Semester 2 Flashcards
List TWO cavities found in the body.
- Cranial
- Thoracic
- Abdominal
- Pelvic
Cavities are large spaces within the body that house organs and structures.
Name ONE cell that produces collagen and elastin fibers in connective tissue.
Fibroblasts
Fibroblasts are essential for the structural framework of tissues.
What happens in the transcription phase of protein synthesis?
- A copy of one gene is made into mRNA
- This travels out of the nucleus to a ribosome
Transcription is the first step in the process of gene expression.
State ONE location where tight junctions are found in the body.
- Stomach
- Intestines
- Bladder
Tight junctions are important for maintaining the integrity of epithelial layers.
During dorsiflexion, which direction does the foot move?
Bending the foot up
Dorsiflexion is a movement that decreases the angle between the foot and the leg.
What are Oestoblasts?
Osteoblast
Osteoblasts are cells that are responsible for bone formation.
What is the Haversian or central canal?
Haversian or central canal
The Haversian canal contains blood vessels and nerves.
What are Lamellae?
Lamellae
Lamellae are the concentric rings of bone matrix.
What is an Artery?
Artery
Arteries supply oxygenated blood to the bone.
Name ONE gene associated with rheumatoid arthritis.
DR1
These genes are linked to increased susceptibility to rheumatoid arthritis.
Describe ONE conventional procedure used to diagnose osteoporosis.
Dual x-ray absorptiometry OR a DXA scan OR X-ray
DXA scans measure bone mineral density to assess osteoporosis risk.
What mineral is required to ensure muscle contracts?
Calcium
Calcium ions play a crucial role in the process of muscle contraction by binding to troponin, which allows myosin heads to attach to actin filaments.
What is a key feature of skeletal muscle?
Striated
Skeletal muscle is characterized by its striated appearance due to the arrangement of myofibrils.
What is a key feature of smooth muscle?
Non-striated
Smooth muscle lacks the striations seen in skeletal muscle and is found in various internal organs.
Where is smooth muscle found?
Walls of blood vessels, walls of the gut, iris
Smooth muscle is responsible for involuntary movements in these locations.
Is skeletal muscle voluntary or involuntary?
Voluntary
Skeletal muscle is under conscious control, allowing for intentional movement.
Is smooth muscle voluntary or involuntary?
Involuntary
Smooth muscle operates without conscious control, managing functions like digestion and blood flow.
Name ONE movement that the pectoralis major muscle performs.
Draws arms forward
The pectoralis major is involved in shoulder flexion and medial rotation of the arm.
List ONE cause of fibromyalgia.
Poor mitochondrial functioning
Mitochondrial dysfunction may contribute to the energy deficits experienced in fibromyalgia.
List TWO signs and/or symptoms of fibromyalgia.
Widespread musculoskeletal pain, debilitating fatigue
These symptoms are commonly reported by individuals suffering from fibromyalgia.
True or False: Fibromyalgia is characterized by pain that results from gentle pressure.
True
This sensitivity to pressure is a defining symptom of fibromyalgia.
Fill in the blank: A common symptom of fibromyalgia is a feeling of swollen joints, often with no actual _______.
swelling
Many patients report sensations of swelling without visible signs of inflammation.
List TWO factors that can contribute to fibromyalgia.
Altered stress response, poor gut health
Stress and gut health are known to influence the severity and occurrence of fibromyalgia symptoms.
Describe TWO ways in which the mucociliary escalator protects the lungs from inhaled pathogens
- Mucus traps inhaled particles
- Cilia move the particle-laden mucus towards the esophagus where it can be coughed up or swallowed
Name ONE hormone that thickens and lengthens the vocal cords
Testosterone
Complete the following sentence: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder (COPD) is a combination of two pathologies: _______ and _______
emphysema and chronic bronchitis
What occurs when the walls of the _______ are damaged and destroyed?
alveoli
List ONE lifestyle cause of pulmonary fibrosis
Smoking
Name ONE blood plasma protein which maintains osmotic pressure
Albumin
How are red blood cells (erythrocytes) adapted to transport more oxygen?
Bi-concave and non-nucleated
The bi-concave shape increases surface area for oxygen absorption, while the lack of a nucleus allows more space for hemoglobin.
What enzyme helps to break down a blood clot by digesting fibrin threads?
Plasmin
Plasmin is a key enzyme in the process of fibrinolysis, which is essential for clot resolution.
Name ONE cause (not dietary intake) of iron deficiency anemia.
Malabsorption OR low stomach acid OR celiac disease OR excessive blood loss OR from menses OR GIT bleed OR excessive requirements
Conditions like pregnancy or rapid growth can increase iron requirements, contributing to anemia.
Name ONE infectious disease that sickle cell trait or sickle cell disease may protect individuals from.
Malaria
The sickle cell trait provides a survival advantage in malaria-endemic areas.
Describe TWO key differences between arteries and veins.
- Arteries carry blood away from the heart
- Veins carry blood towards the heart
Arteries typically carry oxygenated blood, while veins carry deoxygenated blood, with exceptions for pulmonary and umbilical vessels.
Fill in the blank: Arteries and arterioles carry blood _______ from the heart.
away
This is a fundamental function of the arterial system in the circulatory system.
Fill in the blank: Veins and venules carry blood _______ towards the heart.
towards
This is crucial for returning deoxygenated blood back to the heart.
True or False: All arteries carry oxygenated blood.
False
The pulmonary and umbilical arteries are exceptions, as they carry deoxygenated blood.
True or False: Malabsorption can lead to iron deficiency anemia.
True
Conditions that impair nutrient absorption can result in deficiencies, including iron.
What is the pressure in arteries?
High
Arteries have high pressure due to the force exerted by the heart during contraction.
What is the pressure in veins?
Low
Veins operate under lower pressure as they return blood to the heart.
What is a key structural feature of arteries?
Thicker tunica media
The tunica media in arteries is more muscular to withstand higher pressure.
What is a key structural feature of veins?
Thin walls
Veins have thinner walls compared to arteries.
What is the thickest layer of veins?
Tunica externa
The tunica externa is the outermost layer of veins.
What is the main role of the Sino-atrial node?
Sets rate and rhythm
The Sino-atrial node is known as the pacemaker of the heart.
Name ONE type of oedema associated with left sided heart failure.
Pulmonary oedema
Pulmonary oedema occurs when fluid accumulates in the lungs due to heart failure.
List ONE important complication of deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
Pulmonary embolism
Pulmonary embolism can occur if a blood clot from DVT travels to the lungs.
This stomach cell produces pepsinogen and gastric lipase to assist protein and fat digestion. What is it?
Chief cells
Chief cells are specialized exocrine cells in the stomach that secrete digestive enzymes.
What type of cell produces mucus to protect against acidity in the stomach?
Goblet cells
Goblet cells are specialized epithelial cells found in various mucous membranes, including the gastrointestinal tract.
Name ONE cell that produces bile in the liver.
Hepatocytes
Hepatocytes are the main functional cells of the liver and play a crucial role in metabolism and detoxification.
What is the configuration type of the fatty acid referred to in the text?
CIS
The CIS configuration refers to the arrangement of hydrogen atoms on the same side of a double bond in fatty acids.
Name ONE monosaccharide carbohydrate.
Glucose
Other examples include Fructose and Galactose.
Name ONE female life stage which increases the risk of developing xerostomia.
Menopause
Xerostomia, or dry mouth, can be a common symptom during menopause due to hormonal changes.
What is ONE complication of celiac disease?
Osteoporosis
Other complications may include anaemia, bowel cancer, and deficiencies in vitamins B9, B12, or iron.
Name one key difference between Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis regarding the region affected.
Crohn’s disease affects any part of the GIT, while ulcerative colitis affects the colon and rectum.
This distinction is crucial for diagnosis and treatment.
Fill in the blank: Crohn’s disease presents with _______ abdominal pain.
crampy
Typically located on the right side.
Fill in the blank: Ulcerative colitis presents with _______ abdominal pain.
abdominal pain (left)
It is often accompanied by bloody diarrhoea.
List two key symptoms of Crohn’s disease.
- Crampy abdominal pain (right)
- Loose semi-solid stools
Other symptoms may include complications like fistulas and abscesses.
List two key symptoms of ulcerative colitis.
- Abdominal pain (left)
- Bloody diarrhoea
Other symptoms may include haemorrhage and a thin bowel wall.
What layers are affected in Crohn’s disease?
All layers (transmural)
This contrasts with ulcerative colitis, which affects only the mucosa.
What is the term for the appearance of the bowel wall in Crohn’s disease?
Cobblestone appearance
This is due to the skip lesions characteristic of the disease.
Name the gastrointestinal pathology described: ‘This inflammatory condition can present with pallor, sweating, fever, nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea. There is rebound tenderness at the McBurney’s point.’
Appendicitis
Rebound tenderness is a classic sign of appendicitis.
What is meant by up-regulation in endocrine hormones?
A deficiency in hormone causes an increase in the number of receptors on target cells
This process allows target cells to become more sensitive to the hormone due to its deficiency.
Give ONE example of up-regulation.
Increased number of oxytocin receptors in the third trimester of pregnancy
This example illustrates how the body prepares for childbirth by enhancing responsiveness to oxytocin.
State ONE function of prolactin.
Stimulates lactation
Prolactin also prevents pregnancy during lactation, inhibits GnRH, and aids in breast maturation after childbirth.
Name ONE type of medicine that could give rise to the development of Cushing’s disease.
Corticosteroid medication
Prednisolone is a specific example of a corticosteroid that can lead to Cushing’s disease.
Describe ONE way in which hyperparathyroidism affects the kidneys.
Kidney stones
Hyperparathyroidism increases the risk of calcium stones in the kidneys.
State ONE way the skin regulates body temperature (thermoregulation)
Activity of sweat glands OR water evaporates off skin.
Alternatively, activity of blood vessels via vasodilatation or vasoconstriction can also regulate temperature.
Name ONE skin condition characterised by open and closed comedones
Acne vulgaris.
State ONE function of the spleen
Haematopoiesis in foetus.
Other functions include serving as a blood reservoir, phagocytosis of worn-out defective erythrocytes, and supporting immunity through T and B-Lymphocytes.
Briefly describe TWO ways to optimise lymphatic health
Exercise is essential OR high anti-inflammatory OR antioxidant diet.
Additional ways include reducing oxidative stress, getting 7-9 hours of good quality sleep, reducing stress, maintaining a healthy diet with green leafy vegetables, berries, omega-3 foods, nuts and seeds, turmeric, and ginger, and removing common allergens such as dairy, gluten, or nightshades.
Fill in the blank: Lymphatic vessels rely on _______ to pump lymph through the body.
[exercise].
True or False: The spleen plays a role in immunity.
True.
Name a food that can help optimise lymphatic health.
Green leafy vegetables OR berries OR omega-3 foods OR nuts and seeds OR turmeric OR ginger.
Students need to provide two foods for full marks.
Fill in the blank: One way to reduce oxidative stress is to get _______ of good quality sleep.
[7-9 hours].
Name a method to remove common allergens from the diet.
Remove dairy OR gluten OR nightshades.
State ONE way the skin can cool the body.
Water evaporates off skin.
State ONE role of T and B-Lymphocytes in the spleen.
Immunity.
Define passive transport.
Movement of substances from an area of high to low concentration or down the concentration gradient.
Passive transport does not require energy.
Define active transport.
Movement of substances from an area of low to high concentration or up the concentration gradient.
Active transport requires energy input.
What is one key difference between diffusion and facilitated diffusion?
Facilitated diffusion moves larger molecules using transmembrane proteins.
Diffusion typically involves smaller molecules.
Name one substance transported by facilitated diffusion.
Glucose.
Glucose is a common example that requires facilitated diffusion to cross cell membranes.
Explain the difference between endocytosis and exocytosis.
Endocytosis is the engulfing of particles into the cell, while exocytosis is the removal of waste from the cell.
Endocytosis can involve phagocytosis or pinocytosis.
What are the two types of endocytosis?
- Phagocytosis
- Pinocytosis
Phagocytosis is for larger particles, while pinocytosis is for liquids.
Define passive transport.
Movement of substances from an area of high to low concentration or down the concentration gradient.
Passive transport does not require energy.
Define active transport.
Movement of substances from an area of low to high concentration or up the concentration gradient.
Active transport requires energy input.
What is one key difference between diffusion and facilitated diffusion?
Facilitated diffusion moves larger molecules using transmembrane proteins.
Diffusion typically involves smaller molecules.
Name one substance transported by facilitated diffusion.
Glucose.
Glucose is a common example that requires facilitated diffusion to cross cell membranes.
Explain the difference between endocytosis and exocytosis.
Endocytosis is the engulfing of particles into the cell, while exocytosis is the removal of waste from the cell.
Endocytosis can involve phagocytosis or pinocytosis.
What are the two types of endocytosis?
- Phagocytosis
- Pinocytosis
Phagocytosis is for larger particles, while pinocytosis is for liquids.
List TWO dietary and/or lifestyle factors that contribute to the development of atherosclerosis.
- High refined sugars
- Smoking
Other factors include stress, sedentary lifestyle, excessive alcohol, and trans fats/saturated fats.
Describe the first step in the pathophysiological process leading to atherosclerotic plaque formation.
Creates inflammation
This inflammation is often triggered by damage to the vascular endothelium.
What happens to LDLs after they deposit in the damaged tunica intima?
LDLs are oxidised
This oxidation is a critical step in the development of atherosclerosis.
What is attracted to the oxidised LDLs in the atherosclerotic process?
Phagocytes
These immune cells are drawn to the site to help clear the oxidised LDLs.
What do macrophages do in response to the fatty material in atherosclerosis?
Surround the fatty material to destroy it
This process contributes to the formation of foam cells.
What are foam cells?
Created by macrophages surrounding fatty material
Foam cells play a significant role in the progression of atherosclerosis.
What occurs after the formation of foam cells in the atherosclerotic process?
Vascular smooth muscle cells proliferate
This proliferation contributes to the development and stability of the plaque.
What is formed as a result of the proliferation of vascular smooth muscle cells?
A cap is formed
This fibrous cap stabilizes the plaque but can also lead to complications if it ruptures.
Name ONE clinical manifestation of atherosclerosis.
Angina pectoris
Other manifestations may include myocardial infarction, ischaemic heart pain, thrombosis, embolism, stroke, or transient ischaemic attack.
Define GORD
The lower esophageal sphincter relaxes, and acid regurgitates from the stomach into the esophagus
GORD stands for gastro-oesophageal reflux disorder
Define hiatus hernia
Part of the stomach protrudes (herniates) into the thoracic cavity through an opening in the diaphragm
Hiatus hernia involves the stomach moving into the chest cavity
Name ONE cause of GORD (not food or hiatus hernia)
Obesity
Other causes can include pregnancy, stress, smoking, or medications
Name ONE cause of a hiatus hernia
Increased abdominal pressure
Other causes can include heavy lifting, hard coughing, sneezing, pregnancy, childbirth, violent vomiting, straining with constipation, obesity, heredity, smoking, or drug abuse
Name TWO trigger foods for GORD
- Spicy foods
- Alcohol
Other trigger foods may include fatty foods, caffeine, or carbonated beverages
Name TWO signs and/or symptoms associated with GORD
- Heartburn
- Regurgitation
Other symptoms can include chest pain or difficulty swallowing
What is hypothyroidism?
A condition of thyroid hormone deficiency OR an underactive thyroid.
This condition leads to various metabolic issues due to insufficient thyroid hormones.
Name two causes of hypothyroidism.
- Hashimoto’s thyroiditis (autoimmune)
- Iodine deficiency
- Thyroid destruction
- Radioactive iodine
- Surgery
- Medications
- Tumor
- Fluoride.
These causes highlight both autoimmune and environmental factors affecting thyroid function.
List two signs or symptoms of hypothyroidism.
- Tiredness
- Malaise
- Weight gain
- Cold intolerance
- Constipation
- Depression
- Slow cognition
- Poor memory
- Low libido
- Deep voice
- Menstrual changes
- Muscle aches
- Arthralgia
- Goitre
- Dry, brittle skin
- Thin hair
- Loss of eyebrows
- Myxoedema
- Slow tendon reflexes
- Bradycardia.
Symptoms can vary widely, affecting energy levels, mood, and physical appearance.
What is one blood test used to diagnose hypothyroidism?
TSH (Thyroid Stimulating Hormone) test.
Elevated TSH levels typically indicate an underactive thyroid, confirming hypothyroidism.
What is one allopathic treatment for hypothyroidism?
Levothyroxine.
This medication replaces or provides more thyroid hormone, helping to restore normal metabolic activity.
Fill in the blank: A sign of hypothyroidism is _______.
Goitre.
Goitre is an enlargement of the thyroid gland, commonly associated with thyroid dysfunction.
True or False: Acid reflux can be a symptom of GORD.
True.
GORD (Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease) is characterized by the backflow of acid from the stomach into the esophagus, leading to symptoms like heartburn.
What is a common symptom that can mimic cardiac pathology in GORD?
Retrosternal pain heartburn.
This type of pain can be misleading, as it may resemble angina or other heart conditions.
List two signs or symptoms of GORD.
- Acid reflux - liquid taste in mouth
- Heartburn aggravated by lying down
- Belching
- Persistent cough.
These symptoms reflect the reflux of stomach contents into the esophagus and can significantly impact quality of life.
What is the key difference between intrinsic asthma and extrinsic asthma?
Intrinsic asthma is typically adult onset, while extrinsic asthma affects children.
Extrinsic asthma is immunologically mediated with an increase in IgE antibodies and is triggered by allergens, whereas intrinsic asthma is not due to antigen-antibody stimulation.
What is one characteristic of extrinsic asthma?
Affecting children typically.
Extrinsic asthma is often immunologically mediated and triggered by allergens like pollen and dust.
What is one characteristic of intrinsic asthma?
A bronchial reaction that is not due to antigen-antibody stimulation.
Intrinsic asthma commonly has adult onset and can be triggered by factors such as anxiety and cold air.
List two common triggers of intrinsic asthma.
- Anxiety
- Chemicals
- Exercise
- Cold air
- Drugs (NSAIDs, beta blockers)
- Stress
- Dust
These triggers differ from the allergen-based triggers seen in extrinsic asthma.
State TWO risk factors that may contribute to intrinsic asthma.
- Anxiety
- Chemicals or dust
- NSAIDs
- Stress
These risk factors can exacerbate the bronchial reactions associated with intrinsic asthma.
What are TWO possible reasons for the increasing prevalence of asthma?
- Earlier weaning
- Inadequate exposure to pathogens in childhood
Additional reasons may include inherited dysbiosis, food additives, leaky gut syndrome, and nutritional deficiencies.
True or False: Acne rosacea is a chronic inflammatory skin disorder and is more common in men than women.
False
Acne rosacea is more common in women.
Name ONE microbe found in high concentrations in patients with acne rosacea.
Helicobacter pylori or H.pylori
This microbe is associated with various gastrointestinal conditions.
List ONE other cause or trigger (not stress) for acne rosacea.
- Environmental factors (oil, chlorine, UV)
- Cosmetics (e.g. paraffin)
- Medications
These factors can exacerbate the condition in susceptible individuals.
What is the tendon commonly affected in impingement syndrome?
Rotator cuff
The rotator cuff is crucial for shoulder stability and movement.
State ONE cause (not age, overuse) of impingement syndrome.
- Positional fault
- Bone spurs
- Oddly sized acromion
These factors can lead to reduced space for the bursa and tendons under the acromion.
Which condition might Max be experiencing if his gums bleed when he brushes his teeth?
Gingivitis
Gingivitis is an inflammation of the gums often caused by plaque buildup.
Identify TWO factors in Max’s diet and lifestyle that may contribute to gingivitis.
- Smokers
- Poor nutrition OR high in refined sugars OR low antioxidant status
These factors can weaken the immune response and promote gum disease.
Name ONE vitamin deficiency associated with Type 1 diabetes (T1DM).
Vitamin D
Vitamin D deficiency can affect insulin sensitivity and overall health.
State TWO complications associated with Type 1 diabetes (T1DM) or Type 2 diabetes.
- Micro OR macro-vascular disease
- Heart disease
- Hypercholesterolaemia
- Hypertension
- Retinopathy
- Nephropathy OR diabetic kidney disease
- Peripheral neuropathy
These complications arise from long-term effects of high blood sugar levels.
What are the two main characteristics of ketoacidosis in T1DM?
- Fruity smelling breath
- Low glucose supply OR inability of cells to utilize glucose
Ketoacidosis occurs when the body starts breaking down fat for energy due to lack of insulin.
Describe how ketoacidosis can arise in T1DM.
- Glucose supply is low OR when cells cannot utilise glucose
- Ketones are created via breakdown of fatty acids
This metabolic state can lead to severe complications if not treated promptly.
List TWO signs and/or symptoms of a hypoglycaemic event in a client with T1DM.
- Shaking and trembling
- Sweating
- Pins and needles in the lips and tongue
- Extreme hunger and irritability
- Headache
- Slurred speech
- Confusion
- Tiredness
- Coma
Hypoglycaemia can occur when blood sugar levels drop too low, often due to insulin overdose or inadequate food intake.
