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HIstology Year 1 > Self Assessment Q - Exam 1 > Flashcards

Self Assessment Q - Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Give three examples of large molecules that are routinely lost during fixation with aqueous solutions.
A

• Gags, proteoglycans, glycogen

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2
Q
  1. Which tissue components are highlighted by using the PAS stain?
A

• Carbohydrates: glycocalyx

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3
Q
  1. How can antibodies be used to visualize specific protein components (cytoplasmic, nuclear and extracellular) in routinely processed tissue?
A

• Bind specifically to antigen receptor via fluorescence (immunohistology) or radioactive isotopes – best is indirect (use 2nd antibody to amplify fluoro/radioisotope of 1st)

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4
Q
  1. How does the preparation of tissue for TEM differ from that for conventional light microscopy?
A

• Gluteraldehyde: osmium tetroxide (heavy metal) to increase electron density and visual -> epoxy resin to plastic block -> cut with diamond knives to under thinner than 1 micrometer

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5
Q

What technique allows histopathologists to detect specific sequences of RNA or DNA in a cell?

A

• In situ hybridization

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6
Q
  1. Other than fluorescent markers, what other substances can be chemically attached to antibodies in order to detect specific tissue components with the light microscope?
A

• radioisotopes

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7
Q
  1. What is the advantage to using monoclonal antibodies rather than polyclonal antibodies?
A
  • Selected to be highly specific and bind strongly to protein to be detected
  • Less non-specific binding to other proteins
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8
Q
  1. Which organelles are only visible by electron microscopy?
A

• All aside from nucleus

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9
Q
  1. Describe the structure and function of the lipid raft.
A
  • Protein complex with higher concentrations of cholesterol and sat fatty acids
  • Reduces lipid fluidity
  • Single t-duc
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10
Q
  1. List the functions of the plasma membrane.
A

• Physical barrier, selective permeability, electrochemical gradients, communication

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11
Q
  1. What are some of the functions of the glycocalyx?
A

• Contain digestive enzymes, microvilli on brush border of intestines

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12
Q
  1. Describe the structural and functional differences between smooth and rough endoplasmic reticulum.
A
  • RER: had ribosomes – protein synthesis

* SER: no ribosomes: steroid synth (adrenal cortex), drug detox (liver), muscle contraction (skel m)

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13
Q
  1. Describe the morphology and function of the Golgi apparatus. In which cells is this organelle a prominent feature on light microscopy?
A
  • Golgi: modify, sort, and package proteins

* lysosomes!

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14
Q
  1. What are the general structure and functions of peroxisomes?
A

• Oxidative reasons generating h2o2, long “sausages” in oval capsules

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15
Q
  1. What is the general structure and function of a lysosome?
A
  • Spherical, formed from golgi

* Contain digestive enzymes

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16
Q
  1. What are the structural and functional differences between cilia and microvilli?
A
  • Cilia: 9 + 2 (axoneme) arrangement of doubles (microtub) – mvmt of particles
  • Microvilli: made of actin (microfilament) – absorption – brush border, terminal web
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17
Q
  1. Name the phase of mitosis in which the contractile ring is formed. What is the composition of the contractile ring?
A

• Begins in telophase, made of actin and myosin filaments

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18
Q
  1. Describe the mitotic spindle and its composition during the cell cycle.
A

• Made of microtubules

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19
Q
  1. Describe the structural organization of Centrioles.
A

• Circular: 9 triplets

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20
Q
  1. List the functions of actin in the cell.
A

• Motility, contraction (via myosin interactions), microfilament

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21
Q
  1. Describe the morphology of lipofuscin cytoplasmic inclusions.
A
  • Pale brown granule
  • Plenty in stable non-dividing cells
  • Residual bodies after lysosomal digestion
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22
Q
  1. Distinguish permanent cells from labile and stable cells in terms of the cell cycle.
A
  • Labile: continuously dividing – bone marrow, epithelium, gi lining
  • Stable: only divide in injury – liver, kidney
  • Permanent: never divide: cardiac, neural
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23
Q
  1. Distinguish the two processes of cell death; apoptosis and necrosis.
A
  • Apoptosis: programed cell death – rapid – controlled by bcl-2 on mito memb – triggered by tumor suppression proteins
  • Necrosis: cell death
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24
Q
  1. What features are used to classify epithelial tissues?
A

• Size and morphology are dictated by function

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25
Q
  1. What are the 8 classifications of epithelia?
A
  • Simple squamous: endothelium, lining of cavities (pleura, pericardium, perineum)
  • Simple cuiboidal: ovary, thyroid, urinary – cover, secr
  • Simple columnar: intestines, gallballder
  • Pseudostratified: with cilia brush border, glycocalyx – bronchi, trachea, nasal
  • Urothelium/transitional: bladder, ureters, renal calyx
  • Stratified squamous (kera): skin – protection, prev water loss
  • Stratified squamous (non-kera): protection, prev water loss, secr – melva – mouth, esophagus, larynx, vagina, anal canal
  • Stratified cuiboidal: sweat glands, (developing ovarian follicle)
  • Stratified columnar: conjunctiva - protection
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26
Q
  1. What are the three specific forms of simple squamous epithelium? Name their specific anatomic locations.
A
  • Simple squamous: endothelium, lining of cavities (pleura, pericardium, perineum)
  • Stratified squamous (kera): skin – protection, prev water loss
  • Stratified squamous (non-kera): protection, prev water loss, secr – melva
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27
Q
  1. What are microvilli? Describe its ultrastructural composition. What cellular function is associated with microvilli?
A

• Made of microfilaments (actin) – absorption in intestines – increase SA

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28
Q
  1. What are cilia? Describe its ultrastructural composition. What cellular function is associated with cilia?
A

• Made of microtubules: mvmt (trachea, bronchus, nasal sinus)

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29
Q
  1. What is the terminal web? Describe its ultrastructural features.
A

• Actin filaments on apical surface of most epithelium

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30
Q
  1. Why is the term stereocillia inappropriate?
A
  • Not actually made of microtubules and actually resemble microvilli: but branched, immobile, longer
  • Best seen in absorptive
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31
Q
  1. What are erzin, villin and fimbrin?
A

• Actin-binding proteins in microvilli

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32
Q
  1. What is the role of laminin?
A

• Makes up basal lamina (1 of 3) – attached to integrins

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33
Q
  1. What are basal bodies?
A
  • Structure similar to centrioles (9 triplets)

* Continuous with axonemes at apical cytoplasm of cell

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34
Q
  1. Which component of the junctional complex serves to create a barrier between cells and restricts the free passage of substances between adjacent epithelial cells?
A

• Zonula occulens: apical surface – connect cells with adjacent cells - actin

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35
Q
  1. What is the principal function of the zonula adherens?
A

• Connect cytoskeletal components of adjacent cells – actin – forms part of “terminal web” – cytoskeletal feature at apical pole in many epithelial cells

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36
Q
  1. Where is the basement membrane located? Which stain is used to reveal the basement membrane?
A

• Beneath epithelial cells, stained with immunochemistry (lots of glycoprotein in laminin) or PAS

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37
Q
  1. In what ways are exocrine glands distinguished from endocrine glands?
A

• Exocrine:
o Ducts! Deliver secr materal to epithelium it is connected with
• Endocrine:
o Ductless – hormones into blood stream for distribution

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38
Q
  1. What is an acinus
A

• Secretory portion of exocrine gland (Also called alveoli)

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39
Q
  1. What are the characteristics of connective tissue?
A

• Lots of ECM with protein fibers (collagen, elastin) and ground substance (gags, proteoglycans, multi-adhesive glycoproteins)

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40
Q
  1. What is produced by fibroblast?
A

• fibers and ground substance

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41
Q
  1. What is meant by the regenerative capacity of connective tissue?
A
  • Spaces left after injuries are filled by connective tissue
  • Scar tissue = dense irregular
  • Depends on activity and growth of fibroblasts
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42
Q
  1. What is the prevalent cell type of dense connective tissue?
A

• Fibroblasts: 49%

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43
Q
  1. Which stains reveal reticular and elastic fibers?
A

• Metal impreg – silver stanin

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44
Q
  1. In which tissues and organs can elastic fibers found in abundance?
A

• Mesentery, dermis, aorta

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45
Q
  1. In which locations are elastic fibers abundant?
A

• Bv, especially arteries – fenestrated sheets called elastic lamellae

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46
Q
  1. What is the fate of ground substance during routine processing?
A

• disappears

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47
Q
  1. How are proteoglycans (PGs) and glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) related?
A

• Part of ground substance: proteoglycans make up core protein that attached sulfated gags

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48
Q
  1. Why do PGs and GAGs stain with basic dyes?
A

• Basic dye: blue: basophilic (acidic/anionic) – dna, rna, gags (long polymer of repeating disacc units – hexosamine, uronic acid)

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49
Q
  1. Which connective tissue cells are derived from the bone marrow?
A

• Macrophage, mast cells, plasma cells

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50
Q
  1. How does Hyaluronan differ from other GAGs?
A

• Synth directly into ECM by hyaluronan synthase, located in memb

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51
Q
  1. With what structures is Hyaluronan associated?
A

• Umbilical cord, synovial fluid, cartilage, vitreous humor

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52
Q
  1. What is the chief function of Hyaluronan?
A

• Molecular diffusion, lubrication organs and joints

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53
Q
  1. Why is it difficult to see the cytoplasm of fibroblasts in routine H&E material
A

• Removed during processing

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54
Q
  1. From which type of cell does the tissue macrophage originate?
A

• Monocytes (bone marrow precursor cells)

o Monocytes and macrophages are same cell at different stages of maturation

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55
Q
  1. What nuclear feature of the macrophage is diagnostic for its identification?
A

• Prominent nucleus, nucleolus, numerous secondary lysosomes – phagocytic!

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56
Q
  1. What are the names for macrophages at various tissue sites.
A
  • Kupffer – liver
  • Microglial – CNS
  • Langerhans – skin
  • Osteoclasts - bone
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57
Q
  1. What are epithelioid cells?
A

• Activated macrophages

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58
Q
  1. What is the role of macrophages in iron metabolism?
A

• Recycle Fe for production of Hb in new RBCs

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59
Q
  1. How does one recognize mast cells in routine H&E material?
A

• Oval – strong basophilic granules

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60
Q
  1. What is secreted by mast cells, and under what circumstances are they released?
A
  • Heparin – anticoag

* Histamine – promotes vasc permeability, smooth M contraction

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61
Q
  1. Within which type of connective tissue are mast cells most commonly found?
A

• Digestive and respiratory tract – sentinels against invasion

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62
Q
  1. What is meant by metachromasia?
A

• High content of acidic radials in sulfated GAGs of mast cells can change color of some basic dyes from blue to purple/red

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63
Q
  1. What are the precursor cells to plasma cells?
A

• Lymphoctye-derived, antibody producing cells

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64
Q
  1. What characteristics of the cytoplasm and the nucleus are diagnostic for plasma cells?
A

• “clock face” – basophilic cytoplasm with clumps of heterochromatin around nuc79.

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65
Q
  1. What is meant by wound healing?
A
  • Done by myofibroblasts: characteristics of fibroblasts and smooth M (function more like smooth M)
  • Rapidly closing wounds – high levels of actin and myosin
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66
Q
  1. What are myofibroblasts and what role do they play in wound healing?
A
  • characteristics of fibroblasts and smooth M (function more like smooth M)
  • Rapidly closing wounds – high levels of actin and myosin
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67
Q
  1. What are some of the local factors that interfere with wound healing?
A

• Activity and growth of fibroblasts

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68
Q
  1. Where is mucous connective tissue found
A

• Wharton’s jelly: fetal umbilical cord

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69
Q
  1. In which areas of the body is each type of fat typically found?
A

• White: in many organs, form about 20% body wt in adults
o Partly regulated by sex horm controlled adipose desposition in breast and thighs
• Brown: kidneys, adrenal glands, aorta, mediastinum (was 2-5% newborn wt located in back, neck, shoulders)

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70
Q
  1. What hormone is secreted by unilocular adipocytes and what is the action of the hormone?
A

• Leptin: “satiety factor” – regulate appetite

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71
Q
  1. Why do adipocytes appear empty following routine H&E processing?
A

• Removed by organic solvent processing usually.

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72
Q
  1. In which location is brown adipose tissue typically found in adults?
A

• Kidney, adrenal glands, aorta, mediastinum

73
Q
  1. From which cell does a Liposarcoma develop?
A

• Unilocular adipocytes

74
Q
  1. Why is obesity considered a state of chronic inflammation?
A

• White adipose secrete many proinflammatory cytokines

75
Q
  1. Describe the lacuna of cartilage
A

• Where chondrocytes are located – surrounded by ECM

76
Q
  1. What accounts for the basophilia of the territorial matrix in hyaline cartilage?
A

• High levels of collagen, gags

77
Q
  1. Where is hyaline cartilage found in adults?
A

• Articular surf of movable joints, large respiratory passages, ventral ends of ribs, epiphyseal plates

78
Q
  1. What is the location and composition of the perichondrium?
A

• Around cartilage – contains bv and neurals to supply avasc cartilage

79
Q
  1. What is the most important difference between elastic and hyaline cartilage?
A

• Elastic has abundant network of elastic fibers and collagen type II fibrils

80
Q
  1. What attributes distinguish fibrocartilage from the other types of cartilage?
A

• Mix of hyaline cartilage and dense connective tissue

81
Q
  1. Where is fibrocartilage found?
A

• Iv disks, pubic symphysis

82
Q
  1. What is the developmental origin of cartilage tissue?
A

• mesenchyme

83
Q
  1. When is a chondroblast transformed into a chondrocyte?
A

• Differentiation takes place from center outwards from production of ECM

84
Q
  1. What substances found in the matrix of bone distinguishes bone from other connective tissues?
A

• Hydroxyapatite crystals

85
Q
  1. What are the functions of bone tissue?
A
  • Mechanical: Protect vital organs, harbor bone marrow, attachment for m
  • Metabolic: ca2+ and PO3 storage
86
Q
  1. What type of cell is found in the lacunae of bone
A

• osteocyte

87
Q
  1. What are canaliculi and what is found inside a canaliculus?
A

• Cytoplasmic projectors of osteocytes

88
Q
  1. What is the difference between red bone marrow and yellow bone marrow? Which is more abundant in adults?
A
  • Red: hematopoietic – RBC, platelets, most WBC

* Yellow – fat cells

89
Q
  1. At what locations does red marrow exist in adults accessible for biopsy and transplantation?
A

• Flat bones, cancellous material at end of long bones

90
Q
  1. What accounts for the basophilia of immature bone versus mature bone?
A
  • Acidic/anionic: gags – charged sulfate groups

* basophilic due to abundant rER for production of collagen and proteoglycans

91
Q
  1. What is osteoid?
A

• Premature bone

92
Q
  1. Where are osteoprogenitor cells located?
A

• perichondrium

93
Q
  1. What cell type is responsible for the mineralization of bone?
A

• osteonectin

94
Q
  1. What must be done to bone tissue before it can be embedded for sectioning and staining with H&E?
A

• Demineralized with acid

95
Q
  1. What is the function of a “resorptive” osteocyte? What is the technical term for this process?
A
  • Ossification – bone resorbed by osteoclasts and deposited by osteoblasts
  • For bone growth and remodeling
96
Q
  1. What histiological characteristics of osteoclasts make them easy to identify in LM?
A

• Large, basophilic, along edge

97
Q
  1. What is the cell of origin for osteoclasts?
A

• monocytes

98
Q
  1. What is Howship’s lacuna? How is it created?
A

• Cavities containing osteoclasts that undergo resorption

99
Q
  1. What is osteoporosis?
A

• Bone resorption > bone formation – usually in immobilized pts or postmenopausal women

100
Q
  1. What are the two patterns of osteogenesis?
A
  • endochondral: hyaline cartilage  bone – long bone

* Intramembranous – isogenous (mitosis) – flat bone

101
Q
  1. What are Nissl bodies (also called Nissl substance)?
A
  • Chromatophilic substances – concentrated RER and polysomes = basophilllic
  • High rate of protein synthesis
102
Q
  1. How can axons be distinguished from dendrites in sections that pass through the cell body?
A
  • Axons = myelinated, dendrites = not myelinated and have nissl bodies
  • No nissl bodies in axons
103
Q
  1. What is the Schmidt-Lanterman cleft?
A

• Myelin cleft – contains schwann cell cytoplasm

104
Q
  1. Describe the structure and anatomic location of satellite cells and their function.
A
  • In PNS ganglia
  • Aggregated sensory/autonomal N cell bodies
  • Regulate microenvironment
105
Q
  1. What are the four types of glial cells in the CNS? Describe the functions of each type.
A
  • Oligodendrocytes – myelinate
  • Astrocyte – support BBB
  • Ependymal cells – epithelial cells for lining central canal of SC – N migration during development of CNS
  • Microglia – original from blood monocytes for immune defense
106
Q
  1. Which type of glial cell facilitates neuronal migration during the development of the CNS?
A

• ependymal

107
Q
  1. Which type of glial cell responds to damage to the CNS by proliferating and phagocytosis?
A

• microglia

108
Q
  1. Which glial cell type has a role in modifying the composition of the extracellular fluid surrounding neurons and contributes to the restricted permeability known as the blood brain barrier?
A

• astrocyte

109
Q
  1. What is the importance of neural crest in terms of the nervous system?
A

• Neural crest does all pns

110
Q
  1. What constitutes the blood-nerve barrier?
A
  • Capillary endothelium – tight jxns
  • Basement membrane
  • astrocyte
111
Q
  1. How do the contacts between adjacent endothelial cells in brain capillaries differ from those in other locations?
A

• Tight junctions, astrocytes regulate what comes in and out

112
Q
  1. How do most substances (except oxygen and carbon dioxide) enter brain tissue from the blood?
A

regulated by astrocytes

non-fenestrated

113
Q
  1. What is Wallerian degeneration
A

• N fiber is cut/crushed and part of axon distal to injury degen

114
Q
  1. What shape do skeletal myofibers have in cross section?
A

• Polygonal shape with diameter of 10-100 microns

115
Q
  1. Does H&E staining permit the recognition of red, white and intermediate myofibers?
A

• no

116
Q
  1. What histochemical reactions allow for the distinction between red and white fibers
A

• Myosin ATPase at acidic pH
o Slow oxidative, type I = highest lvls of activity = stain darkest
o Fast glycolytic, type IIb = lightest
o Fast oxidative-glycolytic, type IIa = intermediate

117
Q
  1. What is the role of the sarcoplasmic reticulum and terminal cisternae?
A
  • SR = store Ca2+, calsequestin

* Terminal cisternae: adjacent to each side of t-tubule = triad allows depol to affect SF

118
Q
  1. What is the location and role of muscle satellite cells?
A
  • Periphery – repair and regen – only in SKEL M!!!!
  • Cardiac M lacks sat cell
  • Smooth M regen = rapid because cells/fibers are small and relatively less differentiated = renewed mitotic activity after injury
119
Q
  1. What determines whether damaged muscle is replaced with new myofibers or scar tissue?
A
  • If external lamina is disrupted

* disrupted=scar tissue

120
Q
  1. What is Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy?
A

• Mutations in dystrophin
o actin-binding protein inside sarcolemma of skel M
o involved in functional org of myofibrils
• defective link between cytoskel and ECM – exacerbated by M contract = atrophy

121
Q
  1. What are the components of the intercalated disk as resolved on electron microscopy?
A
  • Can see desmosomes, fascia adherens – transverse regions of discs
  • Gap jxn – less abundant, longitudinally oriented (parallel to myofibers)
122
Q
  1. The dense bodies in smooth muscle are analogous to which striated muscle structure?
A

• Alpha-actinin for thin filament attachment – analogous for z-disks

123
Q
  1. What are caveolae and how are they formed
A
  • Short plasmalemma invag

* Numerous at surface of smooth muscle cells

124
Q
  1. What is the hematocrit?
A

• Total blood volume – normal is 44%

125
Q

Albumin

A

most abundant – osmotic P

126
Q

o Globulins

A

txp

127
Q

o Immunoglobins (y-globulins)

A

antibodies

128
Q

o Fibrinogen

A

liver – clotting

129
Q

o Complement proteins

A

defense system for inflammation and microorg

130
Q
  1. How does the preparation of a blood smear differ from the preparation of tissue for light microscopy?
A

• Prick finger to withdraw blood – blood on slide – pull blood across first slide’s surface using second slide – blood dries – apply stain – add cover slip – light microscope

131
Q
  1. What are the two classes of lymphocytes? Upon what are these classes based?
A
  • B – helper, differentiate in bone marrow

* T – cytotoxic, differentiate in thymus

132
Q
  1. What does the Wright stain reveal?
A

• Differentiation of blood cell types – eosin and methylene blue

133
Q
  1. Describe the shape of the erythrocyte? How is the shape of an erythrocyte optimized for gas exchange and flow through capillaries?
A 
•	Biconcave
•	Large SA for gas exchange
•	Flexible – adapt to turn in cap
o	Cup-like shape in capillaries
o	Rouleaux – adhere in stacks in large bv
134
Q
  1. Describe the structure of the plasmalemma of erythrocytes.
A
  • Best known membrane of any cell

* 40 lipid, 10 carb, 50 protein

135
Q
  1. What is responsible for the homogenous acidophilia of erythrocytes?
A

• Hemoglobin = aciddophillic

136
Q
  1. What is anemia and how is it classified?
A

• Fewer RBCs per mL of blood

137
Q
  1. In which organs are erythrocytes phagocytosed?
A

• Macrophages of spleen, liver, bone marrow

138
Q
  1. What substance secreted by neutrophils assist in their migration through connective tissue?
A

• Icam-1

139
Q
  1. What substance is contained within neutrophilic azurophilic granules?
A

• Lysosomes – kill and degrade microorganisms

140
Q
  1. In which type of blood vessel are neutrophils most likely to leave the bloodstream to enter the tissues?
A

• Postcapillary venules

141
Q
  1. Distinguish the structure and function of eosinophils from neutrophils.
A
  • Bilobe
  • Red/dark pink granules
  • Histamine - inflammation
142
Q
  1. Distinguish the structure and function of basophils from eosinophils.
A
  • Bilobed, s-shaped

* Usually intensely basophilic granules covering up entire cell

143
Q
  1. What is distinctive about the cytoplasmic and nuclear staining of basophils?
A

• Intensely basophilic granules – usually cover up nucleus

144
Q
  1. In what ways are basophils and mast cells similar?
A
  • Intensely basophilic staining

* Inflammation, histamine release

145
Q
  1. How are the three types of lymphocytes distinguished?
A

• CD markers: surface molecules

o B, T, NK cells

146
Q
  1. Which capacity of lymphocytes distinguishes them from other leukocytes?
A

• Similar in size to RBCs

147
Q
  1. What term is given to those lymphocytes in the blood that have developed the capacity to recognize and respond to antigens.
A

• T

148
Q
  1. What are the distinctive features of monocytes in a blood smear?
A

• Large, kidney-shaped nuc

149
Q
  1. What are blood groups? How are they determined?
A

• Surface antigens

150
Q
  1. Describe the asymmetric division of pleuripotent stem cells.
A

• One differentiates, other stays as stem cell

151
Q
  1. What are colony forming units?
A

• Progenitor cells for blood cells – RBC, platelets, leukocyte, lymphoctye

152
Q
  1. Describe the three functions of colony stimulating factor.
A

• Also called hemopoietic growth factors (cytokines)
o Stimulate prolif of progenitor and precursor cells
o Promote cell differentitation/maturation within specific lineages

153
Q
  1. What types of cells are derived from myeloid stem cells?
A

• Everything but lymphocytes

154
Q
  1. What is erythropoietin (EPO)?
A

• RBC progenitor factor

155
Q
  1. At which stage of maturation does the red cell cytoplasm begin to fill with hemoglobin?
A

• Basophilic erythroblast – large number of free polysomes synth Hb

156
Q
  1. What is a reticulocyte?
A

• Stage in erythrocyte maturation when pyknotic nucleus is ejected

157
Q
  1. Distinguish the azurophilic granules from specific granules.
A
  • Azurophilic – lysosomal hydrolases – basic dye, similar in all granulocytes
  • Specific – how it differentiates to 3 types
158
Q
  1. Describe the process of Thrombopoiesis.
A

• Megakaryoblasts – megakaryocytes – platelets

159
Q
  1. Describe the process of endomitosis?
A

• Replication of chromosomes in absence of cell/nuclear division

160
Q
  1. Describe the maturation of agranulocytes.
A

• Monocyte: monoblast -> promonocyte (divide twice) – monocyte – (circulation in blood where they mature as macrophages)
• Lymphocyte: lymphoblast – (divide 2-3 times) to lymphocyte
o Development = smaller nuclei, loss of nucleoli, decrease cell size

161
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding the PAS stain?
    a) Stains aldehydes bright red
    b) Stains sugars bright red
    c) Stains aldehydes blue
    d) Stains sugars blue
    e) Attacks a single –OH group
A

b) Stains sugars bright red

162
Q

“dynamic instability”

A

continuous cycles of polymerization and depoly at steady-state conditions
microtubules
dependent on concentrations of tubulin, Ca2+, Mg2+, MAPs

163
Q

How does a hydrophobic steroid hormone (such as estrogen or testosterone) elicit a response in the target cell?
Binding to a G-protein coupled receptor in the cell membrane, leading to a signaling cascade and activation of transcription factors.
Binding to a receptor coupled to an ion channel, leading to increased intracellular Ca++ levels
Diffusing across the membrane and binding intracellular receptors, which will act as transcription factor in the nucleus.
Receptor-mediated endocytosis facilitated by clathrin coated pits.

A

Diffusing across the membrane and binding intracellular receptors, which will act as transcription factor in the nucleus.

164
Q

Hemosiderin

A

iron storage
from macrophage phagocytosis
disease: chronic blood loss

165
Q

Type 7 collagen

A

secures the basal lamina to the underlying ECM

166
Q

Which best differentiates between plasma and serum?
Serum contains heparin

Serum contains fibrinogen

Plasma contains heparin

B + C

A

Serum contains added heparin - heparin is added to plasma as an anticoagulant

Serum contains fibrinogen - Fibrinogen is used up in the clotting process, thus serum lacks fibrinogen

***Plasma contains added heparin - heparin is added to plasma as an anticoagulant

B + C

167
Q

Serum contains added heparin - heparin is added to plasma as an anticoagulant

Serum contains fibrinogen - Fibrinogen is used up in the clotting process, thus serum lacks fibrinogen

Plasma contains added heparin - heparin is added to plasma as an anticoagulant

B + C

A 
Neutrophils - Neutrophils
Love - Lymphocytes
Making - Monocytes
Everything - Eosinophils
Better - Basophils
168
Q
  1. Which epithelia is specific to the urinary system and has tight junctions to keep urine out of cells preventing cell lysis?

Stratified Squamous
Stratified Columnar
Pseudo-stratified Columnar Epithelium
Urothelium

A

Answer: D Urothelium – Transitional Epithelium

  • UMBRELLA CELLS
  • Specific to Urinary System
  • TIGHT JUNCTIONS
    • Keep Urine out of cells
  • When Dome Cells are present… BLADDER EMPTY
  • When Dome Cells are flattened out… BLADDER FULL
169
Q

ALPHA granules of platelets

A

ADhesive (clotting factors/proteins, – Fibrinogen, fibronectin, VWF)
Clot formation & retraction

170
Q

delta/dense granules of platelets

A

Activate (Non-proteins – ATP/ADP, Serotonin)

Recruit others and activate

171
Q

how do platelets have a role in degrading clots?

A

activating plasmin

172
Q
  1. List some of the important functions of integral and peripheral membrane proteins.
A

• Integrations of these proteins due to hydrophobic interactions between lipids and nonpolar aa of proteins – SIGNALLING!!

173
Q
  1. What is the significance of hemosiderin in cells
A
  • Storage complex for iron

* Made of ferritin

174
Q

What kind of filaments are specific to the cell?

A

Intermediate filaments. Different kinds of filaments depending on what type of cell it is.

175
Q

Lipid droplets in adipocytes are called….

A

Inclusions

176
Q

Cadherins

A

Calcium dependent proteins for:

  • cell adhesion (zipper-like)
  • cell migration
  • transmemb signaling

Zonula adhesions, macula adhesions (desmosomes)

177
Q

Most common connective tissue type? Where found usually? Characteristics?

A

Loose connective
In tissue later underlying epithelium
Highly cellular, vascular

178
Q

Fibronectins

Purpose?

A

Most abundant multiadhesive glycoproteins in ecm of connective tissue
Cross-linking provides stab of wound and substrate for cell adhesion and migration

HIstology Year 1 (3 decks)

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