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Lear 60XR > Self-Check/Test Questions > Flashcards

Self-Check/Test Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum certified takeoff weight?

A

23,500lbs

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2
Q

What is the maximum landing weight?

A

19,500lbs

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3
Q

What is the maximum ramp weight?

A

23,750lbs

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4
Q

What is the maximum zero fuel weight?

A

17,000lbs

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5
Q

With both engines running, what is considered a hazardous area/distance in front of each engine due to air inlet?

A

35 feet

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6
Q

What category is the Learjet 60 certified, and under which part of FAR’s?

A

Transport / Part 25

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7
Q

Maximum operating altitude for the Lear 60?

A

51,000 feet

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8
Q

Maximum takeoff weight with anti-skid inop?

A

18,500 feet

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9
Q

Maximum certified Mmo for Lear 60?

A

.81 MACH

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10
Q

Maximum landing gear operation speed for Lear 60?

A

200 KIAS

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11
Q

Maximum landing gear extended speed?

A

260 KIAS

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12
Q

Maximum speed for flaps 8 extension?

A

250 KIAS

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13
Q

Maximum speed for flaps 20 extension?

A

200 KIAS

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14
Q

Maximum speed for flaps 40 extension?

A

165 KIAS

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15
Q

Minimum control speed (Vmca) for flaps 8?

A

120 KIAS

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16
Q

Minimum control speed (Vmcg) for rudder boost on?

A

95 KIAS

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17
Q

Minimum control speed (Vmca) for flaps 20?

A

110 KIAS

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18
Q

Minimum control speed (Vmcg) for rudder boost off?

A

116 KIAS

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19
Q

How can you refuel the Lear 60, and where are they located?

A

SPPR on the right fuselage, and over the wings.

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20
Q

What is the 4th step in the memory items, during an engine failure above V1? (Emergency Procedures)

A

Positive Rate - Gear Up

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21
Q

What is the 3rd memory item for ROLL OR YAW AXIS MALFUNCTION?

A

Airspeed - Reduce

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22
Q

If a red STALL WARNING ACTIVATES, what is the 1st step in the memory procedures?

A

Lower pitch attitude to lower the angle of attack.

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23
Q

During an overspeed recovery, if the overspeed is severe or pitch attitude is extreme or unknown, what is the next step?

A

Gear - Down

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24
Q

The tire speed limitation is?

A

182 knots (Ground speed)

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25
Q

Engine failure during approach 1st memory item?

A

Control wheel master (MSW) - Depress and Release

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26
Q

Can you fly with the Spoilers INOP, and if yes, what is the limitation?

A

Yes, 38,000 feet.

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27
Q

Maximum cabin differential?

A

9.8 PSI

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28
Q

Where are aural warnings heard?

A

Overhead and cockpit headset speakers

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29
Q

What controls the annunciator panel brightness?

A

Light Sensors

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30
Q

What does the illumination of an amber or red annunciator cause?

A

Flashing Master OR Caution Light

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31
Q

How can a master caution on the ground be inhibited?

A

By pressing and holding the master warning/caution light for two seconds or longer.

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32
Q

What does a red EXT DOOR light indicate?

A

Tailcone access door is not closed or latched or aft baggage door is not closed or latched.

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33
Q

What does a flashing red AFT CAB DOOR light indicate?

A

Aft cabin door is closed but locking pin is still installed or one or more Aft door locking pins is not fully engaged

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34
Q

What does a flashing red ENTRY DOOR light indicate?

A

Key is in locked position or one or more of the door locking pins is not fully engaged.

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35
Q

If the starter engage light does not extinguish after an engine start, what is the next step per the amber checklist?

A

Affected Start/Gen switch - Gen

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36
Q

What instrument would indicate which current limiter had failed and what would be the indication of both have failed?

A

EPM/VDC 25 volts or less

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37
Q

Can any of the generators be reset inflight?

A

Yes / Press Gen reset switch momentarily

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38
Q

What is the maximum continuous amp limit up to FL310?

A

400 amps

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39
Q

The FADEC is powered by what source above 52% N2?

A

Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA)

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40
Q

GPU Limitations for Amps and Volts are?

A

500-1500 amps / 28 volts

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41
Q

What is the output of the Engine Driven Generators?

A

30 VDC and 400 amps

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42
Q

EMER BUS circuit breakers are distinguished by what?

A

Red ring on the overlay

43
Q

The EPM VDC is reading the voltage from what BUS?

A

Battery charging BUS

44
Q

What happens when you move the EMER switch to the EMER BUS position?

A

It supplies power to the battery bus

45
Q

On the EPM panel, what are the amperage readings from?

A

The AC Inverters

46
Q

What is the function of the inverters?

A

Convert 28VDC to 115V AC

47
Q

How many DC buses are on the Lear 60?

A

16

48
Q

What are the lights on the EPM, and their function?

A

Two lights, amber or red lights indicate out of parameters

49
Q

How do the inverters remain in phase?

A

The left inverter signals the right inverter

50
Q

Illumination of the amber ELEC PWR annunciator, and amber or red light of the EPM and flashing of the associated VAC indicates what?

A

AC Bus failure

51
Q

How many current limiters are there and what do they do?

A

2, they connect the L/R GENS to the battery charging bus

52
Q

What indicates a failed auto-pilot self-test?

A

“FD” flag is displayed on the PFD

53
Q

The Integrated Avionics Processor System (IAPS) houses what?

A

The Flight Control Computers

54
Q

How is the Auto-Pilot Self-Test performed?

A

Both Avionics master ON

55
Q

How would a pilot know that menu is available on FMS?

A

A “M” Icon will appear

56
Q

What Avionics component manages all information?

A

IAPS Unit

57
Q

Can you dispatch with an inoperative EFIS display? What must be operative?

A

Yes, Two PFD’s and one MFD

58
Q

If your PFD fails, what is an option?

A

Select manual reversion on your EFIS panel

59
Q

After a failure of the “ADC or AHS”, how can you retrieve the information?

A

Depressing the appropriate reversion button on the ONSIDE EFIS panel

60
Q

What mode would you select if you were cleared for ILS approach?

A

APPR mode on flight director panel

61
Q

What mode would you select if you were cleared for a GPS approach?

A

“NAV” and “VNAV” on flight director panel

62
Q

If you see an amber “E” “R” or “A” on the PFD, what does it indicate?

A

Elevator, Rudder, and Aileron mistrim

63
Q

AHS 1 supplies critical heading information to what instrument?

A

Standby Display unit (SDU)

64
Q

If the “INST FAN” is illuminated on the annunciator panel, what color is it and what does it mean?

A

White, Avionics cooling fan failure.

65
Q

When using SPPR, what is an indication that the aircraft is being fueled properly?

A

Green fuel vent light illuminated

66
Q

What is the required time interval between engine start attempts?

A

3/15/30 minutes

67
Q

During the lights check on preflight. what should the N1 gauges display?

A

188.8

68
Q

What drives the accessory gear box, and by what mechanism?

A

HP rotor drive through a tower shaft

69
Q

The surge bleed control system provides what benefit?

A

Bypasses air to regulate thrust

70
Q

How is the positioning of the bleed off valve (BOV) controlled?

A

EEC via the solenoid control valve

71
Q

When do the green ignition lights come on/off during engine start?

A

On at 6% N2 / Off at 40% N2

72
Q

What causes the L/R OIL PRESS annunciator to illuminate?

A

Oil pressure drops below 20 PSI

73
Q

How would a pilot stow a TR after an inadvertent deployment?

A

FADEC auto stows the effective TR

74
Q

What would cause the L/R HYDR PRESS light to illuminate?

A

Pressure drops below a designated value

75
Q

How can the landing horn be muted? When can it not be muted?

A

Panel, Right Throttles / Flaps below 25 degrees (Gear Up)

76
Q

If an Anti-Skid light is illuminated, can you depart? What is the malfunction?

A

Yes, if only ONE light is illuminated, there is a fault in the Ant-Skid, check the MEL

77
Q

What does the Yaw Damper system augment?

A

Stability about the Yaw Axis, and Rudder Coordination

78
Q

What purpose does the Spoilerons serve, and when do they activate?

A

Roll control / 25 Degrees Flaps

79
Q

What does a flashing SPOILER EXT light mean, and what color is it?

A

Flaps beyond 3 degrees / White / Spoilers Extended

80
Q

Under what condition is it recommended that the Yaw Damper be disengaged?

A

Partial Flap Landing

81
Q

Which trim motor deactivates if the MACH monitor detects a fault?

A

Primary Pitch Trim

82
Q

What is the function of the green indicator on the fuselage?

A

If missing, indicates an over-pressurization of the O2 system

83
Q

The preflight check of the oxygen gauge should be?

A

1850 PSI

84
Q

When do the EMERGENCY cabin lights automatically display?

A

Cabin altitude above 14,500 feet

85
Q

What two lights operate in pulse mode?

A

Recognition and landing lights

86
Q

What is the limitation on the flood light?

A

On FULL for 2-3 minutes before selecting DIM

87
Q

The emergency pressurization aneroid actuates at what cabin altitude?

A

9,500 cabin altitude

88
Q

If the pylon structure exceeds 250 degrees Fahrenheit, what lights will illuminate?

A

BLEED AIR L or R annunciator will illuminate

89
Q

If the pylon DUCTING exceeds 600 degrees Fahrenheit, what lights will illuminate?

A

DUCT OV HT L or R annunciator will illuminate

90
Q

The flow control valve is controlled by what switch?

A

CABIN AIR switch

91
Q

If cabin alt is greater than 8,600 feet, what light illuminates?

A

PRESS SYS in auto mode

92
Q

What source provides pressurization to the cabin during EMER pressurization?

A

LP bleed air

93
Q

The COCKPIT blower is regulated by what switch?

A

CREW FAN

94
Q

What pressurization is lost after a complete loss of DC power?

A

EMER cabin pressurization

95
Q

The low-limit windshield heat switches are functional when?

A

On the ground only

96
Q

What is a Rosemount probe?

A

Optional anti-ice equipment

97
Q

What happens when you turn the NAC heat switch on?

A

One NAC Heat Green light/ Two amber Briefly

98
Q

What color is the PITO HT light and, if illuminated, means what?

A

Amber solid/ Fault

99
Q

What renders anti-skid inoperative on the ground?

A

EMER Depress Activated

100
Q

Determining Vr flaps 8 is a function of?

A

Gross weight

101
Q

What chart do you use to determine the first or second net climb gradient?

A

Close-in takeoff flight path chart

102
Q

How do you determine the factored landing distance?

A

Actual landing distance divided by .60

103
Q

What is the minimum second segment climb gradient?

A

If not limited by runway or obstacles, 2.4 percent

Lear 60XR (17 decks)

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