SELF-CHECK 2 : AVIONICS Tech. Manual (Ch. 10) Flashcards

Reference: Technical Manual (Chapter 10)

1
Q

The standby instruments use the ____ pitot tube input.

A. Pilot’s
B. Copilot’s
C. Pilot’s and copilot’s
D. Center

A

B. Copilot’s

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2
Q

The standby instruments use their own static source, independent of the pilot’s and copilot’s static sources.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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3
Q

What resource is available to the pilot to quick learn the meaning of acronyms relating to the G200 FMS 6100 Flight Management System?

A. The Pilot Training Manual
B. The Collins FMS Taskbook
C. The Introduction chapter of the Collins FMS-6100 Operator’s Guide
D. Mygulfstream.com

A

C. The Introduction chapter of the Collins FMS-6100 Operator’s Guide

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4
Q

What does the G200 Flight Management Computer do?

A. Accepts data from multiple navigation sensors, uses it to estimate position, and provides navigation in the en route, terminal, and approach phases of flight.

B. Determines that the airplane is in terminal phase of flight when a destination airport is entered in the flight plan, and the airplane is 30 NM from that airport.

C. Determines that the airplane is in approach phase of flight when approach is activated and the airplane is 2 NM from the FAF.

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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5
Q

During preflight, how does the pilot initialize the FMS position of the airplane?

A. FMS position is initialized on the POS INIT pages of the FMS.

B. FMS position is initialized using either RTU.

C. The pilot can begin the procedure by pressing the IDX menu key and selecting POS INIT from the available options.

D. Both A and C

A

D. Both A and C

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6
Q

Once SYNC mode is selected from the FMS CONTROL page of the FMS, only those flight plan changes made from the FMS designated as the MASTER will automatically be made to the other FMS.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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7
Q

The basic steps to create a flight plan in the FMS 6100 include which of the following:

A. Entering the origin, destination, and alternate airports.

B. Selecting a departure runway or a SID with a departure runway.

C. Entering a route from the departure to the arrival, and entering a STAR with or without a transition and approach

D. All of the Above

A

D. All of the Above

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8
Q

How can the pilot transform a waypoint to a flyover waypoint so that the FMS will steer the airplane over the waypoint before initiating a turn?

A. With the keypad, from the LEGS pages, add a slash-letter O suffix to the waypoint identifier.

B. With the keypad, from the FPLN pages, add a slash-letter O suffix to the waypoint identifier.

C. With the keypad, from the LEGS pages, add a @ symbol prefix to the waypoint identifi er.

D. With the keypad, from the LEGS pages, add a slash- zero suffi x to the waypoint identifier.

A

D. With the keypad, from the LEGS pages, add a slash- zero suffix to the waypoint identifier.

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9
Q

Where would the pilot find guidance on initializing the FMS 6100 PERFORMANCE calculation features?

A. The Airplane Flight Manual, Volumes 2 and 3, PERFORMANCE charts and tables.

B. Chapter 5 of the FMS 6100 Operator’s Guide

C. The Confi guration Deviation List

D. There is no guidance

A

B. Chapter 5 of the FMS 6100 Operator’s Guide

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10
Q

In what section of the Collins FMS 6100 Operator’s Guide will the pilot find detailed guidance on use of the DIR function key?

A. Chapter 18, PRINCIPLES OF VNAV

B. Chapter 12, DATABASE OPERATIONS

C. Chapter 6, DEPARTURE

D. Chapter 7, EN ROUTE

A

D. Chapter 7, ENROUTE

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11
Q

If while on the LEGS page the pilot changes the FROM waypoint (the second waypoint from the top, in green), then the LEG from that waypoint to the next can be established as the active leg, allowing the pilot to set a radar vector and heading leg to intercept a specifi ed flight plan leg, thereby arming the FMS to intercept the route and fl y the new course to the TO waypoint:

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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12
Q

The Collins FMS 6100 is capable of navigating the airplane to:

A. Hold at a flight plan waypoint
B. Hold at a non-fl ight plan waypoint
C. Hold at present position
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above.

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13
Q

“CME025/7” and TAGGS275.3T/15.5” are examples of what

A. PLACE BRG/PLACE BRG waypoints, described in Chapter 7 of the Collins FMS 6100 Operator’s Guide.

B. Coordinates for random waypoints in remote portions of the Pacific.

C. PLACE BRG/ DIST waypoints, described in Chapter 7 of the Collins FMS 6100 Operator’s Guide.

D. PLACE BRG/ DIST waypoints, described in Chapter 4 of the Collins FMS 6100 Operator’s Guide.

A

C. PLACE BRG/ DIST waypoints, described in Chapter 7 of the Collins FMS 6100 Operator’s Guide.

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14
Q

“L2,” “5L,” “R28,” and “17R” are examples of what?

A. Pilot entries programming the FMS to fly offset parallel courses, which entries are made on the ACT/MOD FPLN page as fully described in Chapter 7 of the Collins FMS 6100 Operator’s Guide.

B. Shorthand abbreviations for wind velocity.

C. SELCAL identifiers.

D. Passenger seat station numbers for manual weight and balance calculations.

A

A. Pilot entries programming the FMS to fl y offset parallel courses, which entries are made on the ACT/MOD FPLN page as fully described in Chapter 7 of the Collins FMS 6100 Operator’s Guide.

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15
Q

To learn how to select/change STARs and Approaches in the FMS 6100, the pilot can refer to:

A. Collins FMS 6100 Operator’s Guide Chapter 9

B. Collins FMS 6100 Operator’s Guide Chapter 13

C. Collins Pro Line 4 Pilot’s Guide, Chapter 3

D. Collins FMS 6100 Operator’s Guide Chapter 8

A

D. Collins FMS 6100 Operator’s Guide Chapter 8

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16
Q

To use FMS navigation to fly a localizer-based missed approach, the pilot should:

Select go-around (TOGA).
Set power, pitch, and confi guration.
Make sure AUTO sequence is selected on the ACT LEGS page of the FMS.
Make sure the first waypoint of the missed approach is the TO waypoint.
Set FMS as the NAV SOURCE.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

17
Q

To fly an FMS decent path to a down-track waypoint, the pilot’s first step in programming the FMS 6100 is

A. Pushing the IDX function key and selecting VERTICAL DIRECT-TO from available options.

B. Keying the mike and asking for lower.

C. Pushing the DIR function key to display the ACT DIRECT-TO page, as described in the Collins FMS 6100 Operator’s Guide Chapter 10.

D. Using ARINC 429 to communicate with the flight management computer.

A

C.Pushing the DIR function key to display the ACT DIRECT-TO page, as described in the Collins FMS 6100 Operator’s Guide Chapter 10.

18
Q

Small square boxes on the data lines of the CDU (Control Display Unit) represent what?

A. Places for the input of optional data.

B. Prompts for the input of required data.

C. Either A or B, depending upon whether the airplane is equipped with Collins or Universal FMS.

D. Neither A nor B.

A

B. Prompts for the input of required data

19
Q

What resource is available to the pilot for quickly learning the meaning of any acronym relating to the G200 ProLine 4 Avionics System?

A. The Pilot Training Manual
B. The Collins FMS Taskbook
C. The Avionics Glossary of the Collins Pro Line 4 Pilot’s Guide
D. Mygulfstream.com

A

C. The Avionics Glossary of the Collins Pro Line 4 Pilot’s Guide

20
Q

The Display Control Panel (DCP) is used

A. To select the lateral navigation parameter/ source and the MFD display format.

B. To select the vertical navigation parameter/source.

C. To use the elapsed time function.

D. Both A and C.

A

D. Both A and C

21
Q

The Air Data Reference Panel (ARP) is used

A. To step through VSPEED references, using the SEL button.

B. To adjust the value of the VSPEED reference, using the SPEED knob.

C. Generally to provide the pilot input into the Air Data Computers (ADC).

D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above

22
Q

Using the Reversionary Switching Panel (RSP), the pilot can deselect which of the following onside subsystems and transfer to their cross-side counterparts:

A. Attitude Heading System
B. Air Data Computer
C. Display Control Panel
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

23
Q

The airspeed trend vector above (acceleration) or below (deceleration) the airspeed digital readout indicates what the airspeed will be in ________ seconds at present rate of acceleration/deceleration.

A. 5 seconds
B. 15 seconds
C. 10 seconds
D. 20 seconds

A

C. 10 seconds

24
Q

Which of the following is not true of the DRIFT INDEX:

A. It is a magenta circle to the right of the airspeed scale.

B. It is displayed 3 seconds after takeoff and is removed with weight on wheels.

C. It can be used as a substitute for actual stall warning system.

D. It indicates 1.25 VSTALL.

A

C. It can be used as a substitute for actual stall warning system

25
Q

Which of the following is not true of the Vertical Speed Required (VSR) bug:

A. It is a magenta circle that shows on the PFD vertical speed scale when commanded by the FMS.

B. It is an indication of the vertical speed required to reach the next flight plan target altitude from the airplane’s present position.

C. Its range is +/- 500 to +/- 4000 ft/min.

D. It is displayed all the time.

A

D. It is displayed all the time

26
Q

Which of the following is not true of the air temperature display feature of the Collins Pro Line 4 system?

A. Air temperature displays are normally shown on the Multi-function Displays (MFD).

B. Air temperature displays show on the PFD when the on-side MFD has failed or is PFD reverted.

C. The co-pilot side (whether PDF or MFD) displays SAT and TAT and the pilot side displays only ISA deviation (the difference between SAT and ISA).

A

C. The co-pilot side (whether PDF or MFD) displays SAT and TAT and the pilot side displays only ISA deviation (the difference between SAT and ISA).

27
Q

The NAV SRC (source) knob on the DCP is used:

A. To step through the menu of navigation sources.

B. To change the active NAV source from on-side to cross-side (by pushing the PUSH CHG button in the center of the knob).

C. To add a STAR, SID and/or instrument approach to the active flight plan.

D. Both A and B.

A

D. Both A and B

28
Q

Where is the No.1 VHF antenna located?

A

On top of the fuselage.

29
Q

From what source(s) do the standby instruments receive static information?

A

S3 Static

30
Q

TCAS monitors a radius of at least ______ NM and will display the targets up to ______ NM.

A

15 NM & 40 NM

31
Q

How is an ADF signal failure indicated?

A

The needle disappears.

32
Q

What are the indications when a SELCAL is received?

A

SELCAL annunciation on the EICAS & SELCAL switch light illuminates.

33
Q

At what altitude will ½-bank automatically be selected?

A

31,600 feet

34
Q

If the landing gear is down and locked and the pilot disengages the A/P with the AP/SP DISC pushbutton, will the Y/D also disengage?

A

Yes.

35
Q

Pushing the ED pushbutton does what?

A

Displays the EICAS secondary page on the MFD.

36
Q

What three (3) information sources can be received from the cross-side with the RSP?

A

AHS, ADC & DCP.

37
Q

If the pilot’s PFD screen fails, how can the pilot regain PFD information?

A

Pushing the PFD button on the RSP, causing the PFD to be displayed on the MFD.