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Food Hygiene Final > sem 2 mt 1 > Flashcards

sem 2 mt 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

What pathogens are part of the food safety criteria from live marine molluscs?

  • L. monocytogenes
  • Salmonella
  • E. coli
  • Coagulase positive staphylococcus
A
  • Salmonella

- E. coli

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2
Q

What are the notifiable disease of fish

  • Spring viraemia of carp
  • Viral hemorrhagic septicemia of salmon
  • Ichtyophthirius multiformis
  • Bothriocephalosis
A
  • Spring viraemia of carp

- Viral hemorrhagic septicemia of salmon

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3
Q

Which heavy metals are tested for molluscs

  • Hg
  • Cu
  • Pb
  • Cd
A
  • Pb

- Cd

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4
Q 
Which heavy metals are tested for fish and crustaceans?
Fe
Pb 
Hg 
Cu
A

Pb

Hg

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5
Q

For which fish types is candling part of the official control

  • Fillet
  • Herring
  • Flounder
  • Scomboid species
A
  • Fillet

- Flounder

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6
Q

Which process can be performed in the clean area?

  • Heading
  • Filleting
  • Gutting
  • Cutting
A
  • Filleting

- Cutting

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7
Q

Which statement is true ?

  • Live bivalves harvested from class C production area can be marketed directly for human consumption
  • Shellfish collected from class A production area can be marketed directly for human consumption
  • Live bivalves harvested from class C production can be marketed after a long period relaying process
  • Shellfish collected from class b production area can be marketed directly for human consumption
A
  • Shellfish collected from class A production area can be marketed directly for human consumption
  • Live bivalves harvested from class C production can be marketed after a long period relaying process
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8
Q

Which statement is TRUE?

  • Due to marinating the flesh of fish will become softer with characteristic taste
  • Salting is not applied during the smoking
  • the fish bodies are ripened for 1-2 years in the metal can in case of canned products
  • the breaded marinating product is produced by cooking of fish
A
  • Due to marinating the flesh of fish will become softer with characteristic taste
  • the fish bodies are ripened for 1-2 years in the metal can in case of canned products
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9
Q

What tests are required for official inspection of frozen fish

  • floating probe
  • cooking/frying test
  • muscle parasites
  • water binding capacity
A
  • cooking/frying test

- muscle parasites

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10
Q

What is the histamine limit for fishery products?

  • 100-200 mg/kg for general products
  • 200-400 mg/kg for general products
  • 100-200 mg/kg after enzymatic maturation
  • 200-400 mg/kg after enzymatic maturation
A
  • 100-200 mg/kg for general products

- 200-400 mg/kg after enzymatic maturation

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11
Q

Which fishery products must be stored under ice at a temperature of melting ice?

  • Fresh fishery product
  • Edible liver, roe, milt
  • Fish to prepare canned product
  • Final product
A

Fresh fishery product

Edible liver, roe, milt

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12
Q

In the case of fishery products, what sampling is required in case of doubtful results of organoleptic evaluation?

  • Total volatile basic nitrogen (TVN-N)
  • Total protein (TP)
  • Cadaverin level (CL)
  • Trimethyl-amin nitrogen (TMA-N)
A
  • Total volatile basic nitrogen (TVN-N)

- Trimethyl-amin nitrogen (TMA-N)

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13
Q

What is characteristic for purification center?

  • shellfish must be purified till at least 2 months
  • microbiological characteristics of water applied to the tank and the purified and non-purified shellfish must be investigated
  • live bivalves must be purified by clean or purified seawater
  • the different marine animals species can be stored together with the shellfish in the same tank
A
  • microbiological characteristics of water applied to the tank and the purified and non-purified shellfish must be investigated
  • live bivalves must be purified by clean or purified seawater
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14
Q

what forms of biotoxins can occur in fishery products?

  • paralytic shellfish poison (PSP)
  • vomiting shellfish poison (VSP)
  • fainting shellfish poison (FSP)
  • amnesic shellfish poison (ASP)
A
  • paralytic shellfish poison (PSP)

- amnesic shellfish poison (ASP)

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15
Q

what characteristics does an official test include for live fish?

  • sex
  • viability (movement, respiration)
  • body length
  • general health status
A
  • viability (movement, respiration)

- general health status

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16
Q

Which statement is TRUE?

  • The successive catch of fish must be separated on the factory vessel
  • The clean and contaminated processes must not be separated on the factory vessel
  • Tools and equipments must be produced from thoase material which is corrosion-resistant to seawater
  • The fishery products must not be chilled on the factory vessel
A
  • The successive catch of fish must be separated on the factory vessel
  • Tools and equipments must be produced from thoase material which is corrosion-resistant to seawater
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17
Q

What is the cause that the flesh of fish is more perishable than the mammal meat

  • parasitic infection
  • high water content
  • high ph
  • biotoxin content
A
  • high water content

- high ph

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18
Q

What is the role of packaging?

  • it protects the food from the effects of the environment to keep the quality of the product
  • In case of frozen products, it allows the consumer to maintain the quality even if the cold chain is broken
  • it is decreasing the amount of food waste
  • it gives an opportunity to present informations about the given food and contribute to consumer awareness
A
  • it protects the food from the effects of the environment to keep the quality of the product
  • it gives an opportunity to present informations about the given food and contribute to consumer awareness
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19
Q

Examples of active packaging

  • Fungicide ripening foil
  • Labels with qr codes
  • Dye indicating the effects of temperature
  • Moisture absorbing pads
A
  • Fungicide ripening foil

- Moisture absorbing pads

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20
Q

Which of the nutrients is a voluntary information on the label of food product?

  • Salt
  • Fiber
  • Protein
  • Glucose
A
  • Fiber

- Glucose

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21
Q

In which cases is the oval mark mandatory

  • Sliced meat
  • Chocolate
  • Bakery products
  • Fermented dairy products
A
  • Sliced meat

- Fermented dairy products

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22
Q

The meat stamp contains the

  • Approval number of the meat processing plant
  • The abbreviation of the European countries
  • The ISO code of the country of origin
  • The passport number of the cattle
A
  • Approval number of the meat processing plant

- The ISO code of the country of origin

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23
Q

Which of these are allergens

  • Sesam seeds
  • Parsley
  • Anise/aniseed (pimpernella snisum)
  • Mustard
A
  • Sesam seeds

- Mustard

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24
Q

Which of these are NOT mandatory on food label

  • Name of producer
  • Nutritional claim
  • Alcohol content in case of bakery products
  • Weight of product
A
  • Nutritional claim

- Alcohol content in case of bakery products

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25
Q

Which of these statements are NOT characteristic of the primary packaging

  • It is with indirect contact with the food, it is the outermost protection of batches
  • It provides useful information for the consumers
  • It can be divided into smaller units, called the secondary packaging
  • It is important that it does not pose a human health risk
A
  • It is with indirect contact with the food, it is the outermost protection of batches
  • It can be divided into smaller units, called the secondary packaging
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26
Q

What is characteristic to intelligent packaging?

  • It give information from the storage condition of food even before buying the product
  • It is capable to show the actual temperature of the given product
  • The consumer can only see it after opening the food packaging
  • It is mainly used for bakery products to absorb moisture
A
  • It give information from the storage condition of food even before buying the product
  • It is capable to show the actual temperature of the given product
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27
Q

Which of these are health claims?

  • it can contribute to fiber rich diet
  • it may contribute to healthy brain functions
  • the consumption of this food can be inserted to low-salt diets
  • it plays a role in proper function of the immune system
A
  • it may contribute to healthy brain functions

- it plays a role in proper function of the immune system

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28
Q

When is the description “smoke flavored” applied on products label?

  • When the product in NOT smoked with hard wood
  • When the smoke flavor is produced with using smoke aroma for surface treatment on the product
  • When the product is NOT smoked with birch wood
  • When the smoke flavor is produced with injection the smoke aroma into the product
A
  • When the smoke flavor is produced with using smoke aroma for surface treatment on the product
  • When the smoke flavor is produced with injection the smoke aroma into the product
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29
Q

Which term does NOT belong to the definition of waste

  • Hazardous material
  • Became redundant on the site of generation
  • It is not utilizable directly further
  • May be treated together with the main mass flows
A
  • Hazardous material

- May be treated together with the main mass flows

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30
Q

Food industrial waste are not typified by the following

  • Generally low water content
  • Are generated at geographically scattered locations
  • Contain quickly decomposing organic materials
  • All can get back to the nature with the natural cycling of biomass
A
  • Generally low water content

- All can get back to the nature with the natural cycling of biomass

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31
Q

What is the difference between the professional and legal definition of the waste?

  • Only technical aspects are covered by the professional definition
  • The professional defines the sub-term of secondary raw materials within the term of waste
  • Legal requirement appears in the legal definition as a potential waste generating factor
  • The legal definition is more concrete, concise
A
  • The professional defines the sub-term of secondary raw materials within the term of waste
  • The legal definition is more concrete, concise
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32
Q

Which information is part of the package of the table eggs?

  • The approval number of the egg packing center
  • The type of housing
  • The oval identification mark
  • Date of laying
A
  • The approval number of the egg packing center

- The type of housing

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33
Q

Which criteria are specified in the 2073/2005 EC regulation

  • 3-OH-butiric acid
  • Salmonella spp.
  • Enterobacteriaceae
  • Campylobacter spp.
A
  • Salmonella spp.

- Enterobacteriaceae

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34
Q

Which components are responsible for the protection of the egg?

  • Vitamin B
  • High ph
  • Cuticle
  • Chitin
A
  • High ph

- Cuticle

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35
Q

Which of the egg’s attributes give information about its freshness?

  • The size of the air space
  • The size of the germinal disk
  • The size of the pores
  • The consistency of the albumen
A
  • The size of the air space

- The consistency of the albumen

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36
Q

Which of these establishments must be authorized?

  • egg packing center
  • egg collector
  • large-scale layer farm
  • egg processing plant
A
  • egg packing center

- egg processing plant

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37
Q

what are the characteristics of grade ‘a’ eggs?

  • it certifies that the egg is fit for human consumption without heat treatment
  • it might be used for the manufacturing of egg products
  • the yolk is slightly mobile
  • it doesn’t have air space
A
  • it certifies that the egg is fit for human consumption without heat treatment
  • the yolk is slightly mobile
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38
Q

Which information is part of the producer’s code on the eggshell?

  • the approval of the egg packing center
  • the type of housing
  • EC for european communities
  • The ISO code of the country
A
  • the type of housing

- The ISO code of the country

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39
Q

Why is it necessary to withdraw feed before slaughter of poultry?

  • to avoid faecal contamination during transport
  • in order to empty the gastrointestinal tract to reduce the risk of injury during evisceration
  • for economic reasons, animals are only fed as long as they have to
  • to keep the animals alert during transport
A
  • to avoid faecal contamination during transport

- in order to empty the gastrointestinal tract to reduce the risk of injury during evisceration

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40
Q

Which of the following operations are critical control point (CCP) in the case of poultry slaughter?

  • stunning, bleeding
  • dressing, evisceration
  • chilling of the carcass
  • chilling of the offals
A
  • chilling of the carcass

- chilling of the offals

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41
Q

What is the maximum cooling temperature for poultry meat?

  • 7’C for the carcass
  • 4’C for the carcass
  • 4’C for the offals
  • 3’C for the offals
A
  • 4’C for the carcass

- 3’C for the offals

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42
Q

Typically, how are poultry placed in the transport vehicle?

  • Tied up
  • Folded up on feet
  • In fixed cages
  • In mobile crates
A
  • In fixed cages

- In mobile crates

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43
Q 
How warm is the boiling water for poultry slaughter?
50-54 C in case of air chilling 
55-60 C in case of air chilling 
50-54 C in case of immersion chilling 
55-60 C in case of immersion chilling
A

50-54 C in case of air chilling

55-60 C in case of immersion chilling

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44
Q 
For which animal species is scalding a characteristic slaughter moment
sheep 
swine 
poultry 
rabbit
A

swine

poultry

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45
Q

Where is the identification mark (meat stamp) for poultry and rabbits

  • In the case of poultry on the packaging
  • In the case of poultry on the carcass
  • In the case of rabbit on the packaging
  • In the case of rabbit on the carcass
A
  • In the case of poultry on the packaging

- In the case of rabbit on the packaging

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46
Q

Is there a difference in salmonella count between meat products intended to be eaten raw and between poultry meat products intended to be cooked related to food safety criteria ?

  • No, in both cases, zero tolerance is defined, which means salmonella cannot be present
  • Yes, there is a difference as salmonella id non compliant only in case of meat products intended to be eaten cooked (0/25g)
  • No, as salmonella count for meat products intended to be eaten raw is 0/25g, for poultry meat intended to be eaten cooked is 0/25 g
  • Yes, there is a difference as salmonella is non compliant in case of meat product intended to be eaten raw (0/25 g)
A
  • No, in both cases, zero tolerance is defined, which means salmonella cannot be present
  • No, as salmonella count for meat products intended to be eaten raw is 0/25g, for poultry meat intended to be eaten cooked is 0/25 g
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47
Q 
Which of these are red meat products?
Salami
Lyoner 
Foil-packed ham
Bologna-type sausages
A

Lyoner

Bologna-type sausages

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48
Q 
Which of the below products are raw, fermented products?
hungarian winter salami 
foil-packaged ham 
lyoner
snack sausage
A

hungarian winter salami

snack sausage

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49
Q

What is typical for raw sausages made with starter culture

  • Ripening is done by stepwise temperature decrease and starting at higher ripening temperature, than by traditional dry sausage
  • Microflora is composed of lactobacillus species, salt resistant and nitrate reducing micrococcus and enterococcus species
  • Raw sausages made with starter cultures have higher ph values, then the traditional dry sausage
  • Microflora is composed mainly of special noble molds, penicillum species
A
  • Ripening is done by stepwise temperature decrease and starting at higher ripening temperature, than by traditional dry sausage
  • Microflora is composed of lactobacillus species, salt resistant and nitrate reducing micrococcus and enterococcus species
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50
Q

What is the difference between slow and fast curing

  • The main difference is in processing, as by slow curing the product is made with salt, nitrites or nitrates for preservation, color and taste development. Therefore meat parts are merged or surface treated with (pickling) salts and ripened
  • The main difference is in processing, as by slow curing the product is made with salt, nitrites and nitrates and other additives to help color and taste development. Curing solution Is injected and or added under vacuum to the tissues or surface treated with (pickling) salts and ripened.
  • After slow curing the cured meat part can be ripened even for 1 year, which is not typical for fast curing
  • Foil packaged ham and pressed ham is made with slow curing and cannot be produced by fast curing
A
  • The main difference is in processing, as by slow curing the product is made with salt, nitrites or nitrates for preservation, color and taste development. Therefore meat parts are merged or surface treated with (pickling) salts and ripened
  • After slow curing the cured meat part can be ripened even for 1 year, which is not typical for fast curing
51
Q 
which of these processing steps are considered as critical control points (CCP) by production of bologna-type sausage 
cutting, mixing, grinding 
shaping, stuffing 
smoking, cooking 
cold storage
A

smoking, cooking

cold storage

52
Q

What is the difference between Lyoner and Bologna - type sausage?

  • Only difference is in the diameter of these products
  • One of these products has a caliber of min. 26 mm, and the other min. 55mm
  • Only one of these products has homogenous cross section
  • Only for Lyoner is a prescription of minimum meat content (51%)
A

Only difference is in the diameter of these products

One of these products has a caliber of min. 26 mm, and the other min. 55mm

53
Q

What is characteristic for a trained person

  • Trained person must has 10-year experience
  • Trained person must has hunters certificate issued by the state and special exam for examination
  • Trained person can be veterinarian only
  • It is not necessary that the trained person must has special experience
A
  • Trained person must has 10-year experience

- Trained person must has hunters certificate issued by the state and special exam for examination

54
Q

What is the characteristic for marketing of hunted game?

  • The hunted game can be marked to final consumer in small amount only
  • The hunted game cannot be used for private consumption
  • The hunted game can be marked to catering facility in small amount only
  • The hunted game can be marked further by the private consumer
A
  • The hunted game can be marked to final consumer in small amount only
  • The hunted game can be marked to catering facility in small amount only
55
Q

When the hunted game is fit for consumption

  • If the result of the trichinella test is positive
  • If there are no signs or abnormalities that pose potential risk to public health
  • If the animal is cahexic and thus it has low fat content
  • If there is no expressed organoleptic changes
A
  • If there are no signs or abnormalities that pose potential risk to public health
  • If there is no expressed organoleptic changes
56
Q

Which statement is true

  • large game can be skinned on the site
  • large game can be eviscerated on the site
  • small game must be suspended in pair on metal rod
  • small game can be eviscerted on the site
A
  • large game can be eviscerated on the site

- small game must be suspended in pair on metal rod

57
Q

Which requirement must be met at a game collection centre?

  • The establishment must not be fenced
  • The required temperature is 10 degree centigrade in the cold store
  • The establishment must have an adequate cold store to suspended store of the carcasses
  • Drinking water quality water must be used in the establishment to all processes
A
  • The establishment must have an adequate cold store to suspended store of the carcasses
  • Drinking water quality water must be used in the establishment to all processes
58
Q

In the case of cattle under 8 months of age, which organs inspection is less relevant

  • Umbilical area
  • Udder and genitals
  • Joints
  • Masseters
A
  • Udder and genitals

- Masseters

59
Q

How warm water should be used during washing / disinfection

  • Tool disinfetion min 72C
  • Tool disinfection min 82C
  • Handwashing water min 37C
  • Hand washing water min 42C
A
  • Tool disinfection min 82C

- Hand washing water min 42C

60
Q

What is the maximum allowable cooling temperature for ruminant meat?

  • 7C for the carcass
  • 4C for the carcass
  • 4C for the offals
  • 3C for the offals
A
  • 7C for the carcass

- 3C for the offals

61
Q

During the inspection of adult cattles’ heads the …. has to be incised/cut in every case:

retropharyngeal lymph nodes
tounge
masseter muscles
parotid lymph nodes

A

retropharyngeal lymph nodes

masseter muscles

62
Q

How should SRM materials generated during cattle slaughter be handled?
The are collected in containers marked SRM
Treated in an autoclave at 105´C before leaving the slaughterhouse
Poured with heat-resistant blue paint
Collected and treated with Category 3 waste

A

The are collected in containers marked SRM

Poured with heat-resistant blue paint

63
Q

What are the signs of successful stunning in cattle?
The animal immediately collapses without trying to stand up
Torticollis
No cornea reflex
Automatic defecation

A

The animal immediately collapses without trying to stand up

No cornea reflex

64
Q 
Which of the following organs should be palpated in all case of adult bovine animals (slaughter of ruminants)
spleen
liver
lungs 
mesenterial lymph nodes
A

lungs

mesenterial lymph nodes

65
Q

What is the aim of singeing

  • Removing fluff
  • Pre-frying the meat for subsequent heat treatments
  • The desired reddish pink color of the carcass
  • Reduction of germ counts on the surface of the skin
A
  • Removing fluff

- Reduction of germ counts on the surface of the skin

66
Q

Which parts of the body can be removed from the pig before the meat inspection

  • Mandibula
  • Ear roots
  • Tail
  • Eyes
A
  • Ear roots

- Eyes

67
Q 
In the case of pig slaughter, which pathogens should be tested during the microbiological examination of slaughter hygiene?
Enterobacteriaceae 
E. coli
Salmonella 
L. monocytogenes
A

Enterobacteriaceae

Salmonella

68
Q 
Within how much time after stunning does the sticking have to be performed?
In case of gas stunning 20 s
In case of gas stunning 30 s
In case of electronic stunning 20 s 
In case of electronic stunning 30 s
A

In case of gas stunning 30 s

In case of electronic stunning 20 s

69
Q

The stunning of pigs usually happens

  • mechanically with a stunning gun
  • by carbon dioxide gas chambers
  • with electrodes placed on the head
  • mechanically by a device that causes concussion
A
  • by carbon dioxide gas chambers

- with electrodes placed on the head

70
Q

In case of swine slaughter the inspection of the offals happens….

  • on a tray in case of white offals
  • hung in case of white offals
  • on a tray in case of red offals
  • hung in case of red offals
A
  • on a tray in case of white offals

- hung in case of red offals

71
Q

In the case of swine slaughter
the rectum is tied off
the oesophagus is tied off
the rectum is closed by a polyethylene bag
the oesophagus is closed by a polyethylene bag

A

the rectum is tied off

the rectum is closed by a polyethylene bag

72
Q

In which cases is the meat stamp not applied

  • Before the arrival of the trichinella results
  • Fit for human consumption carcass of a rabbit
  • Non-generalized trichinella infection
  • If the carcass of the slaughtered cattle contain SRM
A
  • Fit for human consumption carcass of a rabbit

- If the carcass of the slaughtered cattle contain SRM

73
Q

What is TRUE about category 1 waste?

  • The most valuble category, it can be used for pet food production
  • Bones, skin and feathers of health animals are considered here
  • The bodies of wild game suspected of a disease with public animal health risk
  • The category with the highest risk, generally it must be destroyed
A

The bodies of wild game suspected of a disease with public animal health risk

The category with the highest risk, generally it must be destroyed

74
Q

Which of the followings are Category 2 waste?

  • Carcass suspected for TSE
  • The blood of ruminants
  • The waste water products of slaughterhouses not handling ruminants
  • Feces
A
  • The waste water products of slaughterhouses not handling ruminants
  • Feces
75
Q

What is characteristic of BSE

  • Is it really widespread in Europe, vaccination is mandatory once a year
  • It is caused by abnormal prions
  • The carcass of a cattle suspected for the disease can only be fit after heat treatment
  • It is cause by abnormal proteins
A
  • It is caused by abnormal prions

- It is cause by abnormal proteins

76
Q

Which of the following techniques can be used to evaluate the water holding capacity

  • Ebers test
  • Filter paper method with grau-hamm device
  • Warner-bratzler shear force test
  • Measuring the dripping loss
A
  • Filter paper method with grau-hamm device

- Measuring the dripping loss

77
Q 
which part of the adult goat are concidered SRM?
the spinal chord
the tonsils 
the ileum 
the skull
A

the spinal chord

the skull

78
Q 
Which techniques can be used for ammonia detection?
Reder test
Nessler’s test 
Lead acetate test
Eber’s test
A

Nessler’s test

Eber’s test

79
Q 
What are the characteristics of meat if the glycogen storage of the muscle was depleted? (DFD)
The pH remains high 
It is exudative
It is unfit for human consumption
It is more suitable for bacterial growth
A

The pH remains high

It is more suitable for bacterial growth

80
Q 
In case of which species is Trichinella testing compulsory?
Horse 
Pig 
Cattle 
Sheep
A

Horse

Pig

81
Q 
Which regulations describe the official controls?
852/2004/EC
853/2004/EC 
2017/625/EU
2019/627/EU
A

2017/625/EU

2019/627/EU

82
Q

Which of the following sentences are TRUE?

  • The meat inspection of pig is based on visual inspection
  • In cattle it is always obligatory to insice the mesentary lymph nodes
  • The meat inspection is simpler in young pigs than adult pigs
  • The meat inspection is simpler in young cattles than adult cattles.
A

The meat inspection of pig is based on visual inspection

The meat inspection is simpler in young cattles than adult cattles.

83
Q

Which of the following is true about emergency slaughter

  • It means the slaughter of infected and suspected animals
  • It means the slaughter of injured animals
  • It means bloodless killing
  • The meat can be fit for human consumption
A
  • It means the slaughter of injured animals

- The meat can be fit for human consumption

84
Q

What are the main points of the food chain information

  • Treatments and their withdrawal period
  • The dates of all vaccinations
  • The size of the farm
  • The information about the authorized veterinarian responsible for the farm
A
  • Treatments and their withdrawal period

- The information about the authorized veterinarian responsible for the farm

85
Q 
What is characteristic for aged meat? 
Is has paler brownish colour
Is has odour of lactic acid 
It has glassy shine
It is inelastic to touch
A

Is has paler brownish colour

Is has odour of lactic acid

86
Q

Which pairs are true?
Robert von Ostertag - father of meat inspection
Robert von Ostertag - discovery of the causative of anthrax
Robert Koch - father of meat inspection
Robert Koch - discovery of the causative of anthrax

A

Robert von Ostertag - father of meat inspection

Robert Koch - discovery of the causative of anthrax

87
Q

What permits must the animal transport vehicle have?

  • Animal transport vehicles must have a low-emission certificate in order to protect the quality of the meat
  • The official permission of the vehicle for the transport of live animals
  • A road use permit
  • With the appropriate qualifications of the vehicle crew
A
  • The official permission of the vehicle for the transport of live animals
  • With the appropriate qualifications of the vehicle crew
88
Q

What conditions must animal transport vehicles meet

  • Ad libitum drinking water must be provided for the animals (until transport)
  • Adequate ventilation
  • Ensuring a species specific natural posture
  • Adequate feed supply
A
  • Adequate ventilation

- Ensuring a species specific natural posture

89
Q

When is it not obligatory for the official veterinarian to attend a post mortem inspection

  • Official inspection will be performed by the official auxillary withholding the parts showing the lesion
  • Auxiliary staff are regularly checked by a veterinarian
  • Slaughter was announced 72 hours in advance, but there is no official veterinarian in service
  • If less than 10 cattle or less than 50 pigs are slaughtered per week
A
  • Official inspection will be performed by the official auxillary withholding the parts showing the lesion
  • Auxiliary staff are regularly checked by a veterinarian
90
Q

What data are in the food chain information

  • The results of the ante-mortem I. inspection
  • Authorization for the animal transport vehicle
  • Data of the farm
  • Data of the medication of the animals
A

Data of the farm

Data of the medication of the animals

91
Q

What examination can be used during ante-mortem I. inspection?

  • blood sampling
  • rectal examination
  • visual inspection
  • body temperature measurement
A

visual inspection

body temperature measurement

92
Q

The veterinarian may ban the slaughter until further measures if?

  • the animals show signs of exhaustion
  • the animals come from a surveillance zone
  • the asssesment of the health status of the animals requires further examination
  • the animals have been shown to carry a zoonotic pathogen
A
  • the animals show signs of exhaustion

- the asssesment of the health status of the animals requires further examination

93
Q

The carcass is unfit for human consumption (meat inspection)

  • haematoma on the limb
  • sexual odor
  • insufficient blood
  • carcass that belongs to an animal that was washed before slaughtering
A

sexual odor

insufficient blood

94
Q

Which of these abnormalities will make the whole carcass UNFIT for human consumption

  • PSE aging
  • melanosis
  • sexual odor
  • young age (<7 days)
A 
sexual odor 
young age (<7 days)
95
Q

Which of the following statements are TRUE?

  • In case of septicaemia, the whole carcass is unfit for human consumption
  • The presence on non-pathogenic bacteria in several organs makes the carcass fit for human consumption
  • Certain organoleptic abnormalities result in the condemnation of the whole carcass
  • The absence of zoonotic diseases results in a carcass fit for human consumption
A
  • In case of septicaemia, the whole carcass is unfit for human consumption
  • Certain organoleptic abnormalities result in the condemnation of the whole carcass
96
Q

Which of the following sentences are TRUE for slaughterhouses about the integrated meat inspection?

  • It means the separated slaughter of suspicious animals
  • It greatly depends on food chain information
  • It depends on the live animal inspection at the farm
  • slaughtering can only happen at the closest slaughterhouse
A
  • It greatly depends on food chain information

- It depends on the live animal inspection at the farm

97
Q 
What additional tests can be performed at the slaughterhouse?
Residue-test 
complex microbiological examinations
cooking test (boiling test) 
trichinella examination
A 
cooking test (boiling test) 
trichinella examination
98
Q

What is characteristic for myofibrils

  • They are found in the sarcoplasm
  • They are contractile element of the muscle
  • The sarcoplasmic reticulum surrounded it stores the potassium
  • They are structural unit of the striated muscle
A
  • They are contractile element of the muscle

- They are structural unit of the striated muscle

99
Q

What is characteristic for the isotropic zone of myofibril? (nytt spm)

  • It is the lighter band of sarcomere
  • It contains thicker filaments
  • Its main component is the actin
  • It has 2 subunits
A
  • It is the lighter band of sarcomere

- Its main component is the actin

100
Q

What is characteristic for cathepsins

  • They have role in ageing of mammal meat
  • They have main role in degradation of sarcoplasmic proteins
  • They may have important role in agening of flesh of fish
  • They can be activated by calcium ions
A
  • They have main role in degradation of sarcoplasmic proteins
  • They may have important role in agening of flesh of fish
101
Q

What can increase the water-binding capacity of meat?

  • heat-treatment
  • mincing of meat
  • adding of inorganic salt
  • reducing of pH
A
  • mincing of meat

- adding of inorganic salt

102
Q

What is the main energy source of the muscle function?

  • The aerobic glycolysis that produces 36 ATP molecules from 1 glucose molecule
  • reactions series of 3 reactions such as glycolysis, oxidative decarboxylation and oxidative phosphorylation
  • the anaerobic glycolysis that produces 36 ATP molecules from 1 glucose molecule
  • reduction of pyruvate to lactic acid
A
  • The aerobic glycolysis that produces 36 ATP molecules from 1 glucose molecule
  • reactions series of 3 reactions such as glycolysis, oxidative decarboxylation and oxidative phosphorylation
103
Q

What is characteristic for calpains

  • They have role in ageing of poultry meat
  • They can be found in lysosomes
  • They catalyse the degradation of interstitial tissue proteins
  • The particularly catalyse the degradation of actomyosin complex
A
  • They have role in ageing of poultry meat

- They catalyse the degradation of interstitial tissue proteins

104
Q 
What is characteristic for chemical composition (definition of meat)
it has high biological value
it is important source of vitamin E
it has high fat content
it has low carbohydrate content
A

it has high biological value

it has low carbohydrate content

105
Q

Which of these abnormalities are fit for human consumption

  • DFD meat aging
  • Insufficient bleeding
  • Emaciated animals
  • Lipochormatosis
A
  • DFD meat aging

- Lipochormatosis

106
Q

Which of the following statements are true for the PSE meat

  • It usually occurs in cattles
  • There is a sudden ph drop at the beginning of the meat aging
  • The meat is fit for human consumption
  • The glycogen content of the muscles is decreased
A
  • There is a sudden ph drop at the beginning of the meat aging
  • The meat is fit for human consumption
107
Q

Which of the following statements are false about the normal meat aging?

  • The decreased ph is due to lactic acid
  • The increased ph is due to ammonia
  • It takes around 45 minutes
  • The final ph is well below 6
A
  • The increased ph is due to ammonia

- It takes around 45 minutes

108
Q

What can we use to differentiate between icterus and carotenosis

  • With the Loeffler’s test
  • By checking the solubility of the yellow pigment
  • Looking for signs of disease, malaise in the live animal
  • With cooking test
A
  • By checking the solubility of the yellow pigment

- Looking for signs of disease, malaise in the live animal

109
Q 
Which of these compounds cause the desirable colors of meat?
Oxymyoglobulin
Metmyoglobulin 
Sulphmyoglobin
Bilirubin
A

Oxymyoglobulin

Metmyoglobulin

110
Q

What is the TRACES system

  • The aim to track the movement of animals and animal products (among other things)
  • It must be used during the trade between member states
  • It must be used when importing from a third country
  • The aim is to find residues of veterinary medication
A
  • The aim to track the movement of animals and animal products (among other things)
  • It must be used when importing from a third country
111
Q

The RASFF system contains alerts concerning safety of

  • Livestock
  • Food industrial appliances
  • Alcoholic beverages
  • Food additives
A
  • Food industrial appliances

- Food additives

112
Q

Which countries operate the RASFF system

  • EU member states
  • The European countries
  • Switzerland, Norway, Iceland and Lichtenstein
  • Turkey, Israel, Moldovia
A
  • EU member states

- Switzerland, Norway, Iceland and Lichtenstein

113
Q 
Which word is not among the terms behind the abbreviations RASFF
livestock
feed
water
food
A

livestock

water

114
Q

What is true about the INTRA trade

  • it means the trade inside the border of the member state
  • the documentation must be shared through the TRACES system
  • there is a thorough inspection at the border control post
  • it means the trade between EU member states
A
  • the documentation must be shared through the TRACES system

- it means the trade between EU member states

115
Q 
What is the maximum number of animals allowed to be slaughtered per week in the case of small-scale slaughter?
100 chickens
100 turkeys 
100 waterfowl 
100 rabbits
A

100 turkeys

100 waterfowl

116
Q

Which document’s check is mandatory during every control?

  • cattle passports
  • the permission of the transporting vehicle
  • animal health certificate
  • common Veterinary Document
A

cattle passports

animal health certificate

117
Q

What category of waste does ruminant blood count?

  • over 8 months SRM, category 1
  • category 2 if it comes from a herd which is proven to be BSE free
  • category 3 if it complies with regulation (EC) No 99/2001
  • suitable for human consumption under 8 months of age (unless otherwise stated)
A

category 2 if it comes from a herd which is proven to be BSE free
category 3 if it complies with regulation (EC) No 99/2001

118
Q

Which of the following sentences are TRUE?

  • In cattle, the heads lymph nodes must be palpated in every carcass
  • In pigs, the heads lymph nodes must be palpated in every carcass
  • Palpation of the organs can cause cross-contamination of the carcass
  • Incision of the organs can cause cross contamination of the carcass
A
  • Palpation of the organs can cause cross-contamination of the carcass
  • Incision of the organs can cause cross contamination of the carcass
119
Q

Which stunning procedures are typical for slaughtering sheep?

  • electronarcosis with water immersion
  • electronarcosis with stunning tongs
  • carbon dioxide gas chamber
  • mechanical stunning gun
A

electronarcosis with stunning tongs

mechanical stunning gun

120
Q

In the case of pig slaughter, which organs are examined together with the carcass?

  • rectum
  • peritoneum
  • spleen
  • kidney
A

peritoneum

kidney

121
Q

Which sentence is true about TSE (meat inspection)

  • an OIE listed viral disease
  • the whole carcass of cattle suspected for TSE is considered SRM
  • abnormal behavior is a sign of disease(s)
  • it causes purulent inflammatory nodes in the brain
A

the whole carcass of cattle suspected for TSE is considered SRM
abnormal behavior is a sign of disease(s)

122
Q

What can be found in the RASFF system about the steps taken after discovering the contamination
the concerned product was destroyed
the concerned producer/retailer was fined
the concerned product was withdrawn from the market
the concerned product went under further inspection

A

the concerned product was withdrawn from the market

the concerned product went under further inspection

123
Q

What curing procedures were applied in the Technology Lab?

  • dry salting, during which we have also applied black pepper beside salt to massage it into the given meat slice
  • wet curing, in which we submerged the pork meat slice into the curing solution
  • wet curing with needle injection, during which we have injected the brine solution directly into the pork meat slice
  • tumblering, to prepare the meat for needle injection
A
  • wet curing, in which we submerged the pork meat slice into the curing solution
  • wet curing with needle injection, during which we have injected the brine solution directly into the pork meat slice

Food Hygiene Final (5 decks)

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