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Semester 1 > sem 1 > Flashcards

sem 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Respon to injury of non penetrating skin with cell loss has been suggested of one of the hypothesis…..

a. Vasoconstriction of local blood vessel in a stretch area producing “white line effect”
b. Vasodilatation of the smallest blood vessels.
c. Cell loss lead to decrease production of chalone with subsequent increase in mitotic rate.
d. Cell loss lead to decrease production of chalone with subsequent decrease in mitotic

A

fa

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2
Q

The skin injury which is accessory epithelial structures remain, the heating process will produce ….

a. Superficial scar tissue
b. Deep scar tissue
c. Normal accessory epithelial tissue with scar superficial
d. Normal skin

A

ga

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3
Q
  1. Which is the most factor that interfering with wound healing?
    a. Locally excessive bleeding
    b. Neurogenic influence
    c. Vitamin C deficiency
    d. Anemia
A

ga

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4
Q
  1. Wound in chirrhotic patient may heal slowly as a consequences of ?
    a. Delay healing by enlarging the dead space of the wound
    b. Lack of blood supply
    c. Interruption in the lying down of normal collagen
    d. Deficient production of clotting factors, protein and albumin.
A

ga

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5
Q
  1. Collagen synthesis in wound healing process is present….
    a. Within the first day after injury
    b. When the wound is mature
    c. As long as a year after injury
    d. Between fifth and seventh days after injury
A

ga

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6
Q
  1. Biochemical event in wound healing is initially …..
    a. Accumulation of hydroxiproline
    b. Accumulation of mucopolysaccharide
    c. Accumulation of laxosamine
    d. Accumulation of aminoacid
A

ga

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7
Q

The ground substance is mostly produce by….

a. Fibroblast
b. Mast cell
c. Reticulum fibers
d. Erythrocyte cells

A

ga

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8
Q

After the new tissue consist of mature collagen network has been organized, the concentration of hydroxyproline will…..

a. Increase
b. Slightly decrease
c. Return toward normal
d. Immediately normal

A

ga

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9
Q
  1. When does the wound tensile strength rise abruptly…..
    a. If the sutures pull through
    b. When the fibrin clot is lysis during formation of granule
    c. After the scar is mature
    d. At the beginning maturation of the collagen fiber which is reticulin produced
A

ga

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10
Q
  1. Komponen general language assessment
    a. hand dexterity
    b. writing ability
    c. transfer ability
    d. mobilization ability
A

ga

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11
Q
  1. Most sensitive area untuk tes diskriminasi 2 titik
    a. lips
    b. fingertips
    c. dorsum of the hand
    d. palm of the hand
A

ga

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12
Q
  1. Pada tes leg pendulous, jika pasien mengalami spastisitas, maka reaksinya…
    a. quality of swing is not changed
    b. time of swing is late but the quality is not changed
    c. time of swing is long and zigzag
    d. time of swing is late, move is irregular
A

ga

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13
Q

Test nystagmus

a. caloric test
b. romberg test
c. stepping test
d. disdiadokokinesis test

A

A

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14
Q

lesi perifer in dix-hallpike maneuver

a. latent phase 2”-30”
b. if do repeatedly, nystagmus will increase
c. no habituation
d. light vertigo

A

A

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15
Q

Comfortable walking speed according to McDonald

a. 350 m/hr
b. 4800 m/min
c. 480 m/min
d. 4.8 km/hr

A

ga

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16
Q

otot pretibial aktif pada gait saat…

a. immediately following heel strike
b. at mid stance
c. at toe off
d. at late swing

A

ga

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17
Q

dyskinesia mrpk ggn di

a. cerebelum
b. ganglia basalis
c. pons
d. cortex cerebri

A

ga

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18
Q

golgi tendon organ sensitive to

a. deep pressure
b. chemical stimuli
c. muscle length
d. muscle tension

A

D

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19
Q

what is innervated by alpha motor neuron

a. intrafusal fibers
b. extrafusal fibers
c. primary spindle ending
d. golgi tendon orgam

A

B

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20
Q

denver developmental skrining test (DDST)’s items are

a. FM, GM, intelectual, language
b. FM, GM, coordination, PS
c. GM, language, intellectual, coordination
d. GM, FM, language, PS

A

D

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21
Q

Local factor that promote poor wound healing is….

a. Iskemic
b. Vaskulitis
c. Malnutrisi
d. chronic illness

A

ga

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22
Q

Selular kinetic in normal skin turn over time of stratum corneum is…

a. 10 jam
b. 10 hari
c. 7 hari
d. 14 hari

A

ga

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23
Q

Correct state for supplementary motor area is….

a. Project subproximal muscle
b. Has a role in bimanual coordination
c. Project through reticulospinal tract
d. Involved in the planning and execute motor command

A

ga

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24
Q

Cerebellar output for hemisphere region is….

a. Control of axial muscles and movement progress
b. Control of distal muscles and movement progress
c. Movement planning, timing, and initiation
d. Control of balance and posture reflexes

A

ga

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25
Q
  1. Some factor that influence strength, power and endurance …..
    a. Length of muscle: longer muscles has more tension
    b. Position of muscle to the fulcrum : longer distance to insertion give more force
    c. the amount of training: the longer the exc increase more strength
    d. age: peak performance at the age of 20-25 y.o and decline 1% / year after 25 y.o
A

ga

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26
Q
  1. Which location is the highest human temperature :
    a. Head
    b. Foot
    c. Body
    d. Neck
A

ga

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27
Q
  1. Which tract is responsible for transmission of fine motor …..
    a. Lateral corticospinal tract
    b. Vestibulospinal tract
    c. Anterior corticospinal tract
    d. Reticulospinal tract
A

ga

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28
Q
  1. Which tract is responsible for modulation of sensory transmission ….
    a. Lateral corticospinal tract
    b. Rubrospinal tract
    c. Reticulospinal tract
    d. Vestibulospinal tract
A

ga

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29
Q
  1. Process skill of AMPS ….
    a. Postural control
    b. Mobility
    c. Adaptive capability
    d. Coordination
A

C

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30
Q
  1. Combined ADL and IADL ….
    a. Barthel index
    b. AMPS (assessment of motor and process skills)
    c. FIM
    d. FAI (Franchai …
A

C

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31
Q
  1. Self care evaluation of children is …
    a. FIM
    b. FAI
    c. WEEFIM
    d. AMPS
A

C

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32
Q
  1. Barthel index max score:
    a. feeding 5
    b. Personal toilet 10
    c. Bathing self 10
    d. Dressing 10
A

D

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33
Q
  1. When talking about science of motion, what is meant by the geometry of motion without regard of forces?
    a. Kinetic
    b. Kinesthesia
    c. Kinesiology
    d. Kinematic
A

D

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34
Q
  1. In relation to ergonomics, which statement is most appropriate?
    a. Ergonomic is the study of postural problem
    b. Ergonomic is the study of human behavior in connection to their anatomy
    c. Ergonomic is the human behavior related to their occupation
    d. Ergonomic is the study of occupational stress
A

C

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35
Q
  1. Which statement is correct in describing the sagital axis of human body
    a. The axis which is perpendicular to the ground
    b. The axis which is passes horizontally trough the body
    c. The axis which is perpendicular to the ground
    d. The axis which passes vertically through the body
A

B

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36
Q
  1. When asking a person to carry something in the right way, what should we educate :
    a. Kinesiology
    b. Ergonomic
    c. Leverage
    d. Forces
A

B

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37
Q
  1. When managing problems connected to ergonomic we have to work in a multidisciplinary team which part is specifically the field of rehabilitation medicine
    a. Physical environment
    b. Work physiology
    c. Work station design
    d. Human behavior
A

C

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38
Q
  1. Static work includes the following fact
    a. Prolonged extension of muscles
    b. Rhythmic contraction of muscles
    c. Prolonged contraction of muscles
    d. Alternating of contraction and relaxation
A

C

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39
Q
  1. The most appropriate word in describing static word is
    a. Uncontrolled posture
    b. Constrained position
    c. Corrected posture
    d. Powerful posture
A

B

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40
Q
  1. In the leverage system of the human arm, the effort is produced by….
    a. The contracting muscle
    b. The movement of the arm
    c. The range of motion of the shoulder
    d. The shape of the joint
A

A

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41
Q
  1. Patient male, 30 y.o., suffer from spinal cord injury. This patient is referred to our department (IKFR) in the first day after injury. From physical examination, somnolent, BP is 130/80, RR is 20x/min, paralysis both of legs, IVFD and catheter are in place. Your priority program at this moment is:
    a. feeding program
    b. strengthening exc
    c. psychologist to give supportive therapy to his family
    d. rehabilitation nurse to give proper bed positioning and catheter maintenance
A

D

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42
Q
  1. Community Base Rehabilitation strategic is to encourage the community to be more active. The purpose of the program is:
    a. Promotive program to prevent impairment
    b. Comprehensive management to prevent impairment, disability and handicap
    c. Early detection in community and simple rehabilitation program
    d. Curative management of the disease
A

ga

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43
Q

Community Base Rehabilitation strategic is to encourage the community to be more active. The purpose of the program is:

a. Promotive program to prevent impairment
b. Comprehensive management to prevent impairment, disability and handicap
c. Early detection in community and simple rehabilitation program
d. Curative management of the disease

A

ga

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44
Q

The part of brain which is responsible for organizing and patterning the muscle action of respiration, phonation and articulation in produces recognizable speech is

a. Right parietal cortex
b. Left parietal cortex
c. Left frontal cortex
d. Right frontal cortex

A

ga

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45
Q

In expressive language, patient might evident paragramatism. The definition of paragramatism is

a. Absence of recognized grammatical element during speech attempt
b. Misuse of grammatical element, usually during fluent utterance
c. A combination of unrelated semantics and phoneinic paraphasia, together with recognizable words
d. An accurate repetition of a preceding utterance when repetition is not required

A

B

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46
Q

From the observation of stroke patients with aphasia, we found that the patient had limited language output, fair naming, intact repetition and fair comprehension. According to the Boston classification of aphasia, it might be the type of

a. Non fluent broca aphasia
b. Transcortical motoraphasia
c. Anomia aphasia
d. Mixed transcortical aphasia

A

D

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47
Q

In physical exam, patient with Bulbar palsy, we will find some impairments. Which of the sign is correct

a. Hypernasality which is associated with weakness of the tongue
b. Production of consonants and vowels are impaired due to dysphonia
c. Articulation is often imprecise because of velopharingeal incompetence and insufficient intra oral breath pressure
d. Vocal emphasis, peak and valley of pitch and variation loudness are flattened, resulting in monotomy

A

A

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48
Q

Apraxia and dysarthria are considered motor speech disorder, they can be distinguished on the basis of several clinical features. Which of the statement below is correct

a. In most dysartrias, all speech subsystems including respiration and vonation are not involved
b. Highly consistent articulatory errors are characteristic of apraxia
c. In apraxia, automatic movement are not intact
d. In apraxia, automatic movement are intact

A

ga

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49
Q

One major component of the history of communication. The examiner should know about:

a. The ability of listening, writing, reading and speaking
b. The complication of the disease
c. The medication was given by the patient
d. The exercise was given to the patient

A

ga

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50
Q

The most basic stage of mobility in independence in bed activities. Representative question

a. Can you move between the bed and toilet or wheelchair without assistance?
b. Can you lift your hips off the bed when supine?
c. Do you require assistance during dressing?
d. Do you require assistance to stand or high seat?

A

ga

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51
Q

The final level of mobility in ambulation. According to Joel Delisa, which is the question appropriate to be asked?

a. Do you proper a wheelchair?
b. Do you have difficulty maintaining a seated position?
c. Do you get on and off the toilet without help?
d. Do you use a cane, crutches or a walker to walk?

A

ga

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52
Q

The patient profile provide the interviewer with some information about

a. The patient’s present and past psychological state,social and vovational background
b. Disease may potential give adverse effect onrehabilitaion outcome
c. A complete list of current medication
d. A recorded of handedness which is important in many areas of rehabilitation

A

ga

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53
Q

We dress to go out into the world,to protect our body, self esteem and pleasure. Which appropriate question is represent

a. Do you need help with closing before and after using toilet?
b. Are there parts of your body you cannot reach?
c. What articles of clothing do you regularly wear?
d. Do you use any communication aids?

A

ga

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54
Q

The right statements between hypertrophia and hyperplasia

A

ga

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55
Q
  1. Process…  metaplasia
A

ga

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56
Q
  1. Parkinson disease happens in what area
A

substansia nigra

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57
Q
  1. Subthalamic lession
A

ga

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58
Q
  1. Hyperkinetic disorder, chorea and athetosis happens in what area
A

ga

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59
Q
  1. Basal Ganglia consists of
A

C. nucleus lentiformis

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60
Q

the determinants of gait that is not a characteristics of gait is:

a. width of walking base
b. cadence
c. lateral displacement
d. foot and ankle mechanism

A

ga

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61
Q

analysis stance phase of hip joint. Which one the right phase in table below from 1-5

  1. hip moving into extension, adduction, medial rotation
  2. hip moving thru neutral position, pelvis rotating posteriorly
  3. reaction force in front of joint; flexion moment moving toward extension; forward pelvic rotation
  4. moment in toe off
  5. 10-15o extension of hip abduction, lateral rotation

a. Heel strike – foot flat – midstance – flexion movement ankle – heel off
b. Midstance – foot flat – heel off – extension of hip 30o – heel strike
c. Foot flat – midstance – heel strike – decrease of extension moment – heel off
d. Foot flat – midstance – heel off – extension of hip 20 o – heel strike

A

C

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62
Q

grade poor in muscle test of capital extension showed that

a. position of patient is prone
b. patient attempt to look back toward examiner with lifting the head from the table
c. head is supported with one hand under the occiput
d. fingers should be placed just at the base of the occiput to the vertebral collumn in attempt to palpate the capital extensors

A

ga

63
Q

patient in supine position with arm crossed over chest. Patient completes range of motion and raises trunk until scapulae are off the table. The grade of MMT is (D)

a. 3-
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

ga

64
Q

position of patient: prone with arms over head
The test above is for MMT of:
a. Scapular abduction and upward rotation
b. Scapular abduction and depression
c. Scapular adduction
d. Scapular depression and adduction

A

ga

65
Q

position of patient: prone with arms over head
The test above is for MMT of:
a. Scapular abduction and upward rotation
b. Scapular abduction and depression
c. Scapular adduction
d. Scapular depression and adduction

A

ga

66
Q

which one the correct statement of manual muscle test for the shoulder flexion

a. the scapula should not be allowed to abduct and upwardly rotaterfixation on scapular
b. patient flexes shoulder 90o with rotation or horizontal movement
c. supine position
d. hand giving resistance is contoured over the distal humerus just above the elbow

A

ga

67
Q

the angle between the femoral neck and the shaft in the frontal plane is named as

a. inclination
b. declination
c. antetorsion
d. retroversion

A

ga

68
Q

the angle between the femoral neck and the shaft in the frontal plane is named as

a. inclination
b. declination
c. antetorsion
d. retroversion

A

ga

69
Q

Ligament Y Bigelow

a. another name for Pubofemoral ligament
b. it plays important role in preventing hip hyperextension
c. it allows to maintain an erect position without muscular effort
d. it becomes tight in hip extension, … with inward rotation

A

ga

70
Q

. the static forces acting on the hip joint

a. the force exerted on each hip joint in approximately two-third of the total body weight
b. the total force on the hip joint in the sum of the body weight plus the force exerted by the hip adductor and tensorfaschialata muscle
c. the force transmitted through hip joint during standing on one leg more than five times body weight
d. the force of the hip joint is also increased by the simple method of leaning over the involved hip

A

ga

71
Q

the dynamic force at the hip joint between acetabulum and the head of the femur is derived from

a. the forces of the ground
b. antigravity
c. desceleration
d. ligaments

A

ga

72
Q

which of the following is appropriate about the semilunar cartilage

a. the curvature is greater than the medial medial …
b. these meniscus assist in distributing the pressure…
c. wristberg ligament blends with the anterior cruciate ligamen
d. all these meniscus are essentially avascular

A

ga

73
Q

Resist posterior translation of the femur

a. Tibiofemoral anterior cruciatum ligament – ACL open chain
b. Posterior cruciate ligament – ACL open chain
c. Posterior cruciate ligament – ACL closed chain
d. Tibiofemoral anterior cruciate ligamen closed chain

A

ga

74
Q

Screw home mechanism

a. The external rotation of the femur on the tibia during the last 20o of extension (open chain)
b. The external rotation of the tibia on the femur during the last 20o of extension (closed chain)
c. It is due to the condylar configuration, muscle pull in torque and ligamentous guidance
d. This mechanism only in knee extension movement

A

ga

75
Q

ligament that avoid tibial external rotation

a. Lig. Cruciate anterior
b. Lig. Cruciate posterior
c. Lig. Collateral medial
d. Lig. Collateral fibulae

A

ga

76
Q

. motion of the knee joint

a. The first 20o of knee flexion causes a gliding motion
b. After 20o of knee flexion, the ligaments become tight
c. After 20o of knee flexion, further flexion is accomplised with a rocking motion
d. The most rotation occurs during the final phase of full flexion

A

ga

77
Q

The DELTOID ligaments is composed of bands:

a. Tibionavicular, anterior talotibial, calcaneotibial, posterior talotibial
b. Anterior talofibular, calcaneofibular, posterior talofibular
c. Tibionavicular, anterior talofibular, calcaneotibial, posterior talofibular
d. Anterior talofibular, calcaneotibial, posterior talofibular

A

ga

78
Q

Spring ligament

a. The plantarcalcaneonavicular ligament, this ligament restrict downward motion of the talus
b. The plantarCN lig, this lig supports downward motion of the talus
c. The long plantar ligament, it restricts
d. The long plantar ligament, it support

A

A

79
Q

Resist varus force

a. Tibiofemoral medial collateral ligament
b. Tibiofemoral lateral colateral ligament
c. Talocrural lateral colateral ligament
d. Talocrural medial colateral ligament

A

ga

80
Q

. synovial hinge mortise joint termed by

a. Subtalar joint
b. Tibiofemoral joint
c. Talocrural joint
d. Patellofemoral joint

A

ga

81
Q

Shock absorber to allow foot to attempt to … of while walking

a. function of the toe
b. function fo the menisci
c. muscles of the foot
d. arch of the foot

A

ga

82
Q

You are a team doctor for Manchaster United. Which of the following will not be influenced:

a. Average BMI
b. Average age
c. Cicardian rhythm
d. Environment exposure

A

ga

83
Q

Some factors that influence strength, power and endurance

a. length of the muscle: longer muscle have more tension
b. position of the muscle insertion to the fulcrum: longer …
c. the amount of the training: the longer the exc increase …
d. age: peak performance at the age of 20 – 25 y.o. …

A

ga

84
Q

Alteration in body temperature:

a. During exc body temp increased because of over
b. In fever resulting from infection, the body acts as if it were too cool
c. Spinal cord injured patients may be less able to respond
d. Anesthetic drugs during operation may disrupt the calcium..

A

ga

85
Q

Mechanical advantage less than 1

a. Weight arm is shorter than effort arm
b. Weight arm is longer than effort arm
c. Effort is bigger than weight
d. Effort move with the speed faster than the weight

A

ga

86
Q

prolonged exc can cause positive and negative effect

a. It can produced hypertrophy of chondrocytes but…
b. It can prevent structural weakening of the bone
c. Chondrocytes will increase in number but decrease in volume
d. Chondrocytes will increase in number and volume …

A

ga

87
Q

which is the most factor that interferes w/ wound healing?

a. locally excessive bleeding
b. neurogenic influence
c. vitamin C deficiency
d. anemia

A

ga

88
Q

collagen synthesis in wound healing process is present

a. within the 1st day after injury
b. when the wound is mature
c. as long as a year after injury
d. between 5th and 7 days after injury

A

ga

89
Q

one task that is now included in job description of Medical Rehabilitation head Department is

a. arrange service task of Rehabilitation
b. make a coordinationi w/ other related departments
c. do examination and make a diagnosis of rehabilitation program
d. evaluate and develop rehabilitation service

A

ga

90
Q

classification of Medical Rehabilitation service in type B (education) hospital include

a. primary service
b. center of national reference
c. secondary service
d. tertiary service

A

ga

91
Q

as a tertiary service in rehabilitation, the hospital service should consist of …. type of service

a. 9
b. 8
c. 5
d. 1

A

ga

92
Q

one point that is not a specialty in Medical Rehabilitation team is

a. one team that work together
b. work toward use patient centre principle
c. physiatrist as a team coordinator
d. rehab service in hospital should be two gate system

A

ga

93
Q

in Indonesia rehab medicine service is not included in
a med rehab service in hospital
b. med rehab service in primary health care
c. community med rehab
d. family med rehab

A

ga

94
Q

scope of med rehab service in hospital include

a. promotive & preventive service
b. promotive, currative, preventive and rehabilitative service
c. promotive, curative,, and rehab service
d. preventive, curative and rehab service

A

B

95
Q

referral term

a. referral concept is a way of giving responsibility only
b. referral can be classified as horizontal, vertical and parallel referral
c. some of referal activity consist of internal and external referral
d. medical referal is correlate w/ promotive and preventive

A

B

96
Q

PMR service in osteoporosis exc is part of

a. promotive
b. preventive
c. curative
d. rehabilitative

A

A

97
Q

giving education and proper management in overcoming incidence of pressure ulcer is considered

a. promotive
b. preventive
c. curative
d. rehabilitative

A

ga

98
Q

giving back school to the nurse to prevent low back pain is considered as

a. promote
b. prevent
c. cure
d. rehabilitate

A

ga

99
Q

in community base rehab program, the community health center/ puskesmas has a role in

a. early detection to impairment, disability and handicap
b. give comprehensive program to prevent impairment, disability and handicap
c. education to community thru community base rehab program
d. referral to subspesialistic

A

ga

100
Q

community base rehab strategic is to encourage the community to be more active, the program is

a. minimize disability
b. promotive program to prevent impairment
c. comprehensive management to prevent impairment disability, and handicap
d. early detection in community

A

D

101
Q

male, 54 y.o., lecturer, suffer from hemorrhagic stroke, referred on the first day of hospitalization. BP 190/130, somnolent, right hemiplegi, NGT, IVFD, catheter. your priority program at this moment is

a. passive ROM to prevent joint contracture
b. rehab nurse to give proper bed positioning and catheter maintenance
c. feeding program
d. psychologist to give supportive therapy to his family

A

B

102
Q

after a week of hemorrhagic stroke, the patient is conscious, BP 140/90, he can only turn side to side, spasticity 1 (AS) on the right side, NGT, IVFD dan catheter still in place. What is your program at this moment?

a. rehab nurse to give bladder training
b. ROM exc to prevent joint contracture and start mobilization
c. feeding program
d. fine motor exc to enhance independent ADL

A

B

103
Q 
factor affecting ROM
a, cognitive
b. gender
c. motivation
d. muscle coordination
A

ga

104
Q

definition of hard end feel is

a. occurs sooner or later in the ROM than is usual, feels boggy
b. occurs sooner or later in the ROM than is usual, joint normally has a soft or hard end feel
c. occurs sooner or later in the ROM than is usual, and a bony block is felt
d. no real end feel because pain prevents reaching end of the ROM

A

C

105
Q

chief complaint in physiatric history taking should be clear, specific and functional oriented. Which is the first step to do the physiatric history taking

a. shake hand and greet the patient
b. guide the patient to answer the disease problems
c. ask and guid the patient to answer as you want
d. ask the patient if the patient need help

A

A

106
Q

mrs A. 50 y.o., CC pain in calves after walking several blocks. Diagnosis?

a. parkinson
b. lumbosacral radiculopathy
c. myofascial pain in the lumbosacral para spinal muscles
d. peripheral vascular disease or lumbar stenosis

A

ag

107
Q

peripheral sensation caused by a light percussion over the brachial plexus in the supraclavicular fossa indicate positive of

a. allen test
b. schwartz test
c. adson’s test
d. tinnel’s test

A

ga

108
Q

the longest fetal skull diameter is

a. biparietal
b. bitemporal
c. verticomental
d. suboccipitobregmatic

A

ga

109
Q

35 y-o man suffered from a right hemisphere stroke. communication deficit mostly in this patient comes as

a. wernicke’s aphasia
b. global aphasia
c. confrontation naming and word fluency
d. right side neglect and visuospatial processing impairment

A

ga

110
Q

proprioception or joint position sense is tested by

a. using tuning fork placed on bony prominence
b. vertical passive movement of the toes or finger
c. writing recognizable numbers on the patient palm w/ eyes closed
d. using a single or double pin prick of brief duration on the skin

A

ga

111
Q

more marked increase in muscle tone through most of ROM, but affected part easily move, the grade of spasticity is

a. 1+
b. 2
c. 2+
d. 3+

A

A

112
Q

mr sanny is 37. he has a weakness on the right arm. The proper way to assess the deltoid muscle strengthe is by

a. giving resistance on wrist
b. resistance is giving on 45 o shoulder abduction
c. patient in sitting or supine position
d. relaxing the deltoid anterior muscle

A

ga

113
Q

significant muscle contraction, full joint motion against gravity, but giving way against resistance. the grade, percentage and mmt is

a. good, 80%, 4
b. fair, 50%, 3
c. poor, 30%, 2
d. poor, 50%. 3

A

ga

114
Q

which of the following is TRUE

a. the anatomical axis of whole femur is formed by a line drawn from the centre
b. the anatomical axis of the femur is made up of two axes
c. the mechanical axis of the femur forms with the anatomical axis an angle of 15-17 degrees
d. the mechanical axis of the femur is made up femoral neck axis and femoral shaft

A

ga

115
Q

true statement about motion of knee joint

a. the 1st 20o of knee flexion causes gliding motion
b. after 20o of knee flexion is accomplished w/ a rocking motion
c. most rotation occurs during full flexion and during the last 30-40o extension
d. knee flexion or extension is accompanied by a gliding motion of the tibia upon the femur during knee flexion

A

ga

116
Q

which is TRUE about deltoid ligament

a. most frequently ankle injury, esp. ankle inversion injury
b. very strong that severe eversion injury can cause avulsion of the medial maleolus
c. composed of 3 bands: anterior talofibular, posterior talofibular and calcaneofibular
d. composed of 4 bands: tibionavicular, posterior talofibular, anterior talofibular and calcaneotibial

A

ga

117
Q

the elbow is a structurally stable joints, contains

a. 3 articulation within 2 joint capsule
b. 2 articulation within 2 joint capsule
c. 3 articulation within a single joint capsule
d. 3 articulation within 3 joint capsule

A

ga

118
Q

the axis for flexion and extension of elbow is represented by a line through the centers of

a. trochlea and capitulum
b. lateral and medial epicondyle
c. trochlea and radial tuberosity
d. capitulum and lateral epicondyle

A

ga

119
Q

the most common postural tremor associated with cerebellar lesion is

a. resting tremor
b. titubation
c. ataxia
d. chorea

A

ga

120
Q

the preganglionic fibers of the cranial portion of the parasymphatetic nervous system originate from the brain stem is

a. n. olfactorius (I)
b. n. opticus (II)
c. n. occulomotor (III)
d. n. trigeminus (V)

A

ga

121
Q

which nerve that approximately up to 80% of the parasymphatetic innervations in the human body

a. pelvic splanchnic nerve
b. hypogastric nerve
c. glossopharyngeal nerve
d. vagus nerve

A

ga

122
Q

major task during initial cognitive stage of learning is

a. refinement of the motor program thru practice
b. to develop movement into coordinated pattern
c. concentrating esp on ‘how to do’ the movement rather than ‘what to do’ on the movement
d. to develop an overall understanding of the skill

A

ga

123
Q

an activity example of discrete motor skill is

a. transfer activity from wheelchair to bed
b. someone running while bouncing a ball
c. stair climbing w/ upper arm support
d. the individual locks the brakes on wheelchair

A

ga

124
Q 
energy expenditure in diplegi CP is increase approximately
a. 100%
b, 200 %
c. 39%
d. 64 %
A

gaa

125
Q

the use of energy is increased if

a. prosthetic is light
b. stability alignment is good
c. there is moving proximal COg
d. there is moving distal COG

A

ga

126
Q

which is right

a. balance control involves a simple network
b. stabilization of upright posture did not integrate of afferent information
c. the human body is short structure balance on a relatively large base, and its COG is quite high, being just above the pelvis
d. the vestibular apparatus supplies information that measures gravi-tational linear and angular acceleration of head

A

ga

127
Q

decrease of cervical lordosis and increase of occiput-atlas curve is characteristic of

a. flat upper back
b. forward head
c. flat neck
d. flat back posture

A

ga

128
Q

normal body weigh

a. 3 mo: 2x Newborn BW
b. 6 mo: 3x
c. 12 mo: 2 x
d. 12 mo: 3x

A

D

129
Q

exc to increase strength, power and endurance can be done in several method

a. isometric exc is a static exc to prevent atrophy and to increase strength and endurance
b. isotonic exc is a dynamic exc w/ constant force in the whole range of motion
c. isokinetic exc is a combination of static and dynamic exercise w/ constant load in the whole range of motion
d. isokinetic exc is a combination of static and dynamic exc and the muscle contraction can be lengthen and shorten w/ variation in load and force

A

ga

130
Q

alteration in body temp

a. during exc, body temp increase because of overload of body heat loss mechanism even though in extreme temp environment
b. in fever resulting from infection, the body acts as if it were too cool and behavioral changes such as shivering to increase heat production
c. SCI patient may be less able to respond to changes in environment temperature because of direct peripheral vasodilator that increased heat loss
d. anesthetic drug during operation may disrupt the calcium regulation in skeletal muscle and cause shivering and hypothermia

A

ga

131
Q

barthel index maximum score (independent) is

a. feeding:5
b. personal toilet: 10
c. bathing self: 10
d. dressing: 10

A

ga

132
Q

Extended ADL

a. Food preparation
b. Eating
c. Use of the toilet
d. Mobility within the home

A

ga

133
Q

Basic ADL

a. Laundry
b. Food preparation
c. House keeping
d. Mobility within the home

A

ga

134
Q

static work includes the following fact

a. prolonged extension of muscles
b. rhythmic contraction of muscles
c. prolonged contraction of muscles
d. alternating of contraction and relaxation

A

ga

135
Q

most appropriate word in describing static work is

a. uncontrolled posture
b. constrained position
c. corrected posture
d. powerful position

A

ga

136
Q

in the leverage system of the humban arm, the effort is produced by

a. contracting muscle
b. the movement of the arm
c. the range of motion of the shoulder
d. the shape of the joint

A

ga

137
Q

Incidence of pressure ulcer in immobilize patient in RSHS almost 20 %. This complication can be minimized by giving education and proper bed management such as proper bed positioning. This program is included in:

a. Primary prevention
b. Secondary prevention
c. Tertiary prevention
d. curative

A

ga

138
Q
  1. The role of the long finger flexion in grasping :
    a. The flexor digitorum superficial …… to the base of the distal phalangs flexor the proximal IP joint
    b. Flexor digitorum superfisialis and profundus serve the second to fifth digiti for flexion of the IP joint
    c. In the motion of closing the hand, flexion of the finger is not almost ….. of the digital joints
    d. In using the hand for grasping, flexion of MCP joint is not necessary for proper shape of the hand
A

ga

139
Q
  1. The muscular position of the ….. muscle is easily observe and palpated in the space between metacarpal bones of the thumb and the index finger when resistance is applied to abduction of the index finger. The muscle is :
    a. Abductor pollicis
    b. Adductor pollicis
    c. Lumbosacralis
    d. First interosseus
A

ga

140
Q
  1. The figure indicates the phase of gait :
    a. Initial contact
    b. Loading response
    c. Single leg stance
    d. Midstance
A

ga

141
Q
  1. Which of the following sentence is right?
    a. Limb advancement is very important in gait cycle
    b. The single limb support have 2 phase
    c. One of single limb support function is shock absorber
    d. The most important task in gait cycle is weight acceptance
A

ga

142
Q
  1. Time for finish step of left and right foot is :
    a. Cadence
    b. Step length
    c. Stride time
    d. Step time
A

ga

143
Q

Which of the following sentence about tones examination is right?

a. No need total cooperation from patient
b. No need palpation
c. Move with the velocity dependent
d. Can be done by inspection

A

ga

144
Q

Flexion forearm passively with upper arm hold in abduction position of the shoulder in hipotony condition, there is an increase flexibility and …. That is :

a. Babinsky tonus test
b. Arm dropping
c. Shoulder shaking test
d. Test of pendouloussness of the arm

A

ga

145
Q

Which of the following sentence about tones is right?

a. The resistance of the muscle ………….
b. Rigidity is one of tones ….
c. The tones is influenced by synergy movement
d. The tones is influenced by non volunteer control

A

ga

146
Q

Slight increase in muscle tone manifested by catch follow by minimal resistance throughout reminder (less than half) of ROM. The modified ashworth scale is :

a. 1
b. 1+
c. 2
d. 3

A

ga

147
Q

If the Ashworth scale of spasticity is 3, the explanation is :

a. Passive movement difficult
b. Affected parts rigid in flexion or extension
c. More marked increase in muscle tone through most of ROM
d. More than half ROM resistance

A

ga

148
Q

A person who has a sturdy body build characterized by relative phenomen of …… developed by the embryonic ectoderm is :

a. ectomorph type
b. mesomorph type
c. endomorph type
d. exomorph type

A

ga

149
Q

Lumbosacral plexus yang paling panjang dan besar :

a. femoral
b. obturator
c. pudendal
d. sciatic

A

ga

150
Q

Setelah injury berat pada hip, wanita tidak bias mengekstensikan hip kanannya, saraf apa yg terkena :

a. femoral
b. obturator
c. pudendal
d. tibial

A

ga

151
Q

. Pernyataan yang benar mengenai LMN :

a. Motor neuron responsible untuk stimulate target muscle
b. Kortikobulbar tract berfungsi pada involuntary adjustment of head
c. Unit motor neuron release glutamate as neurotransmitter
d. alpha motor neuron innervate intrafusal muscle fiber

A

ga

152
Q

Shoulder girdle is a complex of :

a. 20 muscle
b. 18 muscle, 3 bony articulation
c. 18 muscle, 7 bony articulation, 3 soft tissue
d. 20 muscle, 3 bony articulation, 3 soft tissue

A

ga

153
Q

The muscle commonly shortened is intercostalis, serratus anterior, levator scapula, upper trapezius, the muscle commonly weakened in thoracic erector spinae, rhpmboid, middle and lower trapezius. From the information above, the posture will be :

a. sway back posture combined with flatback
b. lordotic posture
c. kifotic posture
d. flat upperback posture

A

ga

Semester 1 (3 decks)

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