Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PE Unit 1 &2 > Semester 1 Exam > Flashcards

Semester 1 Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What are the key functions of the musculoskeletal system?

A
  • Protects the vital organs (such as the brain, the spine and the lungs)
  • Support and Posture
  • Storage site for fuels, fats and minerals
  • Production of blood cells (haematopoiesis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does the Anatomical Term Superior mean?

A

Closer to the head than another part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does the Anatomical term inferior mean?

A

closer to the feet than another part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does the anatomical term anterior or ventral

A

towards the front of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does the anatomical term posterior or dorsal mean

A

towards the back of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does the anatomical term medial mean

A

towards the imaginary midline of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what does the anatomical term lateral mean

A

away from the imaginary midline of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the anatomical term proximal mean

A

a body part closer to its attachment point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what does the anatomical term distal mean

A

a body part further away from the point of attachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does the anatomical term superficial mean

A

a body part closer to the surface of the body than another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does the anatomical term deep mean

A

a body part that is internal or further from the surface of the body than another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does the anatomical term palmar mean

A

the palm side of the hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what does the anatomical term plantar mean

A

the sole side of the foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The human skeleton is divided into two skeletons, what are they called?

A

Axial and appendicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the axial skeleton consist of

A

the skull, vertebral column and rib cage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what does the appendicular skeleton consist of

A

limbs and girdles (pelvis girdle ect) that connect to the axial skeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the five sections of the vertebral column?

A

Cervical vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, lumbar vertebrae, sacrum, coccyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the cervical vertebrae responsible for?

A

supporting and moving the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the purpose of the thoracic vertebrae

A

connect the ribs to the spinal column, help to protect the heart and lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Lumbar vertebrae have a…

A

high weight-carrying capacity, and are a large attachment site for powerful muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the Sacrum do

A

distributes the weight of the upper body, provides an attachment point for many muscles promoting movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Main function of the coccyx

A

to provide a site for muscle attachment to allow many movements to occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How many innominate bones are fused together to make up the pelvis

A

two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the innominate bones of the pelvis made up of?

A

Three individual bones
- the ilium
- the ischium
- the pubis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Difference between carpals and tarsals?

A

Carpals are the bones in the hand and tarsals are bones in the foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a joint?

A

the place where bones meet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The three main categories of a joint are

A

Fibrous - no movement
Cartilaginous - slight movement
Synovial - free movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Features of a synovial joint allowing for free movement are

A

synovial capsule, synovial membrane and synovial fluid, cartilage at the end of the bones and the ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a ligament

A

the connective tissue that joins one bone to another bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Movement is described as occurring across planes, and they are

A

Sagittal, Transverse, Frontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the Sagittal plane

A

divides the body into left and right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the transverse (horizontal) plane

A

divides the body into superior and inferior sections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the frontal plane

A

divides the body into anterior and posterior sections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When does flexion occur

A

when the angle between articulating (joining) bones is decreased, these muscles are called flexors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

when does extension occur

A

when the angle between articulating bones is increased, these muscles are called extensors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

when does abduction occur

A

when a body part is moved away from the midline of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

when does adduction occur

A

when a body part is moved toward the midline of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Rotation occurs when

A

a bone turns on its own axis within a joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is medial rotation

A

rotation towards the body’s midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is lateral rotation

A

rotation away from the body’s midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is circumduction

A

when a limb moves in a circular fashion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is supination

A

when the forearm is rotated, turning from palm down to palm up,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is pronation

A

when the forearm is rotated to face the palm downwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is plantar flexion

A

when the toes are pointed downward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is dorsiflexion

A

when the toes are pointed upwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is inversion

A

when the foots turns so the sole faces inwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is eversion

A

when the foot turns so the sole faces outward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is elevation

A

movement of the scapula upward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is depression

A

movement of the scapula downwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The six types of synovial joints

A

gliding, condyloid, pivot, saddle, hinge, ball and socket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is a gliding joint?

A

joints that occur between flat surfaces, allowing bones to move past each other, e.g. radius and ulna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is a condyloid joint

A

involves an oval-like surface that fits into an elliptical cavity, e.g. metacarpals/tarsals in the phalanges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is a pivot joint

A

a moving bone rotates around a fixed bone. e.g. atlas and the axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is a saddle joint

A

when surfaces of one bone are concave and the other is convex, e.g. the base of the thumb where the metacarpal and carpal bones join

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is a hinge joint

A

joints allowing movement only in one plane, allowing flexion and extension, e.g. elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is a ball and socket joint

A

joints occurring where a rounded head of bone joints into a bone cavity. e.g. shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the three types of muscles in the body

A

Cardiac - muscle tissues making up the walls of the heart
Smooth - muscle tissues making up the organs of the body e.g. the intestine
Skeletal - muscles attached to bones that are under voluntary control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is a tendon

A

The connective tissue that connects a muscle to a bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the hamstring muscles called

A

The bicep femoris (lateral muscle)
the semimembranosus (the medial muscle)
the semitendinosus (the middle muscle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the Quadricep muscles

A

Rectus Femoris, Vastus medialis, Vastus lateralis, vastus intermedius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is a muscle fibre

A

the elongated cells that make up muscle tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is muscle fibre surrounded by

A

a connective tissue layer called endomysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is a muscle fascicle

A

bundle of skeletal muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are muscle fascicles surrounded by

A

a connective tissue called perimysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is an epimysium

A

dense connective tissue surrounding the muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is a tendon

A

connective tissue which connect muscles to bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the origin

A

where the muscle attaches to a stable bone that moves less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what is the insertion

A

where the muscle attaches to the bone that moves due to the action of the muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the five different muscle fibre arrangements?

A

Circular, Convergent, Pennate, Parallel, Fusiform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are circular muscle fibres

A

fibres arranged in a ring, surround the openings in the body, e.g. muscles around the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are convergent muscle fibres

A

muscles where the origin is wider than the point of intersection, creating a fan shape of fibres, strong muscles that allow for versatility with movement, e.g. pectoralis major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are Pennate muscle fibres

A

fibres attach obliquely (on an angle) to the tendon, shorter and thicker than other muscle shapes, allow for large force production, but less range of motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the three types of Pennate muscle fibres

A

Unipennate- fascicles are all on one side of the tendon, e.g. muscles in hand
Bipennate - fascicles on both sides on the tendon e.g. rectus femoris
Multipennate- muscle fibres orientated at different angles along the axis, the tendon also branches onto other tendons e.g. deltoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are parallel muscle fibres

A

fibres run parallel along the axis of the muscle, fibres are uniform in size and length, usually arranged in a flat, strap like manner, muscles have a high range of motion, making them well suited for fast contractions, e.g. muscles in the neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are fusiform muscle fibres

A

spindle-shaped muscles with a large muscle belly, wider in the middle and taper off smaller toward the origin and insertion, allow for fast contraction and a wide range of motion, e.g. biceps brachii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the two categories of muscle fibres

A

Slow twitch (type 1)
Fast twitch (type 2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Describe Slow twitch fibres

A

recruited for aerobic exercise, longer duration of a low-moderate intensity, greater capacity to use oxygen
Contraction speed - slow
Mitochondrial density - high
Capillary density - high
Fatigue-resistance - high
Strength of force production - Low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Describe Fast Twitch fibres

A

recruited for power/strength and anaerobic exercise for fast, forceful muscular contractions
Contraction speed- Fast
Mitochondrial density - Low
Capillary density - Low
Fatigue- resistance - low
Strength of force production - high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Microscopic structure of the muscle and how a muscle contracts

A
  • Each muscle fibre is made up of chains of smaller myofibrils
    • Myofibrils are composed of long proteins- including actin and myosin, which are organised into thick and thin myofilaments that repeat along the length of the myofibril
    • Each section/ unit of contraction along the myofibril is referred to as a sarcomere
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Sections of the sarcomere

A

The I Band - only contains thin actin filaments
The A Band - when the actin and myosin overlap
The H Zone/Band - contains thick myosin filaments only
The Z Disc - end of sarcomere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the sliding filament theory?

A
  • explanation of how a muscle contracts
    Explains the mechanism of a muscle contraction where proteins (actin + myosin) slide past one another and generate movement

Muscular contractions are consciously controlled by the nervous system

Impulses/messages are sent from the nervous system to trigger the contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The steps in the Sliding Filament Theory

A

1- Relaxed muscle receives an impulse
2- Calcium release at the sarcomere causes myosin to bind with actin as cross bridges form
3- Actin pulled to the A band of the sarcomere
4- Muscle shortens and contracts and force is produced for movement
5- ATP (energy molecule) arrives at myosin causing detachment from actin
6- Cycle continues as long as the nerve impulse continues

When the impulse stops, the sarcomere lengthens and the muscle relaxes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

types of muscular contractions

A

Isoinertial contraction, Isometric contraction, Isokinetic contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are Isoinertial (also isotonic) contractions

A

a muscular contraction where the muscle shortens and lengthens leading to joint movement, the resistance/load remains the same as the muscle changes in length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Two phases of an Isoinertial contraction

A

Concentric phase - muscles shortening
Eccentric phase - muscles lengthening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is an isometric contraction

A

during an isometric contraction tension is developed in the muscle however there is no change to the length of the muscle or movement at the joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is an isokinetic contraction

A

requires equipment, muscle contracts at a constant speed, the equipment will make changes to the resistance when it detects the muscle speeding up or slowing down so speed is kept constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is reciprocal inhibition

A

A neuromuscular reflex where a pair of muscles work on a joint. The agonist muscle contracts and shortens and the antagonist muscle relaxes and lengthens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is an agonist muscle

A

the muscle that contracts to produce movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is an antagonist muscle

A

the muscle that relaxes allowing the contraction to occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is a synergist muscle

A

the muscle/s that contract to assist the agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the stabilizer muscle

A

the muscles that contract and hold other bones to allow the movement to occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is a neuron cell responsible for

A

transporting signals throughout the body, movement involves input from both sensory neurons and motor neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What do sensory and motor neurons do

A

sensory neurons carry sensory messages from visual, auditory, touch and proprioceptive input, back to the brain, the brain then sends messages to the muscles via the spinal cord through motor neurons, motor neurons carry messages that stimulate muscles to contract

95
Q

What is a motor unit

A

a motor neuron and the muscle fibres it innervates

96
Q

What is a neuromuscular junction

A

where a motor neuron and muscle fiber join, nerve impulses travel from the motor neuron at the junction to the muscle fibre, which is then stimulated to contract

97
Q

What is the All or Nothing Principle

A

The activation of motor units, an impulse is sent and once the threshold has been meet the muscle fibres of the motor unit maximally contract to produce the required force, when more force is required more motor units will be recruited, when less force is required less motor units will be recruited

98
Q

What is the Size Principle

A

The recruitment of motor units from small to large motor units as more force is needed

99
Q

What are sporting injuries

A

trauma or overuse injuries that occur due to participation in sport or exercise

100
Q

Sport injuries can be a result of

A
  • accident
  • poor fitness/training
  • poor technique
  • improper equipment or facilities
  • inadequate warm up
  • overuse
101
Q

Cost of sports related injuries

A
  • healthcare cost for treatment
  • time lost to employment, school and home
  • time lost to future sporting activities
  • physical psychological or emotional damage
  • equipment and program costs for rehabilitation and prevention
102
Q

Two classifications of sports injuries

A

Acute- occur suddenly and usually without warning e.g. hamstring tear
Chronic - associated with overuse of a particular area of the body over a period of time, e.g. shin splints

103
Q

What are direct injuries

A

Type of acute injury, a result of external force

104
Q

What are indirect injuries

A

type of acute injury, usually sudden change in direction or intensity, the force required is greater than the load the muscle or ligament can sustain

105
Q

Ligament damage and its classifications

A

An indirect injury, known as a sprain,

Grade 1 - mild damage
Grade 2 - moderate damage
Grade 3 - complete tear

106
Q

Ligaments are damaged when

A

joints move further than the ideal physiological range e.g. hyperextension, dislocation, or in a direction that is not that proper movement at a joint e.g. knee moves sideways

107
Q

Muscle damage and its classifications

A

caused when the muscle fibres are damaged due to overload or tearing, indirect injury,

Grade 1 - loses 5% of muscle fibres
Grade 2 - more extensive, but not ruptured
Grade 3 - complete rupture

108
Q

Muscle strains often occur when

A

completing eccentric loading movements (muscle is over stretched,

109
Q

Common acute injuries

A

Hamstring strain
ACL
Shoulder Dislocation

110
Q

What are overuse injuries

A

chronic injury, caused by repetitive or continual performance of some type of movement, can result in tendonitis or stress fractures

111
Q

Factors that can lead to overuse injuries

A

Repetition
Insufficient recovery time
Inappropriate increase in training load
Inadequate footwear
Inappropriate training surface

112
Q

Common musculoskeletal illnesses

A

Osteoporosis
Arthritis
Osteoarthritis
Rheumatoid Arthritis

113
Q

What is Osteoporosis

A

bones with holes, bones lose density and strength, more susceptible to fractures, diagnosed by measuring bone density

114
Q

Prevention of Osteoporosis

A

Adequate intake of dietary calcium
Regular weight-bearing and strength training
Vitamin D absorption
Avoid Smoking

115
Q

What is arthritis

A

inflammation at joints, two main types; osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis

116
Q

What is osteoarthritis

A

caused by a reduction in the normal amount of cartilage tissue

117
Q

Factors contributing to onset and development of osteoarthritis

A

joint injury and trauma
excess weight
repetitive joint-loading tasks
sedentary lifestyle

118
Q

What is Rheumatoid arthritis

A

Chronic autoimmune inflammation, synovial membrane is attacked in response joint produces excessive synovial fluid, resulting in unwanted tissue growth and bone erosion

119
Q

Physiological prevention strategies

A

warm up and cool down
pre-activity screening
training methods: strength training, weight training, core training, flexibility training, static stretching

120
Q

What is protective equipment

A

physical aid, example, helmet, mouthgaurd

121
Q

Benefits of Taping and Bracing

A

provides extra support, added stability and can minimize the effects of an injury

122
Q

Cardiovascular system includes

A

heart, vessels, blood

123
Q

What is the heart responsible for

A

sending oxygenated blood to the rest of the body and deoxygenated blood to the lungs

124
Q

What is the function of the Aorta

A

large artery at the top of the heart that sends the oxygenated blood to the rest of the body

125
Q

What is the function of the pulmonary arteries

A

transport deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs

126
Q

What is the function of the pulmonary veins

A

transport oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart

127
Q

What is the function of the Superior and Inferior vena cava

A

bring deoxygenated blood back from the body to the heart

128
Q

What are the four chambers of the heart

A

two upper chamber: right and left atriums
two lower chambers: right and left ventricles

129
Q

Valves of the heart

A

ensure that blood travels in the same direction during the cardiac cycle
- pulmonic valve
- tricuspid valve
- aortic valve
- mitral valve

130
Q

Stage One of the Cardiac Cycle

A

The two atria fill with
-blood coming back from the body (deoxygenated) via the superior and inferior vena cava
-and oxygenated blood coming through the pulmonary veins from the lungs

131
Q

Stage 2 of the Cardiac Cycle

A

The pressure resulting from the blood in the atria triggers the opening of the tricuspid and mitral valves – blood then flows into the ventricles

132
Q

Stages 3 & 4 of the Cardiac Cycle

A

The atria contract forcing the blood into the ventricles, the valves close.

The pulmonary and aortic valves open, the ventricles contract forcing blood into the aorta (heading for the body) OR the pulmonary artery (headed to the lungs)

133
Q

What is heart rate

A

the number of times the heart beats per minute bpm

134
Q

What is stroke volume

A

the amount of blood (mL) leaving the left ventricle per beat

135
Q

What happens to SV and HR when going from rest to sub-maximal intensity

A

SV & HR increase to increase the amount of oxygenated blood to the working muscles

136
Q

What happens to HR as exercise increases

A

as intensity increases heart rate increases, for submaximal exercise your heart rate will plateau as you continue to work at the same intensity

137
Q

What happens to SV as exercise increases

A

when working at intensities beyond sub-maximal, SV plateaus and there is no further increase

138
Q

Why does SV plateau as intensity increases beyond submaximal

A

at an increased intensity there is an increased heart rate which increases the return of blood back to the heart (venous blood) the left ventricle has a limited filling capacity, so with a reduced filling time, it can only fill so much blood and has a maximal limit

139
Q

What is Cardiac Output

A

amount of blood leaving the left ventricle per minute, CO = SV X HR, higher intensity the greater the CO

140
Q

Four main components of blood

A

Red Blood cells
White blood cells
Plasma
Platelets

141
Q

Red blood cells

A

produced in bone marrow,
contain the protein haemoglobin
carry oxygen to body tissues and muscles

142
Q

White blood cells

A

produced in bone marrow, lymph tissue, spleen
important role in immunity

143
Q

Plasma

A

clear yellow fluid - 90% water
carrier nutrients, transports waste, assists platelets with clotting
helps to maintain internal body temperature

144
Q

Platelets

A

produced in bone marrow
help form blood clots to stop bleeding

145
Q

Plasma assists with what during exercise

A

removal of carbon dioxide and sweating to prevent overheating

146
Q

What protein does oxygen bind with to be transported to tissues in the body

A

haemoglobin

147
Q

Describe Arteries

A

transport blood away from the heart
thick and elastic outer wall with a small lumen (space inside)
blood travels under higher pressure
branches into smaller arterioles

148
Q

Describe Veins

A

transport blood towards the heart
thin walls with large lumen
blood travels under low pressure
have valves present to prevent backflow of blood
branch into smaller venules

149
Q

Describe Capillaries

A

very thin walls, one cell thick, surround tissues for diffusion of oxygen

150
Q

Blood flow through the vascular network

A

Arteries -> arterioles -> capillaries -> venules -> veins

151
Q

The pulmonary circuit

A

Pulmonary circulation involves the flow of deoxygenated blood to the lungs and oxygenated blood back to the heart.

152
Q

the systemic circuit

A

Systemic circulation distributes oxygenated blood to body tissues and organs.

153
Q

Pulmonary circulation steps

A

The superior vena cava and inferior vena cava receive deoxygenated blood from the body and it travels into the right atrium

The right atrium contracts – this forces the tricuspid valve to open allowing blood through to the right ventricle – and close again

Blood is force out of the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery and to the lungs where carbon dioxide and oxygen are exchanged

Oxygenated blood returns to the heart via the pulmonary vein and into the left atrium. The left atrium contracts – forcing the mitral valve open and blood is forced into the left ventricle – the mitral valve will then close

154
Q

Systemic circulation steps

A

The left ventricle contracts and pumps blood into the aorta under high pressure, which is then pumped via arteries to tissues and organs in the body

155
Q

What is the role of precapillary sphincters

A

Blood flow at the capillary is controlled by precapillary sphincters, smooth muscle at the capillary located where it joins a vessel
The sphincters open and close to control the flow of blood at the capillaries

156
Q

What is vasoconstriction

A

Vasoconstriction reduces blood flow, blood vessels constrict

157
Q

What is vasodilation

A

vasodilation increases blood flow, blood vessels widen

158
Q

What is the muscle pump

A

Muscles contract to push on veins, aiding in venous return to the heart, particularly during exercise.

159
Q

What does the respiratory system include

A

mouth, nose, trachea, pharynx, bronchi and bronchioles, lungs and alveoli

160
Q

What is the function of the respiratory system

A

breath in air from the environment, transfer oxygen into the blood and remove carbon dioxide from the blood, return air back to the environment

161
Q

What is external respiration

A

air/gases moving into and out of the lungs

162
Q

what is pulmonary diffusion

A

movement of gases from the lungs to the bloodstream

163
Q

What is inspiration

A

breathing in, active process involving contraction of intercostal muscles and diaphragm, leading to increased thoracic cavity size and decreased lung pressure, gases move from high to low pressure therefore moving quickly out of the lungs

164
Q

What is expiration

A

breathing out Passive process resulting from relaxation of intercostal muscles and diaphragm, leading to decreased thoracic cavity size and increased lung pressure.

165
Q

what is tidal volume

A

the amount of air inhaled and exhaled L/breath

166
Q

What happens to tidal volume during exercise at different intensities?

A

peaks at sub-maximal intensity, as oxygen demands increase, greater amounts are delivered from the lungs by increasing the respiratory rate

167
Q

What is ventilation

A

volume of air moved into and out of respiratory tract each minute, calculated by respiratory rate x tidal volume

168
Q

What is breathing controlled by

A

respiratory control center located in the brain stem

169
Q

How is breathing controlled in the respiratory control center

A

sensors constantly monitor oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the bloodstream, which adjusts breathing rate to maintain homeostasis

170
Q

What is happening when a person is at steady state

A

the right amount of oxygen is being transferred to their blood when they inhale and the right amount of carbon dioxide is exchanged and exits the blood when they exhale

171
Q

What occurs in respiratory control center when a person moves from rest to exercise then back to rest

A

oxygen levels in the blood decrease, carbon dioxide levels increase
this is sensed by the respiratory control center and increases both heart rate and breathing rate to adjust the levels, supported by O2 and CO2 sensors in the aorta which also monitor concentration levels of gases as blood leaves the heart
as activity stops, the respiratory control center slows down heart and breathing rate to maintain homeostasis in the blood stream

172
Q

What is respiratory rate and what happens to it during exercise

A

the number of breaths taken per minute
when exercise begins respiratory rates rise sharply, this is triggered by the increase if CO2 concentration in the blood

173
Q

What happens to tidal volume (depth of breathing) during exercise

A

increases until its maximum is reached at submaximal intensity, where it plateaus, due to increased respiratory rate the brain stimulates deeper breaths to increase O2 supply to the working muscles

174
Q

What happens to ventilation during exercise

A

as intensity increases ventilation increases until maximal levels are reached

175
Q

What is oxygen deficit

A

when the demand for oxygen exceeds the body’s ability to supply it

176
Q

what is steady state

A

oxygen demand meets oxygen supply

177
Q

When does VO2 max occur

A

when the maximum amount of oxygen that can be taken in, transported and utilized is reached, cannot be sustained for extended periods, as body will not be able to supply sufficient oxygen to the muscles and the onset of fatigue will occur

178
Q

What is EPOC

A

post-exercise period where the oxygen consumption remains above resting levels
Excess
Post-exercise
Oxygen
Consumption

179
Q

Two main functions of pulmonary diffusion

A

provide blood with oxygen before the blood is transported to muscles and other cells
remove carbon dioxide from the blood returning from the muscles and other cells

180
Q

What are alveoli

A

microscopic air sacs found in the lungs, surrounded by capillaries

181
Q

What occurs at the alveoli

A

a two-way exchange:
oxygen moves from the alveoli into the blood
carbon dioxide moves from the blood to the alveoli

182
Q

The pulmonary capillaries surrounding the alveoli contain blood that is

A

low in oxygen, as it was used by the working muscles

183
Q

The alveoli contain blood that is

A

high in oxygen which creates a difference in pressure

184
Q

What causes the diffusion of the blood from the alveoli to the bloodstream

A

pressure difference in the pulmonary capillaries (low), and the alveoli (high)

185
Q

Pulmonary capillaries have a high concentration

A

of carbon dioxide

186
Q

alveoli have a low concentration

A

of carbon dioxide

187
Q

carbon dioxide diffuses back to the

A

alveoli to be exhaled with each breath

188
Q

Oxygen is transported with

A

haemoglobin by the red blood cells

189
Q

oxygen and haemoglobin from

A

oxyhemoglobin HbO2

190
Q

the amount of oxygen that can be transported depends on the what levels

A

haemoglobin levels

191
Q

What is arterial blood

A

amount of oxygen delivered to muscle/tissue

192
Q

what is venous blood

A

amount of oxygen leaving the muscle/tissue

193
Q

What is Arteriovenous oxygen difference a-vO2 difference

A

how much oxygen in extracted at the muscle/tissue, the difference in concentration of oxygen in the arterial blood bs venous blood

194
Q

blood arriving at muscles in the arterioles is higher in oxygen than the capillaries, so it moves into the capillaries and then into the muscle cells by attaching

A

myoglobin

195
Q

we use oxygen for aerobic ATP production therefore

A

a high a-vO2 difference = a high aerobic ATP production

196
Q

What happens to a-vO2 difference with a increase of intensity

A

as exercise intensity increases, the a-vO2 diff. will also increase

197
Q

What is homeostasis

A

process of keeping the body in a steady state when the external environment has changed

198
Q

what is thermoregulation

A

the homeostatic response that controls internal body temperature

199
Q

role of the cardiovascular system when the body heats up

A

increased blood flow to the skin - promoting loss of fluid from sweat glands as sweat that evaporates heat away from the body, process of promoting sweating is know are ‘evaporative cooling’

200
Q

Muscle fatigue due to an elevated body temperature during exercise occurs do to the

A

1- more blood is sent to the skin to promote sweating
2- blood plasma levels reduce which leads to thicker blood than moves at a slower rate
3- les blood is sent to the working muscles

201
Q

when severe dehydration occurs, the blood vessels at the skin will vasoconstrict, stopping the sweat response to preserve blood volume, resulting in

A

dramatic rise to the core body temperate and a failure in the thermoregulatory response, leading to hyperthermia

202
Q

when is hyperthermia

A

when the body is gaining more heat than it is able to lose

203
Q

Three main stages of hyperthermia

A

1 - Heat cramps: result from water and electrolyte imbalance , may be accompanied by dizziness and exhaustion
2 - heat exhaustion: excessive fluid loss due to prolonged sweating, characterized by profuse sweating, clammy and pale skin, rapid pulse, light headedness
3- Heat stroke: medical emergency, temp is greater than 40, mental confusion or unconsciousness, shock

204
Q

Musculoskeletal system performance benefits

A
  • improve contraction efficiency
  • improve force production
  • improve recovery
205
Q

Cardiorespiratory system performance benefits

A
  • improve the ability to take in, transport and utilize oxygen for aerobic energy production
206
Q

Legal practices and methods for the musculoskeletal system

A

resistance training, supplements: protein, creatine, caffeine, bicarbonate , cold water immersion

207
Q

Legal practices and methods for the cardiorespiratory system

A

aerobic training, altitude training, hypoxic training

208
Q

Musculoskeletal System Training benefits

A

Utilizes resistance training methods.
Benefits include improved strength, power, range of motion, and endurance.

209
Q

Musculoskeletal System Supplements and what they do

A
  • Protein aids in muscle recovery and growth.
  • Creatine enhances maximal intensity performance.
  • Caffeine reduces perception of effort and improves performance.
  • Sodium Bicarbonate buffers acid to reduce fatigue.
210
Q

Cold Water Immersion benefits

A

Reduces DOMS and inflammation for improved recovery

211
Q

Altitude Training benefits

A

Improves oxygen intake, transport, and utilization for enhanced aerobic performance.

212
Q

Hypoxic training benefits

A

Improves oxygen delivery and aerobic performance.
- Hypoxic tents aid in maintaining fitness during injury recovery.

213
Q

Aerobic training benefits

A

improves aerobic power and the ability to take in, transfer and use oxygen to the working muscles for aerobic ATP production

214
Q

Musculoskeletal system illegal practices and methods

A

anabolic steroids , growth hormones

215
Q

Cardiorespiratory system illegal practices and methods

A

erythropoietin EPO
blood doping
beta blockers

216
Q

What are anabolic steroids

A

synthetic hormones derived from and imitating testosterone (male sex hormone) to encourage development of male characteristics and responsible for growth of bone and muscle during puberty

217
Q

why do athletes take anabolic steroids

A

enhance muscle size, power, and strength by boosting protein synthesis and blocking muscle breakdown.

218
Q

side effects of anabolic steroids

A

short term:
- sleeping difficulties
- mood swings and irritability
Long term:
- liver disease
- paranoia and depression
- uncontrolled aggression

219
Q

What are growth hormones

A

Human Growth Hormone naturally occurs in the body and is important for growth and repair of bones and muscles

Other growth hormones are: corticosteroids and insulin-like growth hormones

220
Q

Why do athletes take growth hormones

A

promote muscle and bone development, increase strength, muscle size, power

221
Q

Side effects of growth hormones

A

diabetes, thyroid disorder, heart disease, reduced immune function

222
Q

What is EPO

A

Naturally occurring hormone produced in the kidneys that regulates the body’s production of red blood cells

223
Q

What are the benefits of EPO

A

increases red blood cell production for improved oxygen transport

224
Q

Side effects of EPO

A

blood clots, increased heart attack risk, increased stroke risk

225
Q

What is blood doping

A

method of improving performance by artificially boosting the number of red blood cells in the body therefore increasing haemoglobin levels in the blood

226
Q

Benefits of blood doping

A

improved performance because it increases the oxygen carrying capacity of blood

227
Q

How do athletes blood dope

A

blood transfusion either autologous (own blood) or homologous (donors blood)
synthetic oxygen carriers

228
Q

side effects of blood doping

A

increased stroke risk
increase heart attack risk
autoimmune diseases

229
Q

What are beta blockers

A

drugs that reduce blood pressure by blocking the effects of the hormone adrenaline

230
Q

Benefits of beta blockers

A

lower heart rate and blood pressure, aiding focus and relaxation

231
Q

Side effects of beta blockers

A

headaches, dizziness, sleep difficulties

232
Q

ethical considerations and sociocultural influence of illegal and legal practices

A

Ethical concerns revolve around unfair advantages and potential harm to athletes.
- Sociocultural factors, such as societal pressures and desires for prestige, influence athletes’ decisions.

233
Q

What is the role of WADA

A

Organizations like WADA and ASADA establish anti-doping standards to promote fair play and penalize violators.

PE Unit 1 &2 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions