Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Musculoskeletal Conditions (MPT1-3) > SEM1 > Flashcards

SEM1 Flashcards

1
Q

What direction of disc herniation is contraindicated for spinal traction?

A

Posteromedial disc herniation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What age is the most common presentation for Rotator Cuff Tendinitis?

A

25-40 yo. (Neer’s Stage 2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where is the location of pain for pt’s with supraspinatus tendinitis?

A

Lateral pain at the midhumerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the ff is not part of the restrictions in pt’s. with rotator cuff tears?

a. Avoid provocative maneuvers or exercises that cause discomfort, includes both offending ROM exercises and strengthening exercises
b. ROM exercises and muscle strengthening exercises should begin with the arm in more than 90 deg. of abduction
c. Avoid abduction-rotation
d. Avoid empty-can exercises

A

b. ROM exercises and muscle strengthening exercises should begin with the arm in more than 90 deg. of abduction (start ROM below 90 deg. first to avoid pain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does “tenosyno” in the term tenosynovitis mean?

A

Tendon sheath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the etiology for adhesive capsulitis?

A

No known etiology (Idiopathic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most frequent musculoskeletal problem of diabetic patients?

A

Adhesive capsulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The loss of passive ___ is the single most important finding on PE for Adhesive capsulitis and helps to differentiate adhesive capsulitis from a rotator cuff problem.

a. Abduction
b. Adduction
c. ER
d. IR

A

c. ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the reasons why the shoulder is commonly dislocated?

A

Shallow glenoid cavity, very redundant capsule (loose capsule; unstable), lax ligaments, wide range of motion (unstable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Weakness of the subscapularis may result into what direction of subluxation?

A

Anterior subluxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Weakness of the supraspinatus may results into what direction of subluxation?

A

Inferior subluxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the most active muscle extending the wrist in gripping; prevent active and passive insufficiency?

A

ECRB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The instruction that is considered to be incorrect for a subject diagnosed with lateral epicondylitis is:

a. To avoid pain in lifting, lift with both UE on supination (palm up)
b. Modify activity by avoiding grasping heavy objects in pronation
c. Use counterforce brace. The band is placed 2 fingerbreadths proximal to the painful area of the lateral epicondyle
d. Tennis players may reduce the racquet string tension, change the size of the grip (usually to a larger grip) and change to a better dampening racquet.

A

c. Use counterforce brace. The band is places 2 fingerbreadths proximal to the painful area of the lateral epicondyle

Distal to the lateral epicondyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most common direction of disc herniation?

A

Posterolateral direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What type of arthritis is more common in C1-C2 joints? (OA or RA)

A

RA

upper cervical spine is more commonly affected and OA is for lower cervical spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the hallmark for Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A

Synovitis and Fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the hallmark for Osteoarthritis?

A

Cartilage degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the functional range of motion of shoulder?

A

30-45 deg of shoulder flexion, 10 deg of shoulder internal rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the functional range of motion of the hip?

A

20-30 deg of hip flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What kind of heating modalities may be used for patients with RA?

A

HMP (superficial heating modalities)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the functional range of knee flexion for stair climbing?

A

100 deg knee flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a common deformity of Kohler’s disease?

A

Flatfoot deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the most common hip fracture seen in elderly population which is caused by a twisting motion during weight bearing?

A

Subcapital fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What stage of progression do symptoms generally begin in children with LCPD?

A

Revascularization phase (Stage 3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What hip fx is often associated with a posterior dislocation of the hip?

A

Acetabular Fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Affectation of the ulnar nerve will lead to what type of hand deformity?

A

Claw hand deformity (intrinsic muscle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Affectation of the median nerve will lead to what type of hand deformity?

A

Ape hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Affectation of the radial nerve will lead to what type of hand deformity?

A

Wrist drop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Anterior wedging of the vertebrae will lead to what type of posture?

A

Kyphosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the specific structure affected in kids with Legg Calve Perthes Disease?

A

Femoral head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the position of the hip when using a brace or plaster cast for LCPD?

A

Hip internal rotation and abduction; to place the femoral head inside the socket?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the adult counterpart of LCPD or avascular necrosis of the femoral head?

A

Chandler’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the limitation of motions in the hip for Chandler’s disease and LCPD?

A

Hip IR and Abduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the typical muscle imbalance of the ACL tear?

A

Strong quadriceps and weak hamstrings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the first affected structure/s in a varus/ valgus contact with rotation?

A

Collateral and cruciate ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

MOI: Non contact, quickly turning one way with tibia rotated in opposite direction

What is the possible diagnosis or affectation given the MOI?

A

Patellar dislocation or subluxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

MOI: Noncontact deceleration

What is the possible diagnosis or affectation given the MOI?

A

ACL tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

MOI: Forced medial rotation of the tibia

What is the possible diagnosis or affectation given the MOI?

A

Lateral meniscal injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

MOI: Forced medial rotation of the femur

What is the possible diagnosis or affectation given the MOI?

A

Medial meniscal injury

40
Q

What is the grandfather special test for meniscus injury?

A

McMurray’s test

41
Q

Where is the location of pain in pt’s with Legg-Perthes disease?

A

Pain on groin, medial thigh, knee

42
Q

What are the internal rotators of the shoulder?

A

Latissimus dorsi, Subscapularis and Teres Major

43
Q

Which among the ff conditions have bilateral affectation?
Leg-Calve-Perthes
Osgood Schlatter
SCFE

A

Osgood Schlatter
SCFE

LCPD (unilateral)

44
Q

What type of knee injuries produce rapid effusion (intracapsular or extracapsular)?

A

Intracapsular

45
Q

What is the strongest ligament of the hip?

A

Iliofemoral ligament (Y-ligament of Bigelow)

46
Q

What is the strongest ligament of the ankle?

A

Medial collateral ligament (Deltoid ligament)

47
Q

What is the most common direction of hip dislocation?

A

Posterior hip dislocation

48
Q

What is the most common type of meniscal tears?

A

Buckle-handle type

49
Q

How long does it take to replace necrotic trabeculae with a healthy new bone?

A

2-3 years

50
Q

What types of children are commonly affected with SCFE?

A

Obese or tall & thin children

51
Q

What age range are commonly affected with SCFE?

A

10-16 years old

52
Q

Where is the location of pain for pt’s with Slipping Capital Femoral Epiphysis?

A

Pain in the anterior aspect of the hip

53
Q

What are the mechanism of injury for a lateral patellar dislocation/ subluxation?

A

Valgus and ER of the tibia

54
Q

What types of rotatory instability may involve later patellar dislocation?

A

Anteromedial, posteromedial, posterolateral instability

55
Q

MOI: Flexion-varus, medial rotation of tibia

What is the possible diagnosis or affectation given the MOI?

A

Anterolateral instability

56
Q

In a patient with SCFE, how is moderate classification defined?

A

Moderate: displacement of 1/3 to 1/2 of the diameter of the femoral neck

57
Q

In meniscal tears what type of position does the knee assume?

A

Knee flexion (d/t joint effusion and loose capsule)

58
Q

True or False. The rotation of the tibia for special tests and palpation is opposite.

A

True

Palpation: IR tibia - medial meniscus
McMurray: ER tibia - medial meniscus

59
Q

What is the diagnostic tool for meniscal injury/ ligamentous tears?

A

MRI

60
Q

What special test may be done for MCL sprain?

A

Valgus stress at 0 deg and 30 deg test

61
Q

How many degrees of knee flexion should be avoided in PCL injury?

A

45 deg of knee flexion

62
Q

What muscle should be focused in PCL rehabilitation?

A

Quadriceps

63
Q

If the Q angle is >20 deg what could occur?

A

Lateral patellar tracking (Genu valgum)

64
Q

Which is more common to subluxation (Patella Alta or Patella Baja)?

A

Patella Alta

65
Q

What do you call the avascular necrosis of the navicular bone?

A

Kohler’s disease

66
Q

What is the difference between Hammer toes, Mallet toes and Claw toes?

A

Hammer toes - PIP flexion and MTP extension
Mallet toes - DIP flexion only
Claw toes - PIP & DIP flexion and MTP hyperextension

67
Q

What is Sever’s or Haglund’s disease?

A

Calcaneal apophysitis or epiphysisits

68
Q

What treatment can we do for Sever’s disease?

A

Raise the heel of the shoe

Well-padded UCBL insert

69
Q

Among the 4 compartment syndromes which is usually more affected?

A

Anterior compartment

  • Deep peroneal nerve
  • Anterior tibial a. and v.
70
Q

What range of shoulder abduction is most painful for rotator cuff tendinitis?

A

60-90 deg. of shoulder abduction

71
Q

How is Neer’s stage 3 of supraspinatus tendinitis defined?

A

Neer’s stage 3: Tendon degeneration, tendon rupture and presence of bony changes

Stage 2: Fibrosis and thickening of the subacromial bursa

72
Q

What is the typical muscle imbalance in rotator cuff tendinitis?

A

Strong deltoid

Weak rotator cuff mm.

73
Q

Which of the disease will have an improvement in ROM after injection of lidocaine? (Rotator cuff tendinitis or Adhesive capsulitis)

A

Rotator cuff tendinitis

74
Q

True or False. Tendinitis will present with evident swelling.

A

False. Tendinitis will present with no apparent swelling but calcific tendinitis has evident swelling.

75
Q

What special test is most sensitive for bicipital tenosynovitis and how is it done?

A 
Speed's test
- Neutral
-ER and supinated (most painful)
- IR and pronated
(+) pain = SLAP type II
76
Q

What motion should be avoided with shoulder dislocation?

A

Shoulder abduction

77
Q

What joint is the most frequently dislocated joint in children?

A

Elbow joint

78
Q

What do you call the disease that is a compartment syndrome secondary to pressure that produces muscle ischemia in the forearm?

A

Volkmann’s Ischemic Contracture

79
Q

What is the typical hand deformity of Volkmann’s Ischemic Contracture?

A

Wrist and finger flexion

80
Q

What is the difference between Bankart lesion and Hill sachs lesion?

A

Bankart lesion: tearing of the labrum

Hill-Sachs lesion: stripping of the periosteum and capsule

81
Q

What program do you give to patients with Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy (RSD)

A

Stress loading program

82
Q

Avascular necrosis of the lunate

A

Kienbock’s disease

83
Q

What muscles should you strengthen in TOS?

A

Trapezius and levator scapulae

- Scapular elevation

84
Q

What trunk of the brachial plexus is commonly affected in neurogenic TOS?

A

Middle and Inferior trunk of the brachial plexus (ulnar nerve C8-T1)

85
Q

What are the method of measurement for lateral curvature in scoliosis?

A

Cobb method

Risser-Ferguson method

86
Q

What is considered as a normal curvature of the spine?

A

<10 deg.

87
Q

What degree of lateral curvature may have cardiopulmonary changes and decreased life expectancy in sever scoliosis?

A

60-70 deg. above

88
Q

How do you define the Nash Moe scale grade 3 in scoliosis rotational deformity?

A

Only one pedicle is seen and it is in midline

89
Q

What spinal brace will you recommend to a patient with an apical vertebrae above T6?

A

Milwaukee Brace

Boston brace (apical: below T8)

90
Q

Besides scoliosis what other conditions are indicated for Boston brace?

A

Spondylolisthesis and Muscular dystrophy

91
Q

What is the most effective form of treatment for adolescent kyphosis?

A

Milwaukee brace

92
Q

What is the most common classification of Spondylolysis?

A

Isthmic

93
Q

On X-ray what view can best reveal the scottie dog sign?

A

Oblique view (lumbar posterior)

94
Q

In the Meyerding’s classification how will you define stage 2?

A

Stage 2: Slipping less than 1/2 (26-50%)

95
Q

True or False. The heart is often displace to the left side of the chest in Pectus excavatum.

A

True

96
Q

What muscles should be strengthened with spinal stenosis?

A

Abdominal strengthening

Musculoskeletal Conditions (MPT1-3) (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions