

before antibiotics

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18
Q

what disease should antibiotics be given for prior to performing blood cultures?

A

purpura fulminans

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19
Q

what needs to be done prior to giving antibiotics if a patient has a large abscess and why?

A

drainage

abscesses have no blood supply so antibiotics will not penetrate

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20
Q

what antibiotics make up the four C’s?

A

co-amoxiclav
cephalosporins
clindamycin
ciprofloxacin

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21
Q

where in the body are gram positives often found?

A

skin and mucous membranes

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22
Q

what colour to gram positives stain and why?

A

blue/purple

due to thick peptidoglycan wall

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23
Q

what colour do gram negative bacteria stain and why?

A

pink/red

due to thin peptidoglycan wall

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24
Q

where are gram negatives often found inn the body?

A

GI tract

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25
where are anaerobes often found in the body?
``` mouth teeth throat sinuses lower bowel ```
26
where are atypical bacterias often found in the body?
chest | GU system
27
what are some general side effects of antibiotics?
N+V diarrhoea rashes candida infection
28
what are some possible side effects of penicillins?
hypersensitivity | skin reactions
29
what is a possible side effect of flucloxacillin and co-amoxiclav?
cholestatic jaundice
30
what are some possible side effects of macrolides?
GI disturbances hepatitis QT prolongation
31
what are some possible side effects of quinolones?
QT interval prolongation convulsions tendonitis
32
what are some possible side effects of aminoglycosides/glycopeptides?
nephrotoxicity | ototoxicity
33
what are some possible side effects of vancomycin when administered too quickly?
red man syndrome
34
what are some possible side effects of tetracyclines?
hepatotoxicity staining of teeth photosensitivity dysphagia
35
what are some possible side effects of nitrofurantoin?
peripheral neuropathy | pulmonary fibrosis
36
what are some possible side effects of chloramphenicol?
aplastic anaemia | grey baby syndrome
37
name some antibiotics that are enzyme inhibitors
``` erythromycin clarithromycin isoniazid metronidazole ciprofloxacin ```
38
name an antibiotic that is an enzyme inducer
rifampacin
39
what can reduce absorption of tetracyclines and quinolones?
antacids | calcium
40
what effect can broad spectrum antibiotics have on oral contraceptives?
can cause failure via entero-hepatic cycling
41
what interaction can occur between broad spectrum antibiotics and warfarin?
increased INR
42
what interaction can occur between metronidazole and alcohol?
makes patient unwell - disulfiram like interaction
43
what interaction can occur between quinolones and steroids?
tendonitis
44
what interaction can occur between quinolones and NSAIDs?
convulsions
45
describe the appearance of coliforms
gram negative rods
46
name some coliforms
e coli klebsiella proteus
47
name some antibiotics that may be active against gram negatives
beta lactams aminoglycosides macrolides tetracyclines
48
describe the appearance of haemophilus influenzae
gram negative coccobacillus
49
describe the oxygen requirements of haemophilus influenzae
usually aerobic can grow as a facultative anaerobe
50
what type of agar does haemophilus influenzae need to grow?
chocolate agar
51
what drugs are active against haemophilus influenzae?
amoxicillin (first line) | doxycycline
52
what time frame should sepsis six be delivered in?
one hour
53
which antibiotic class is broadly used to treat streptococci?
penicillins
54
what is atypical pneumonia?
pneumonia not caused by strep
55
name some examples of causes of atypical pneumonia
mycoplasma pneumoniae coxiella burnetii chlamydophila psittaci legionella
56
what is the main antibiotic used for atypical pneumonia?
doxycycline can also use clarithromycin
57
what type of antibiotic is doxycycline?
tetracycline
58
what type of antibiotic is clarithromycin?
macrolide
59
what antibiotic can be used for severe penicillin allergic atypical pneumonia?
quinolones such as levofloxacin
60
what are some risk factors for legionella?
``` smoking male sex COPD immunosuppression malignancy diabetes dialysis hot tubs ```
61
what is the mechanism of action of legionella infection?
invades and grows in alveolar macrophages as it mistakes them for their natural host
62
what are streptococci?
gram positive cocci that occur in pairs of chains
63
what is the oxygen requirement of streptococci?
facultative anaerobes
64
how are streptococci classified?
action on agar = haemolysis | antigens (Lancefield classification)
65
what is beta haemolysis?
complete haemolysis | presence of a clear zone
66
what is alpha haemolysis?
partial haemolysis agar goes a greenish colour
67
what is gamma haemolysis?
non haemolysis
68
what are the two main types of enterococcus?
``` E faecalis (more common) E Faecium ```
69
what is the antibiotic of choice for enterococcus?
amoxicillin IV
70
what antibiotic is given for enterococcus if penicillin allergic?
IV Vancomycin
71
what is VRE?
vancomycin resistant enterococcus
72
what is the main cause of CAP?
strep pneumoniae