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BDS 1 Semester 2 > Sem 2 exam > Flashcards

Sem 2 exam Flashcards

1
Q

Why does life depend on the liver?

A

Because liver performance a multitude of functions that are crutial for life

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2
Q

What is location of the liver?

A

Inferior to diaphragm, RHS, occupies right hypochondriac & epigastric regions, extending to left hypochondriac region

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3
Q

How many lobes make up the liver?

A

4, 2 major and 2 minor

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4
Q

What ligament separates 2 major liver lobes?

A

Falciform ligament

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5
Q

What are the two main vessels that supply blood to the liver?

A

Hepatic artery (huge oxygen supply), hepatic portal vein (huge nutrient supply).

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6
Q

What are the key functions of the liver?

A

Protein metabolism, carbohydrate metabolism , lipid metabolism, breakdown & removal of defective blood, bile production, detox, storage

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7
Q

What are the three lobulation patterns?

A

Classical lobule (hexagon)(bf & endocrine functions), hepatic acinus (diamond) and portal lobule (triangle)(bile flow and exocrine function).

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8
Q

What are the three lobule landmarks?

A
  1. CT septae 2. Portal triads. 3. Central vein
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9
Q

What are hepatocytes?

A

They are functional cells that form cords between sinusoids.

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10
Q

What are sinusoids?

A

Sinusoids are low pressure vascular channels that receive blood from terminal branches of the hepatic artery and portal vein at the periphery of lobules and deliver it into central veins. Sinusoids are lined with endothelial cells and flanked by plates of hepatocytes.

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11
Q

What are the key players relating to the microscopic features of the liver tissue?

A
  1. Hepatocytes 2. Kupffer cells 3. Endothelial cells 4. Sinusoids. 5. Bile canaliculus
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12
Q

How do kidneys contribute toward homeostasis?

A

They regulate blood volume through retention and processing of water and electrolyte levels.

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13
Q

What are the four organs that make up the renal system?

A

Kidneys, ureter, bladder and urethra

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14
Q

What are the key facts about the ureter?

A

They move urine from kidneys to the bladder and they are small as

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15
Q

How much liquid can a bladder hold?

A

It usually holds about 400-600 mL but it can expand and hold upto 1.2 L.

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16
Q

What is the type of epithelium that lines the bladder?

A

Active epithelium that contains vesicles that help the bladder expand.

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17
Q

Were are the adrenal glands located?

A

On top of each kidney

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18
Q

What are the 2 parts of the adrenal gland?

A
  1. Cortex 2. Medula
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19
Q

What are the three zona of the cortex and what hormones each of them produce?

A
  1. Zona glomerulosa (aldosterone) 2. Zona fasciulata (cortisol) 3. Zona reticularis (sex hormones)
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20
Q

What does the size of loop of henle associated with?

A

The size of the loop of henle is associated with the ability to reabsorb the water back into the blood stream. The longer the loop, the more water can be reabsorbed.

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21
Q

What are the two types of nephrons?

A

Juxtamedullary nephron and cortical nephron

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22
Q

What are the three functions of the nephron?

A

Glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion

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23
Q

What is the definition of glomerular filtration?

A

It is a nondiscriminant filtration of a protein free plasma from the glomerulus into Bowman’s capsule

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24
Q

What is the main feature of blood vessels that allows for filtration?

A

They are fenestrated, meaning they have little spaces that allow for the movement of water

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25
Q

What can be used as the marker of kidney function?

A

Creatinine, which is a bi-product of kidney function. Essentially high levels of creatinine in blood means low kidney function

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26
Q

What is haemostasis?

A

Prevention of blood loss

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27
Q

What are the steps of haemostasis?

A
  1. Vascular constriction 2. Formation of a platelet plug 3. Formation of a blood clot 4. Fibrous repair 5. Clot resolution
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28
Q

What is the difference between the activated and non-activated platelet?

A

Activated platelet have activated glycoproteins which cause the plated to grab on to cologen and fibrin. Non-activated platelets do not stick

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29
Q

What activates platelets?

A

damaged endothelium, exposed collagen, tissue factor and Von Willebrand’s factor

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30
Q

What is the prostacyclin?

A

It is a vasodilator which helps to keep the platelets from sticking.

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31
Q

What does aspirin do?

A

It activates production of prostacylin thus inhibits formation of activated platelets

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32
Q

What is the difference between plasma and serum?

A

Plasma contains fibrogen while serum does not

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33
Q

Which pathway (intrinsic and extrinsic) is faster?

A

Extrinsic (only 4 steps) while interisic is slower (7 steps)

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34
Q

What are the sites of constant sodium rebasoption?

A

Proxima tubule (65%), Ascending Loop Henle (25%)

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35
Q

What are the variable sites of sodium rebasorbtion?

A

Distal tubule and collecting duct (0-10%)

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36
Q

What is the area of the nephron that loops back and sits near the glomerulus ?

A

Juxtaglomerular apparatus

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37
Q

What cells secrete renin?

A

Granular cells

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38
Q

What granular cells?

A

Baroreceptors

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39
Q

When is renin released?

A

When granular cells detect low blood pressure

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40
Q

What are the five steps of renal handling?

A
  1. Aldosterone combines with cytoplasmic receptors. 2. Hormone-receptor complex initiates transcription 3. New protein channels and pumps are synthesised 4. Aldosterone induced proteins modification 5. Result increased Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion
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41
Q

Where is ADH (vasopressin) synthesized?

A

Hypothalamus

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42
Q

What detects high salt concentration?

A

Hypothalamus osmoreceptors

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43
Q

What detects low blood pressure due to blood loss?

A

Baroreceptors

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44
Q

What do ANP or BNP do?

A

They reduce the blood pressure in nephron by:

  1. Inhibiting kidney Na+ reabsorption
  2. Inhibiting the effect of RAAS
  3. Dilation of afferent arterioles in glomerulus
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45
Q

Why is potassium important?

A

It plays a key role in membrane potential

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46
Q

What do kidneys do to combat acidosis?

A

Kidneys are able to detec low plasma pH, Kidneys help to secrete hydrogen ions and reabsorb bicarbons

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47
Q

What are the 2 types of cells in the distal tubule which regulate acid/base balance?

A

Type A intercalated cells (reabsob bicarb and potassium, secrete hydrogen ions) and Type B intercalated cells (only active alkalosis)

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48
Q

What do kidneys do to combat alkalosis?

A

Kidneys detec that lasma pH is too high, kidneys secrete less h+, bicarb is not reabsorbed

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49
Q

What is found in the cartilage?

A

Matrix and cells, collagen Type 2 and chondrocytes

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50
Q

Cartilage has no nerves or blood vesels, how do chondrocytes get nutrients?

A

Through perichondrium cause they have capilaries and water

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51
Q

What is the function of GAGs?

A

They are highly negativley chrged thus they attract water, this maintains the watery component of cartilage

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52
Q

What are the different types of cartilage?

A

Haline, elastic and fibrocartilage

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53
Q

What is the main difference between each type of cartilage?

A

Matrix composition

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54
Q

Where do we find hyaline cartilage?

A

Bones, long bones, specifically epiphyseal plate

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55
Q

What is the main feature of articular cartilage?

A

No pericondrium

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56
Q

What are two ways Growth of Hyaline Cartilage occurs?

A

nterstitial growth (from within) and Appositional Growth (addition of new cartilage at surface)

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57
Q

Where do we usually find elastic cartilage?

A

External ear and epiglottis

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58
Q

Main feature of elastic cartilage?

A

Elastic fibres

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59
Q

What is the main feature of fibro cartilage?

A

Type 1 and Type 2 collagen

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60
Q

What are the three main types of cells found in bone?

A

Oseoclasts, osteoblasts and osteocytes

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61
Q

What are the two methods of bone histology?

A
  1. Decalcification 2. Ground bone sections
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62
Q

What are the two types of bone?

A
  1. Cortical bone 2. Trabebecular bone
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63
Q

What are harversian systems?

A

Round structures in cortical bone

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64
Q

What is the connective tissue that lines the bone?

A

Periosteum

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65
Q

What is the name of the tissue that make up the internal cavity of the bone?

A

Endosteum

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66
Q

Where do we usually find red bone marrow?

A

Present in cavities of spongy bone

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67
Q

Where do we usually find yellow bone marrow?

A

Present in the medullary cavity in adult bones

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68
Q

What is the precurser cell that can become an osteoblast or an octeocyte?

A

Osteoprogenitor cells

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69
Q

What are osteoblasts?

A

Bone forming cells

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70
Q

What are osteocytes?

A

Osteocytes are osteoblasts that are surrounded by bone matrix

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71
Q

What are osteoclasts?

A

Bone resorbing cells

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72
Q

What are the four parts that make up the skull?

A

Calva, Cranial base, Maxilla and Mandible

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73
Q

What are the three sutures of the skull?

A

Coronal, mid-sagital and lambdoid

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74
Q

What are the four bones that make u p the calva?

A

Frontal bone, parietal bones x 2, occipital bone

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75
Q

What are anatomical features that makeup the tmj?

A

Temporal bone, condyle, Articular disc, Lateral Pterygoid Muscle

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76
Q

What are the primary muscles of mastication?

A

Masseter, medial pterygoid, temporals, lateral pterygoid, digastric

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77
Q

What makes up the masticatory system?

A

Teeth, bone muscles, TMJ and soft tissues

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78
Q

What is the maximum intercuspal position?

A

When you relax and close your jaw

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79
Q

S overlaping during MIP (maximum intercuspal position) good?

A

Yes, if the maxila teeth slightly overlap the mandible teeth it is good

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80
Q

What is the name for the vertical and horizontal differences in MIP?

A

Vertical - overbite, horizontal - overjet

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81
Q

What are the nine steps of occlusal analysis?

A
  1. Tooth Id 2. Tooth wear 3. Crowding, spacing, rotations. 4. Axial inclinations 5. Shape of dental arches 6. Occlusal curvatures 7. Opposing contacts 8. Anglr’s mola
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82
Q

How can bones grow?

A

Only by appositional growth which is formation of new layers under the periosteum

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83
Q

What are the two types of bone formation?

A

Intramembranous ossification - mineralisation of matrix secreted by osteoblasts. Endochondral ossification - bone

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84
Q

What are the two major steps in endochondral ossification?

A
  1. Cartilage changes 2. Ossification
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85
Q

What are the three types of movements?

A

Reflexive, Rhythmic, Voluntary contractions

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86
Q

What are 5 components of the reflex arc?

A

Receptor, sensory neuron, integration center, motor neuron, effector

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87
Q

What are the two main muscle receptors?

A

Muscle spindles and golgi tendon organs

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88
Q

Were are golgi tendons located?

A

Near tendons

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89
Q

What is the function of golgi tendon organs?

A

To inhibit certain reponses in order to avoid injury

90
Q

How many mechanoreceptors are present in the periodontal ligamen?

A

300

91
Q

What is a pathogen?

A

An agent that causes or generates disease

92
Q

What is an antigen?

A

A substance that has an ability to provoke and immune response

93
Q

What are the primary lymphatic organs & tissue

A

Red bone marrow and tymus

94
Q

What are the secondary lymphatic organs?

A

Lymph nodes, spleen, lymphatic nodules

95
Q

What is the function of primary lymphatic organs?

A

Generate immune cells

96
Q

What is the function of secondary lymphatic organs?

A

In line filter and immune cell activation

97
Q

What cells are produced in the thymus?

A

T lymphocytes

98
Q

What are the functions of the respiration?

A
  1. Protection of repiratory surfaces 2. Sound production. 3. Olfactory input 4. Blood pH
99
Q

What are the five cells present in the repiratory epithelium?

A

1.Pseudosratified columnar ciliated. 2. Mucous goblet 3. Brush 4. Basal 5. Small granule

100
Q

What are type I pneumocytes?

A

Squamous alveolar cells, make up 95-97% of alveolar lining

101
Q

Waht are the two types of immune response?

A

Innate defenses, Acquired or adaptive defenses

102
Q

What are are the two types of innate defenses?

A

Surface barriers and Internal defences

103
Q

What are the two types of adaptive defenses?

A

Humoral immunity and cellular immunity

104
Q

What are the five sings of inflamation?

A

Redness, swelling, heat, pain, loss of function

105
Q

What are the 5 things that can cause inflamation?

A
  1. Infections 2. Trauma 3. Physcal & chemical agents 4. Necrosis 5. Foreign bodies
106
Q

What is in the upper respiratory tract?

A

Nose, nasal cavities, paranasal sinuses, pharynx

107
Q

What is in the lower respiratory tract?

A

Larynx, trachea, bronchial tree, lungs

108
Q

What is included in the respiratory part?

A

Respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, aveoli

109
Q

What is the function of pseudostratified columnar cell?

A

Mucus transport

110
Q

What is the function of goblet cell?

A

Production of mucus

111
Q

What is the function of basal cells?

A

General stem cell, essentially a safety thing

112
Q

What is the function of small granule cells?

A

Produce hormones

113
Q

What are the three types of bronchioles?

A

Larger bronchioles, terminal bronchiole, respiratory bronchiole

114
Q

How alveoli are there in the lungs?

A

500 million

115
Q

Why is surfactant important for lung function?

A

Pulmonary surfactant is essential for life as it lines the alveoli to lower surface tension, thereby preventing atelectasis during breathing.

116
Q

The movement of O2
from the alveoli into the blood in the pulmonary
capillaries uses which physical process?

A

Passive diffusion

117
Q

What is the form in which the majority of CO2 is transported in
the blood from the tissues to the lungs?

A

In solution as bicarbonate (HCO3

-)

118
Q

What does the kidney do?

A

Regulate BP, balance of electrolytes and salt and pH

119
Q

What are the components of the urinary system?

A

Kidneys, uterer, urethra, bladder

120
Q

What muscle is in the uterer walls?

A

Smooth

121
Q

What are sphincter?

A

Muscle that don’t let the fluid pass through

122
Q

What epithelial cells are in the bladder?

A

Active

123
Q

What zone secretes aldosterone?

A

Glomerulosa

124
Q

What zone secretes cortosol?

A

Fasciulation

125
Q

What zona secretes sex hormones?

A

Reticularis

126
Q

What are the components of the nephron?

A

Tubular and vascular

127
Q

What is the glomerulus?

A

A bundle of capilaries

128
Q

What is the primary pressure used in the glomerulus?

A

Hydrostatic

129
Q

How does the blood enter the glomerulus?

A

Afferent artiole and exits through efferent.

130
Q

What secretes renin?

A

Macula densa cells and granular cells

131
Q

What does RAAS stand for?

A

Renin, angiotensin, angiotensis 2, Aldosterone

132
Q

What can pass through the fenestrations of blood vessels?

A

Ions, water, glucose, amino acids and other.

133
Q

Can large proteins and blood cells pass through fenestrations?

A

No due to their size

134
Q

Why is the afferent arteriole larger?

A

Due to it muscular components, which help to increase capaillary pressure in the capilaries

135
Q

What are the three layers that a filtrae needs to pass to get to the Bowman’s capsule?

A

Fenestrations, basement membrane, Bowman’s capsule podocytes

136
Q

What is GFR?

A

Glomerular filtration rate, the speed at which we form filtrate, normal is about 125ml/min

137
Q

What is myogenic mechanism?

A

It is automatic contraction of muscle in response to stretch of blood flow

138
Q

What is tubular glomerular feedback?

A

It is a process in which macula densa cells defect changes of filtrae flow, and delivery of Na+ and Cl- through the distal tubule

139
Q

What do podocytes do?

A

They control the leakiness into the bowman’s capsule

140
Q

What are peritubular capilaries?

A

They are capilaries that run adjacent to the tubular component of the nephron and collect plasma and other materials

141
Q

What is the main difference in terms of energy expenditure between reabsorbtion and secretion?

A

Secretion always uses energy, while absorption does not

142
Q

How much sodium and water is absorbed in the proximal tubule?

A

65%

143
Q

Where does reabsorbion of materials regulated by the body?

A

Distal tubule, collecting duct

144
Q

What happens to the epithelium as it progresses into the lungs?

A

It gets simpler and smaller

145
Q

What epithelium is in the nose?

A

Pseudostratified columnar ciliated with gobler cells

146
Q

What are the functions of the upper respiratory tract?

A

Moister, warm, trap dust, move trapped particles

147
Q

What epithelium is in the broncioles?

A

Cuboidal

148
Q

What is the function of club cells?

A

Protection and surfacant release

149
Q

What are the three layers of gas exchange?

A

Epithelial, bsement mebrane and endothelial

150
Q

What are 3 important pressure for respiration?

A

h

151
Q

What are the muscles of expiration?

A

Abdominal and intercoastal

152
Q

What are the two determinators of lung compliance?

A

Elastic connectibe tissue, surface tension of liquid fol lining alveoli

153
Q

What are the forces that keep the laveoler open?

A

Transmural pressure gradient, pulmanary surfacant

154
Q

What force promoting the alveolar collapse?

A

Elastic fibres, alveolar surface tension

155
Q

What are APC?

A

APCs are antigen presenting cells, they present an antigen to other immune cells

156
Q

What is an anti-body?

A

It is a receptor on the APC which helps with antigen-binding

157
Q

What are three functions of the anti-body?

A

Block, tag, activate

158
Q

Where is Pre-t cell produced?

A

Red bone marrow and differentiate in the thymus?

159
Q

What does maturation mean?

A

When a B or T lymphocyte aquires receptors

160
Q

What are cytokines?

A

Cytokines are a category of signaling molecules that mediate and regulate immunity, inflammation and hematopoiesis.

161
Q

What is the function of red pulp?

A

Removal of old, damaged and dead red blood cells along with antigens and microorganisms - the venous sinuses have gaps in the endothelial lining which allows normal cells to pass through, abnormal cells remain in the cords and are phagocytosed by macrophages.

162
Q

What is the function of white pulp?

A

Antigen presenting cells may enter the white pulp, resulting in activation of the T-lymphocytes stored there.

163
Q

What is MALT?

A

The mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)

164
Q

What are the three types of tonsils?

A

Technically, there are three sets of tonsils in the body: the pharyngeal tonsils, commonly known as adenoids, the palatine tonsils and the lingual tonsils, which are lymphatic tissue on the surface tissue of the base of the tongue, according to Encyclopedia Britannica.

165
Q

What produces angiotensinogen?

A

Liver

166
Q

What produces renin?

A

KIdney

167
Q

Where is calcium phosphate be found in the mouth?

A

Saliva, calculus, teeth

168
Q

How do kidneys regulate calcium levels in blood?

A

Kidneys can produce calcitriol which is a compound which signals for breakdown of bone

169
Q

What can amorphous calcium phosphate be used for?

A

Reduction of sensitivity after tooth bleaching or cleaning by blocking dential tubules

170
Q

What is an epitaxy?

A

Solid surface that promotes the growth of crystals

171
Q

What protein does dentine contain?

A

Colagen

172
Q

What protein does exist in the enalem but is in small numbers?

A

Amelogenin

173
Q

What the make up of enamel?

A

95-97% minerals, 1 % organic, 2-3% water

174
Q

What are enamel rod?

A

Enamel rods are build up of crystals that extend from the dentine

175
Q

What is the make up of dentine?

A

70% mineral, 20% organic material, 10% water

176
Q

In terms of organic material, what is the make up of dentine?

A

90% collagenous, 10% non-collagenous

177
Q

What is dentine most closely resemble?

A

Pulp

178
Q

What is an odontoblast?

A

It is highly specialised cell that is used to produce proteins in the pulp

179
Q

What promotes remin in a healthy mouth?

A

Saliva which is supersaturated with calcium and phosphate at neutral pH

180
Q

Why do acid promote demin?

A

They bind to phosphates in saliva, increase pH increasing dissociation of calcium thus dissolving hydroxyapitite and fluroapitate

181
Q

What is the importance of fluoride in the toothpaste?

A

Fluroapitite

182
Q

What are the three common causes of tooth wear?

A

Attrition, abrasion, erosion

183
Q

What are the functions of dental tubules?

A

Similarly to blood vessels they can carrie nutrients, cells etc that are needed for the dentine

184
Q

What are the three major salivary glands?

A

Sublingual mucous + serous), submandibular (serous & mucous), parotid (serous)

185
Q

What is a stephen’s curve?

A

It is a curve that illustrates the pH of the oral cavity with regards to time

186
Q

What 2 tissue components comprise the periodontium?

A

Periodontal ligament and gingiva

187
Q

What 2 hard tissue components comprise periodontium?

A

Cementum and alveolar bone

188
Q

Why is it important to consider population perspective and personal perspective on health issues?

A

It is impotant for the recognition of patterns and improvment of PCC.

189
Q

What can population risk be affected by?

A
  1. The relative risk for the exposure in individuals 2. The prevalence of eposure to the risk in the population
190
Q

What are the three ways we can prevent disease on a population level?

A

Biomedical model (lifestyle changes,promotion and education), social model (focusing on communities, access to health care), ecological model (considering all components)

191
Q

Which method could be used to control small bleeding in the mouth?

A

Chemical, with use of tri-chloroucetic acid

192
Q

What are the five importnt aspects of perseption?

A
  1. Stimulus 2. Translation 3. Coding 4. Modification 5. Interpretation
193
Q

What are the two types of receptors?

A
  1. Detached from afferent neuron 2. Attached to afferent neuron
194
Q

What is depolarisation?

A

When action potential moves towards 0

195
Q

What is hyperpolorisation?

A

When action potential moves more negatively

196
Q

What is spatial stimulation?

A

When there are multiple stimuli applied at different locations to the same afferent neuron providing greater depolarisation

197
Q

What type of bone is in the mandible?

A

Spongy

198
Q

What is the importance of muscle spindles?

A

They help to determine where your limbs are in space

199
Q

How can we reduce the absorption of consumed fluoride?

A

Milk

200
Q

What is the function of GIT?

A

It contributes to the homeostasis by breaking down food into forms that can be absorbed and used by body cells

201
Q

What are the 6 basic processes of digestion and where are they carried out?

A

Ingestion, propulsion, mechanical digestion, chemical digestion, absorption, excretion

202
Q

What are the 4 layers of GIT?

A

Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa

203
Q

What are the two types of epithelium found in GIT?

A

Stratified squamous (mouth, oesophagus & anal canal), simple columnar could contain villi (remainder)

204
Q

What are the 4 factors that regulate function of GIT?

A
  1. Autonomous smooth muscle function 2. Intrinsic nerve plexuses 3. Extrinsic nerves 4. GI Hormones
205
Q

What type of cell creates slow, smooth muscle contractions in GIT?

A

Interstitial cells of Cajal.

206
Q

How many taste buds are on the tongue?

A

10 k roughly

207
Q

What are the three types of cells located on a taste bud?

A

Gustatory, supporting, basal

208
Q

Where is olfactory epithelium located?

A

Nasal cavity, top

209
Q

What are the three stages of swallowing?

A

Buccal, pharyngeal, oesophageal

210
Q

What epithelium lines the oesophagus?

A

Non-keratinised, stratified, squamous epithelium

211
Q

What type of muscle can be found in the oesophagus?

A

Skeletal, smooth & skeletal, smooth

212
Q

What type of epithelium lines the stomach?

A

Simple columnar

213
Q

What are the three histological areas of the stomach?

A

Cardia, fundus, pylorus

214
Q

What is the function of chief cells?

A

Secrete pepsinogen + gastric lipase

215
Q

what cells produce hydrogen and chloride in the stomach?

A

Parietal cells (in active form)

216
Q

What is the function of enterocytes?

A

Absorb

217
Q

What is the function of paneth cells?

A

Secretion of lyzozymes

218
Q

What is the main function of the gall bladder?

A

Bile storage

219
Q

How does bilr facilitate digestion?

A

Emulsification and fomation of micells

220
Q

What epithelium is in the gall bladder?

A

Simple columnar

BDS 1 Semester 2 (12 decks)

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