Self Test Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What are the main risks of holding cash on deposit?

A

Inflation risk
Interest rate risk
Default risk

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2
Q

What is the maximum compensation possible under the FSCS to cash depositors?

A

100% of the first £85,000 per customer

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3
Q

What are the two types of restricted access accounts?

A

Notice accounts

Term deposit accounts

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4
Q

Once a bond has been issued, any subsequent trading of that bond takes place in which market?

A

Secondary Market

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5
Q

What does the nominal or par value of a gilt determine?

A

The price at whcih a gilt will be redeemed at the redemption date
The amount on which the interest will be received is calculated using the Gilts coupon.

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6
Q

What does the interest or running yield measure and what is the formula?

A

The interest or running yield measures the income return an investor receives on the amount paid for a bond

Coupon/clean price x 100

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7
Q

Which are more volatile: bonds with long periods to maturity and low coupons or those that are short dates with high coupons?

A

The most volatile bonds are those with a long period to maturity and low coupons.

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8
Q

What is a reverse yield curve and how does it differ from a normal yield curve?

A

It indicates that yields are lower for longer dated bonds that for short dated - curve falls from left to right. Interest rates may be expected to decline in future.

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9
Q

Do corporate bonds generally offer higher or lower yields than gilts? Explain why.

A

Corporate bond yields more that the equivalent gilt. There is a higher credit risk and they could become insolvent. Corporate bonds are less liquid and generally have a wider bid-offer spread and the risk ir could not be traded when required.

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10
Q

What two factors tend to influence the price movements of an individual share?

A

Future expectations

Historic and current knowledge of a company’s performance

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11
Q

Is a rise in interest rates likely to raise or depress the share price of building companies?

A

A rise is likely to depress builders share price due to increased mortgage costs

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12
Q

To what extent is a preference share comparable to a corporate bond?

A

Preference shares are similar to bonds in that they pay a fixed income in the form of a dividend that has preference over normal dividends
Preference share dividends are taxed as dividend income and not at the savings rate payable on interest
Preference shares are often issued with a redemption date

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13
Q

Which type of share ranks lowest if a company goes into liquidation?

A

Ordinary shares, as payment of debts and other share classes come first

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14
Q

A client is considering investing in listed private equity companies. What are the risks associated with this type of investment?

A

High risk of losses as some companies will grow more slowly or fail.
Vunerable to a domestic downturn
Listed private equity stocks are less liquid that other listed stocks, making them more difficult to trade and sell

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15
Q

What is a price-earnings (P/E) ratio and what does it tell an investor about the potential for growth in the share price?

A

Compares the share price to earnings per share

High PE usually indicates optimism, however does not indicate whether a share price will rise or fall

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16
Q

Why might it be appropriate to include property within an investment portfolio?

A

Obtain additional diversification
Returns are generally less volatile
as property asset is backed, it can provide long term protection against inflation

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17
Q

What are the disadvantages of investing in a work of art?

A
Dont generate any form of income
cost money to keep
Demand is driven by taste
Authenticity can be hard to prove
High buying and selling costs
Difficult to diversify
Specialist knowledge
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18
Q

What are the two broad classifications for commodities?

A

Hard and soft commodities

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19
Q

Why should investors pay attention to political developments?

A

A governments policy changes can have an impact on economic and financial conditions. Political developments can change the investment climate both for the economy and for individual sectors

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20
Q

Why are international developments increasingly important for investors?

A

National economies have become increasingly integrated and financial markets move more and more in step, so investors need an international perspective when allocating assets

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21
Q

What are the four main phases or the business cycle?

A

Recovery, followed by expansion or acceleration of economic growth
Boom
Slowdown or contraction
Recession

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22
Q

How can the business cycle affect the stock market?

A

Share prices generally begin to recover while the economy is in recession, falter when interest rates are raised to curb inflation in a boom and fall back as the economy slows down

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23
Q

How may a governments fiscal policy affect the behaviour of individuals and companies?

A

The different tax treatment of different types of asset will influence investment decisions
The tax treatment of a companys earnings will affect its dividend policy and whether it raises captial through debt or equities

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24
Q

What are the two main measures of money supply and what do the comprise?

A

M0 and M4
M0 - notes, coins, banks operational deposits within the Bank of E
M4 - notes, coins, plus all instant access and deposits accounts of UK residents with UK Banks and societies

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25
Q

What are the effects when the Bank of England reduces short term interest rates?

A

It eases monetary policy
If the market agrees with the Banks view of inflation, longer term interest rates will fall
This will lead to rising asset prices, wealth will increase making people more willing to borrow and spend, stimulating demand
Low interest rates will encourage more borrowing
Those dependant on income from cash deposits will
be worse off

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26
Q

How does the country’s balance of payments current account affect currency values?

A

If there is a surplus, in means that the country exports more goods than it imports. Buyers have to acquire the currency to pay for the goods, increasing the country’s foreign reserves and strenghthening the currency
If there is a deficit, it implies the need to sell the local currency to acquire foreign goods

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27
Q

How do exchange rates impact on investments in the domestic and foreign markets?

A

The value of any profit earned from either investments in overseas markets or from selling products overseas is affected by the exchange rate. The profit may be increased or reduced depending on the exchange rate when it is converted into the domestic currency.
The profitability of their export business affects the value of the shares of exporting companies.

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28
Q

What does standard deviation measure?

A

The standard deviation measures how widely the actual return on investment varies around the mean or expected return.; The greater the standard deviation, the greater the volatility and expected risk

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29
Q

What does beta measure?

A

The sensitivity of a security to a market

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30
Q

What type of risk can be eliminates by holding a diversified portfolio?

A

Non systematic or investment specific risk

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31
Q

Why, in theory, should investment managers construct portfolios that lie on the efficient frontier?

A

It represents the set of portfolios that have the best risk reward trade offs, so for any level of risk the portfolio on the frontier with that level of risk will give the best return for an investor

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32
Q

What is usually used as representing a risk free asset in the CAPM equation?

A

Ninety one day treasury bills as there is virtually no risk of default

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33
Q

How does artbitrage pricing theory differ from CAPM?

A

It believes that there is more than one type of risk that influences security returns with different securities having different sensitivities to each risk. CAPM argues that returns are based on systematic to which the security is exposed rather than total risk

34
Q

What are the three forms of the efficient market hypothesis and what information do they consider?

A

Weak form - current security fully reflects past price and trading volumes and future prices cannot be predicted
Semi strong - prices adjust based on all publically known information rapidly and unbiased, so no returns can be earned by trading on the information
Strong - Prices reflect all information available to an investor

35
Q

How does behavioural finance explain market anomalies?

A

Behavioural finance highlights inefficiencies caused by the irrational way investors react to new information, which causes market trends and bubbles.

36
Q

A lump sum of £20,000 is invested at 3% per annum for five years. How much will be accumulated at the end of 5 years?

A

£23,185.48

£20k x 1.03 power of 5
=£20k x 1.16
= answer

37
Q

Interest is payable monthly at a nominal rate of 6% a year. What is the annual effective rate?

A

6.17%

38
Q

Which of the following building societies offer the more favourable rate?

A pays 5.7% annual interest, compounded half yearly

B pays 5.65% annual interest compounded monthly

A
  1. 78% A
  2. 8% B

so B

39
Q

What amount has been invested to accumulate £10,000 at the end of three years at an annual interest rate of 2%

A

PV = £9423.22

40
Q

If the nominal rate of return on an investment is 6%, inflation is 3%, what is the approximate rate of return?

A

3%

41
Q

Is inflation usually a major consideration for short term investment?

A

No

42
Q

What are the main risks that an investor should be aware of when investing in a UK corporate bond?

A

Interest rate, credit and inflation risk, but event and liquidity risk should also be considered

43
Q

Explain the five different types of credit risk

A

Default risk - the issuer defaults on an interest payment or on the capital
Downgrade risk - the risk the bonds are downgraded by a rating agency or one is anticipated
Credit spread risk - the risk that credit spreads change. A widening of credit spreads will lead to corporate bonds underperforming gilts
Counteryparty risk - the risk a counterparty will not pay what is obliged to pay on a security or other transaction
Bail in risk - risk that financial assisance comes from the existing captial base

44
Q

If an investor borrows 25% of the cost of an investment, how much do they lose in % terms if the value of the investment falls by 10%

A

13.33%

45
Q

Summarise the tax position of investment trusts

A

Approved by the HMRC, not subject to tax on gains from share sales or holdings in the portfolio

No tax on franked income

Pay corporation tax on unfranked income

Investors are liable to CGT if selling for more than cost

46
Q

What is financial gearing?

A

Borrow money to take advantage of an investment opportunity

47
Q

What are the main characteristics of zero divided preference shares?

A

Fixed redemption dates - usually 10 years
pay no income and have preferntial rights over distribution
Rises from initial value by compoun growth rate until redemption value

48
Q

What does redemptin yield measure?

A

Capital and income return at wind up, as a %

49
Q

Name the two types of investment trust?

A

Conventional and split capital investment

50
Q

What is an investment trust?

A

A collective investment in the form of a PLC, pools money for investors across a portfolio.

Has a defined number if shares, is listed on the LSE and regulated by company law

51
Q

What does a UCTIS certificate permit the fund manager to do?

A

Market the trust in any of the EU member states, subject to that state’s marketing rules

52
Q

What does an equalisation payment represent?

A

A partial refund on the original capital invested (as the paid price includes accrued income)

53
Q

What must the unit trust register of unit holders contain?

A

Name and address of unit holders
Number of units of each type by unit holder
The date of registration of the unit holder

54
Q

What percentage of a securities fund must be in approved securities?

A

90%

55
Q

For an OEIC who is responsible for establishing and mantaining the register of shareholders?

A

The authorised corporate director (ACD)

56
Q

Explain briefly what you understand by the term market value reduction (MVR)

A

The MVR is applied to unitised with profits funds and was prevu=iously known as the market value adjustment factor.
Life offices reserve the right to reduce the amount paid on surrender of a policy during times of adverse market conditions and do this by applying MVR
It does not usually apply on death or maturity as its aim is to prevent value leaving the fund exceeding the value of the underlying assets

57
Q

Which bonds seperate income and capital so that the income paid reflects the income generated by the fund, leaving the capital intact? For which type of investor are they a suitable investment?

A

Distribution bonds - suitable for a cautious investor requiring income

58
Q

State the various with profits savings plans which are currently in force?

A

With profits endowment
low cost endowment
unitised with profits

59
Q

What are the main types of life assurance policies for the investment of lump sums?

A
guaranteed income bonds
high income bonds
guaranteed growth bonds
unit linked bonds
distribution bonds
guaranteed/protected equity bond
with profit bond
60
Q

What are the chargeable events for non-qualifying policies?

A
Death of the life assured
maturity
surrender or final encashment
certain part surrenders
assignment for money or money's worth
61
Q

What is the aim of a real estate investment trust?

A

Provide the privtae investor wiht a liquid market in property investment through a widely accessible savings and investment vehicle, which has tax treatment that is closely aligned to the tax arrangements in place for direct investment in property

62
Q

Describe the tax position of an investor receiving income from a REIT?

A

Two elements
a payment from the ring fenced (tax exempt) property letting element. For UK investors this is treated as UK property income and will be paid net of basic rate tax. Non tax payers can reclaim the tax deducted. ISA investors receive payments gross. Higher and additional rate payers will pay extra
A dividend payment from the Wnon-rignfenced (non exempt) element. Treated in the same way as any other UK dividend, depending on the investors tax position.

63
Q

Expain how capital gains tax re-investment relief operates for an enterprise investment scheme?

A

Re-investment must take place in the period beginning one year before and ending three years after the disposal giving rise to the gain.
Deferred gain is brought into charge when the EIS shares are disposed of, unless a further qualifying re-investment is made
CGT rate applied to a deferred gain will be at the rate at the time the deferral ends and the gain becomes liable to tax
Gains arising on disposal of the EIS investment that qualified for income tax relief are exempt from CGT as long as the shares have been held for 3 years
Losses on EIS investments are allowable where either income tax relief or CGT deferral relief has been obtained, although a deduction is made for the intial income tax relief that has been given. A loss can be set against either chargeable gains or income

64
Q

Who is eligible for a junior ISA?

A

Uk resident children under 18 that do not have a CTF

65
Q

What happens to a junior ISA when a child reaches 18?

A

It will default to an adult ISA

66
Q

If a Uk equity fund manager believes that there is going to be a sharp downturn in the market in the short term and wants to protect the value of the fund, apart from selling part of the portfolio, what else can they do?

A

Sell FTSE 100 futures or buy a FTSE 100 put option

67
Q

What are the four broad categories of hedge fund strategy?

A

Long/short funds
Relative value funds
Event driven funds
Tactical trading funds

68
Q

Give three drawbacks of investing directly in securities?

A

High volatility
Higher costs, particularly for small portfolios
Greater involvement required
Results more variable, one or two stocks may have a disproportionate effect
CGT may be payable on larger portfolios
More admin
VAT charged on management fees which are not tax relieved

69
Q

Why is three month volatility a relatively important measure of risk for investment strategies with a 20 year time horizon?

A

The longer an investor can hold on to volitile investments, such as shares or property, the greater the likelihood that they can ride out cyclical or other short term downturns

70
Q

Why is it a good idea for investors to keep some of their investment portfolio in a liquid, easily accessible form?

A

The client may have an unexpected need for cash whcih could result in serious capital loss is markey prices are low

It enables clients to take opportunities for addidng to holdings at times of distress or panic selling

71
Q

If a client is saving for retirement in 15 years time, explain why they are more likely to have a higher proportion of their portfolio in equities than in short term dated guilts?

A

This is a relatively long term time horizon and there is no mention of liquidity requirements so it is likely that the client is willing to tolerate a medium or high level of risk in the portfolio. In this case, equities are a more appropriate investment than short term guilts.

72
Q

How can advisers apply asset allocation without the use of probabilistic statistical techniques?

A

By using long run historic average returns and volatility data for the major asset classes as the basis of contracting portfolios

73
Q

Why might a portfolio lying on the efficient frontier deliver less optimal performance over the next five years?

A

Actual or realised return and volatility over the investment period do not correspond to those assumed in the portfolio modelling process

74
Q

Between which pair of asset classes would you expect the highest degree of correlation over any three year period?
A - cash and equities
B - gilts and equities
C - Cash and gilts

A

C - Cash and gilts

75
Q

Which investment style is most commonly adopted by managers of UK equity income funds?

A

Value investing

76
Q

For what reasons might an adviser decide not to use close-ended funds in a portfolio with a cautious risk profile?

A

Closed end funds are more volatile because if their gearing and the variations in the discount/premium to NAV

77
Q

What is the MWR of a portfolio intially worth £384K, now valued at £426,500 which had £16K withdrawn out?

A

426500-384000+16000/384000 = 0.15 (15%)

78
Q

What are the purposes of MWR and TWR?

A

MWR is used to calculate the valid rate of return for a portfolio

TWR is used to compare performance of portfolios as the calculation is not distorted by new investment influxes and cash flows

79
Q

What does the Sharpe ratio measure?

A

The risk free rate for every unit of risk taken, therefore indentifying whether performance is due to skill or risk taking by the manager

80
Q

What does Jensen’s alpha measure?

A

The difference between the return you would expect from a security given its beta and the return actually produces, it is a measure of the skill of a managers stock picking skills

81
Q

What does the information ratio measure?

What does a positive information ratio indicate?

A

IR is the relative return acheived divived by th risk taken relative to benchmark
PI indicates whether the manaher has added value through active management