Selected Notes psych Flashcards

1
Q

What is an illusion

A

Misenterpretation of an external stimulus

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2
Q

What is a hallucination

A

Perception without an external stimulus

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3
Q

What is a pseudo-hallucination?

A

Hallucination where the patient is aware it’s not real

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4
Q

What is an overvalued idea?

A

Solitary, abnormal belief that is not delusional or obsessional but preoccupying to the extent of dominating the persons life

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5
Q

What is a delusion?

A

Fixed, false belief maintained despite contrary evidence

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6
Q

What is delusional perception?

A

A true perception to which a patient attributes a false meaning.<br></br>E.g. traffic lights turning red means aliens are coming

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7
Q

What is concrete thinking?

A

Literal thinking focused on the physical world

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8
Q

What is meant by loosening of association?

A

AKA derailment, knight’s move thinking<br></br>No connection between topics

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9
Q

What is cirumstiantiality when describing thought patterns

A

Adds in irrelevent details but eventually returns to topic

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10
Q

What is meant by tangential thoughts?

A

Digress from subjecy with unrelated thoughts

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11
Q

What is thought blocking?

A

Sudden cessation of thought

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12
Q

What is meant by flight of ideas?

A

Pressured speech with shifts in topic with only a loose connection between ideas

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13
Q

What is perserveration?

A

Repitition of specific response despite removal of stimulus<br></br>

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14
Q

What are neologisms?

A

Made up words, unintelligible

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15
Q

What is meant by word salad?

A

Random string of words with no relation

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16
Q

What is meant by confabulation?

A

Generation of a fabricated memory without the intention of deceiving someone else

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17
Q

What is somatic passivity?

A

Experiene of one’s body or bodily sensations being controlled or influencfed by an external force

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18
Q

What is meant by pressure of speech?

A

Person speaks rapidly and continuously, often without pauses

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19
Q

What is anhedonia?

A

Inability to enjoy things/experience pleasure

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20
Q

What is incongruity of affect?

A

Mismatch between a person’s emotional expression and content of thoughts of speech

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21
Q

What is meant by blunting of affect?

A

Reduction in intensity and range of emotional expression<br></br>-Limited facial expressions, monotone speech etc

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22
Q

What is meant by the belle indifference?

A

Patient shows indifference/a lack of concern toward their symptoms depsite severity

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23
Q

What is meant by depersonalisation?

A

Detatched from own thoughts, feeling or body

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24
Q

What is thought alienation?<br></br>

A

Group of symptoms where patients feel thoughts are not their own. Includes:<br></br>1. Thought insertion<br></br>2. Thought withdrawal<br></br>3. Though broadcasting

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25
Q

Define thought insertion

A

Belief that thoughts are being placfed into one’s mind by an external source

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26
Q

What is thought withdrawal?

A

Belief that thoughts are being removed from one’s mind

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27
Q

What is thought broadcasting?

A

Belief that one’s thoughts are being broadcasted or shared with others

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28
Q

What is meant by thought echo?

A

Auditory hallucinations of their own thoughts being spoken aloud shortly after thinking them

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29
Q

What is akathisia?

A

Movement disorer characterised by intense restlessness and inability to stay still.<br></br>Side effect of antipsychotics

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30
Q

Define catatonia

A

Psychomotor disorder that can affect a person’s ability to move normally

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31
Q

What is stupor?

A

A symptom of catatonia in which the patient is unresponsive and unable to move, speak or react to external stimuli

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32
Q

What is psychomotor retardation?

A

Noticeable slowing down of thought processes and physical movements

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33
Q

What is flight of ideas?

A

Rapid and continuous speech with frequent shifts in topic with only a loose connection between ideas

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34
Q

What is a formal thought disorder?

A

Disruption in the organisation and expression of thought rather than the content

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35
Q

Define derealisation

A

Dissociative symptom where a person feels detached from their surroundings

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36
Q

What is a mannerism in psychiatry?

A

Habitual, often repetitive movement or gesture that appears to have some significance but may be out of context or exaggerated

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37
Q

What is stereotyped behaviour psychiatry?

A

Repetitive non functional motor movements, vocalisations or behaviours<br></br>-Often seen un individuals with developmental disorders like ASD

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38
Q

Define obsessions

A

Intrusive, unwnted thought, image or urge that repeatedly enters a person’s mind causing significant anxiety or distress

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39
Q

Define compulsion

A

Repetitive behaviour or mental act that a patient feels compelled to perform in response to an obsession or according to specific rules

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40
Q

What is the criteria for sectioning under the MHA?

A

<ul><li>Must have a MENTAL disorder</li><li>Must be a risk to their health/safety or the safety of others</li><li>Must be a treatment(including nursing/social care0</li></ul>

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41
Q

What is the one physial illness a patient could be sectioned and treated for?

A

Anorexia nervosa->re-feeding is allowed

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42
Q

Who carries out a mental health act assessment?

A

<ul><li>&gt;=2 doctors, 1 of whom must be section 12(2) approved</li><li>1 approved mental health professional(AMHP)</li></ul>

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43
Q

Can a patient be considered for sectioning under the mental health act if under the influence of drugs/alcohol?

A

No-under the influence excludes patients from detainment

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44
Q

What is section 2 of the MHA?

A

<ul><li>Compulsory detention for assessment</li></ul>

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45
Q

What is the citeria for detention under section 2 of the MHA?

A

<ul><li>Mental disorder AND risk to self/others</li></ul>

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46
Q

How long can you hold a patient for under Section 2 of the MHA?

A

Max 28 days

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47
Q

Is section 2 of the MHA renewable?

A

No

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48
Q

Which healthcare professionals are required to detain a patient under Section 2 of the MHA?

A

AMHP or NR+2 doctors(one S12 approved)

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49
Q

Section 3 of the MHA<br></br>What is it: {{c1::Compulsory detention for treatment}}<br></br>Criteria: {{c2::Mental disorder+risk to self/others+treatment available}}<br></br>Last for maximum: {{c2::6 months}}<br></br>Renewable yes/no: {{c2::Yes}}<br></br>Healthcare professionals required: {{c2::2 drs(one S12)++AMHP/NR+seen in last 24 hours}}<br></br><br></br>

A
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50
Q

Section 4 of the MHA<br></br>For: {{c1::admission for assessment in emergency}}<br></br>Last for max: {{c2::72 hours, then usually put on section 2}}<br></br>Healthcare professionals required: {{c3::Single doctor +AMHP/NR}}

A
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51
Q

What is section 5(2) of the MHA and how long does it last for?

A

<ul><li>Detainment of voluntary inpatient in hospital</li><li>Max 72 hours, only 1 dr needed</li></ul>

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52
Q

What is the difference between section 5(2) and 5(4) of the MHA?

A

<ul><li>Both detainment of voluntary inpatient in hospital</li><li>5(2) required dr, 5(4) requires registerend nurse and only lasts 6 hours</li></ul>

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53
Q

What is section 17 a of the MHA for?

A

<ul><li>Community treatment order-patient on section 3 can leave for treatment in the community</li></ul>

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54
Q

Who makes a section 17a of the MHA decision?

A

Responsible clinician and AMHP

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55
Q

When can a section 17a mof MHA be recalled and if recalled, how long can patients be held?

A

<ul><li>Recalled if non-compliant with treatment and missing appointments</li><li>If recalled, can be held for up to 72 hours for assessment</li></ul>

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56
Q

What is section 135 of the MHA for?

A

<ul><li>Police can enter proerpty to escort someone to a Place of Safety(police station or A&amp;e)</li></ul>

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57
Q

What is section 136 of the MHA for?

A

<ul><li>Can take someone from ma public place to a Place of Safety</li></ul>

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58
Q

What is section 131 of the MHA?

A

<ul><li>Informal admission-voluntary</li></ul>

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59
Q

What is the criteria for a section 131 admission?

A

<ul><li>Must have capacity</li><li>Must consent to admission</li><li>Must not resist admissions</li></ul>

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60
Q

What are the key principles of the Mental capacity act?

A

<ol><li>Assumed to have capacity unless proven otherwise</li><li>Steps should be taken to help someone have capacity</li><li>Unwise decisions doesn'[t mean someone lacks capacity</li><li>Any decisions made under the MCA must be in the patient's best interests</li><li>Any decisions made must be the least restrictive to a patient's rights/freedom</li></ol>

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61
Q

How is mental capacity assessed?

A

<ol><li>Impairment of or isturbance of functioning of mind/;brain?</li><li>Are they unable to:</li></ol>

<ul><li>Understand relevant information</li><li>Retain relevant information</li><li>Weight up and reach a decision</li><li>Communicate that decison</li></ul>

<div><ol><li>How urgent is the clinical decision?</li><li>Do they have LPA, advanced directive/statement</li><li>Should a best interest meeting be held</li></ol></div>

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62
Q

What is a Deprivation of Liberty Safeguard(DoLS) and when is it used?

A

Used when necessary to deprive a patient or resident of their liberty as they lack capacity to consent to treatment or care to keep them safe from harm<br></br><ul><li>Common in acute medical/geriatric wards</li></ul>

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63
Q

What criteria must be met before considering DoLS for a patient

A

<ul><li>&gt;18yrs</li><li>Patient in hospital/care home with a mental disorder</li><li>Considered separately for detention under a MHA</li><li>Lacks capacity</li></ul>

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64
Q

Name some uses for antidepressants besides depression

A

<ul><li>AQnxiety</li><li>OCD</li><li>PTSD</li><li>Eating disorders</li><li>Menopause</li><li>Neuropathic pain</li><li>Fibro</li><li>Smoking cessation</li><li>Sleep</li><li>Parkinson's</li><li>Nocturnal enuresis</li></ul>

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65
Q

What does SSRI stand for?

A

Seelctive serotonin reuptake inhibitors

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66
Q

What is the MOA of SSRI’s?

A

Inhibit serotonin reuptake to increase availabilty and improve mood regulation

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67
Q

What conditions are SRIS’s typically used to treat?

A

1st line for:<br></br><ul><li>Depression</li><li>GAD</li><li>OCD</li><li>PTSD</li><li>Panic disorder and phobias</li></ul>

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68
Q

Give some exampples of SSRIS

A

<ul><li>Sertraline</li><li>Fluoxetine</li><li>Citalopram</li><li>Paroxetine</li></ul>

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69
Q

Which SSRI is mostly only used for PTSD?

A

Paroxetine

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70
Q

Name some side effects of SSRIs

A

<ul><li>GI upset</li><li>Anxiety</li><li>Insomnia</li><li>Weight gain</li><li>Palpitations</li><li>HYPOnatraemia</li><li>QT prolongation(citalopram)</li><li>GI bleed(anti-platelet affect)</li></ul>

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71
Q

What is a key side effect of citaloparm?

A

QT prolongation

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72
Q

What is the most important mthing to wathc out for in patients on SSRI’s?

A

Serotonin syndrome

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73
Q

What should you be cautious of when prescribing SSRIs?

A

<ul><li>Shouldn't be used in mania</li><li>Fine for patients with IHD</li><li>In aptients aged 18-25: increased risk of suicide-&gt;follow up after 1 week</li></ul>

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74
Q

What do SNRI’s stand for?

A

Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors

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75
Q

Describe the MOA of SNRI?

A

<ul><li>Increase serotonin and noradrenaline levels, improve mood and reduce anxiety</li></ul>

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76
Q

When are SNRI’s commonly used?

A

2nd line after truing SSRIs for depression<br></br>Also used for GAD and panic disorder

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77
Q

Name some examples of SNRI’s

A

<ul><li>Duloxetine</li><li>Venlafaxine</li></ul>

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78
Q

Name some side effects of SNRI’s

A

<ul><li>Nausea</li><li>Insomnia</li><li>Agitation</li><li>Tachycardia</li></ul>

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79
Q

What should you be cautious about when prescribing SNRI’s?

A

CI in patints with a history of heart disease and hypertension

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80
Q

Descirbe the MOA of TCA’s

A

<ul><li>Block reuptake of serotonin and noradrenaline(anti-muscarinic)</li></ul>

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81
Q

When might TCA’s be used as a treatment?

A

Another 2nd line choice ofr depression/anxiety

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82
Q

Give some examples of TCAs

A

<ul><li>Amitryptaline</li><li>Clomipramine</li><li>Imipramine</li></ul>

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83
Q

What are the side effects of TCA’s?

A

Anti-cholinergic<br></br>Can’t see, pee, shit or spit<br></br><ul><li>Urinary retention</li><li>Blurred vision</li><li>Constipation</li><li>Dry mouth</li><li>Dizziness</li></ul><div><br></br></div><div>TCA TOXICITY*****</div>

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84
Q

When are TCA’s contraindicated?

A

Patients with heart disease, diabetes, urinary retention, long QT syndrome, liver damage, CP450 medications

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85
Q

When should TCA’s be prescirbed with caution?

A

<ul><li>In the elderly-risk of falls</li></ul>

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86
Q

What are MAO-I’s and what is their mechanism of action?

A

Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors<br></br><ul><li>Inhibit monoamines which are responsible for metabolism of serotoning and noradrenaline in the presynaptic cleft-> increae serotonin and noradrenaline</li></ul>

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87
Q

When are MAO-Is used?

A

Sometimes sued to treat depression-not first line

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88
Q

Give some examples of MAO-I’s?

A

Moclobemide<br></br>Phenelzine

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89
Q

Name some side effects of MAO-I’s?

A

<ul><li>Hypertensive reaction with tyramine-containing foods</li></ul>

<div>Marmite, cheese, salami etc</div>

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90
Q

When are MAO-Is contraindicated?

A

<ul><li>Cerebrovascular disease</li><li>Mania in bipolar</li><li>Phaeochromocytoma</li><li>CVR disease</li></ul>

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91
Q

What drug class does mitrazapine belong to?

A

Noradrenergic and specific seretonergic antidepressant(NaSSA’s)<br></br><br></br><ul><li>Modulate serotonin and nordrenaline levels in the brain</li></ul>

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92
Q

What are the indications for using mirtazapine as a treatment?

A

2nd line for depression<br></br>Especially helpful in patients with sleep and low weight problems

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93
Q

Name some side effects of mirtazapine

A

<ul><li>Sedation</li><li>Increased appetite</li><li>Weight gain</li><li>Constipation/diarrhoea</li></ul>

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94
Q

What are antipsychotics used to treat?

A

<ul><li>Bipolar</li><li>Depression</li><li>Delirium</li><li>Personality disorders</li><li>Eating disorders</li><li>Huntington's</li><li>Tic disorders</li><li>Intractable hiccups</li><li>Nausea and hyperemesis</li></ul>

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95
Q

How do typical/1st gen antipsychotics work?

A

Antagonists to D2 receptors on cholinergic, adrenergic and histaminergic receptors

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96
Q

Give some examples of 1st gen/typical antipsychotics

A

<ul><li>Haloperidol</li><li>Chlorpromazine</li><li>Flupentixol</li></ul>

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97
Q

What kind of symptoms to typical/1st gen antipsychotics cause?

A

Extra-pyramidal

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98
Q

Side effects of 1st gen/typical antipsychotics:<br></br>Dopamine 2 receptor blockade:<br></br><ol><li>{{c1::Acute dystonia}}->spasms/involuntary movements</li><li>{{c2::Akathisia->}}restlessness and inability to sit still</li><li>{{c3::Parkinsonism}}->Tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia</li><li>{{c4::Tardive dyskinesia}}->involuntary,repetitive movements particulary of face lip smackin etc</li></ol>

A
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99
Q

What is acute dystonia?

A

Involuntary muscle contractions/spasms

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100
Q

What is tardive dyskinesia?

A

Involuntary repetitive movements, particulary of face<br></br>Lip smacking, tongue movements etc

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101
Q

What is a side effect of antipsychotics with regards to the histamine 1 receptor blockade?

A

Sedation->drowsiness/sleepiness

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102
Q

What is a side effect of antipsychotics with regards to the alpha 1-adrenergic receptor blockade?

A

Orthostatic hypotension

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103
Q

What is a side effect of antipsychotics with regards to the muscarinic receptor blockade?

A

Anticholinergic effect:<br></br>Can’t pee, see,shit or spit<br></br><ul><li>Dry mouth</li><li>Constipation</li><li>Blurre vision</li><li>Urinary retention</li></ul>

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104
Q

What is 1st line for psychosis?

A

2nd gen/atypical antipsychotics

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105
Q

Why are 2nd gen antipsychotics now preferred to 1st gen?

A

Fewer extrapyramidal side effects

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106
Q

What is a disadvantage of using 2nd gen antipsychotics compared to 1st gen

A

Increased metabolic side effects

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107
Q

How do 2nd gen/atypical antipsychotics work?

A

D2, D3, D5 and HT2A antagonists

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108
Q

Give some examples of 2nd gen/atypical antipsychotics

A

<ul><li>Risperidone</li><li>Quetiapine</li><li>Olanzapine</li><li>Aripiprazole</li><li>Clozapine</li></ul>

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109
Q

What are some of the metabolic side effects of 2nd gen/atypical antipsychotics?

A

<ul><li>Weight gain</li><li>Impaired glucose metabolism/diabetes</li><li>Increase levels of lipids</li><li>Increased levels of prolactin</li></ul>

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110
Q

What are some general side effects of 2nd generation/atypical antipsychotics?

A

<ul><li>Seizures</li><li>QT prolongation</li><li>Increase VTE and stroke risk in elderly</li></ul>

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111
Q

What monitoring should be done in patients on 2nd gen/atypical antispychotics?

A

<ul><li>Weight</li><li>Blood glucose</li><li>HbA1c</li><li>Lipids</li><li>BP</li><li>ECG</li></ul>

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112
Q

When is clozapine used as a treatment?

A

<ul><li>Treatment resistant schizophrenia once 2 others have failed-treats both positive and negative symptoms</li></ul>

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113
Q

What are the side effects of clozapine?

A

AGRANULOCYTOSIS<br></br><ul><li>Neutropenia</li><li>Decreased seizure threshold</li><li>Myocarditis</li><li>Slurred speech</li><li>Constipation</li></ul>

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114
Q

What monitoring should be done for patients on clozapine?

A

<ul><li>Weekly FBC looking at WCC for first 18 weeks, then fortnightly</li><li>Bloods</li><li>Lipids</li><li>Weight</li><li>Fasting blood glucose</li></ul>

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115
Q

Name some common mood stabilisers

A

<ul><li>Lithium</li><li>Sodium valproate</li><li>Carbamazepine</li><li>Lamotrigine</li></ul>

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116
Q

What is lithium used to treat?

A

<ul><li>Bipolar disorder and mania</li><li>Depression</li><li>Aggression/self harm</li></ul>

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117
Q

When is lithium contraindicated?

A

<ul><li>Addison's disease</li><li>Arrhythmias</li><li>Brugada</li><li>Hypothryoidism</li></ul>

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118
Q

Side effects of lithium:<br></br><ul><li>L-{{c1::leukocytosis}}</li><li>I-{{c2::Insipidus(diabetes)}}</li><li>T{{c3::-tremor(fine)}}</li><li>H-{{c4::hypothryoidism}}</li><li>I-{{c5::Increased weight}}</li><li>M-{{c6::Metallic taste}}</li></ul>

A
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119
Q

What should be given to women of childearing age who are on lithium and why?

A

<ul><li>Contraception</li><li>Causes cardiac malformations in the 1st trimester</li></ul>

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120
Q

Monitoring for patients on lithium<br></br><br></br>At the start:<br></br><ol><li>{{c1::U&E’s}}</li><li>{{c1::ECG}}</li><li>{{c1::TFT’s}}</li><li>{{c1::BMI}}</li><li>{{c1::FBC}}</li></ol><div>Throughout:</div><div><ol><li>{{c2::}}Electroytes</li><li>{{c2::eGFR}}</li><li>{{c2::TFT’s}}</li><li>{{c2::BMI}}</li></ol></div>

A
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121
Q

Name some side effects of sodium valproate

A

<ul><li>Nausea</li><li>Gastric irritation</li><li>Diarrhoea</li><li>Weight gain</li></ul>

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122
Q

What are carbamazepine and sodium valproate used for in psychiatry?

A

Mood stabilisers:<br></br><ul><li>Both used for bipolar disorder prophylaxis</li></ul>

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123
Q

What is lamotrigine used for in psychiatry?

A

Mood stabiliser<br></br><ul><li>Useful in preventing depressive episodes</li></ul>

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124
Q

Name some side effects of lamotrigine

A

<ul><li>Steven Johnson syndrome</li><li>Dizziness</li><li>Rashes</li></ul>

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125
Q

What is important to remember about prescribing mood stabilisers to women of child bearing age?

A

Teratogenic

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126
Q

<b>Lithium toxicity:</b><br></br>Therapeutic dose symptoms: {{c1::fine tremor, dry mouth, GI disturbance, Increased thirst and urination}}<br></br><br></br>Toxicity symptoms{{c2::: Coarse tremor, CNS dysfunction(seizures, impaired co-ordination, dysarthria), arrhythmias, visual disturbance}}<br></br><br></br>Investigations: <br></br><ul><li>For diagnosis:{{c3::Serum lithium levels}}</li><li>For assessment: {{c4::electrolyes, LFT’s U&Es, ECG}}</li></ul><div>Treatment:</div><div><ul><li>{{c5::</li><li>Supportive</li><li>Maintain electrolytes, monitor renal function, IV fluids</li>}}<br></br></ul></div>

A
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127
Q

Describe some symptoms of TCA toxicity

A

<ul><li>Drowsiness</li><li>Confusion</li><li>Arrhythmia</li><li>Seizures</li><li>Vomiting</li><li>Headache</li><li>Flushing</li><li>Dilated pupils</li></ul>

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128
Q

What investigations should be done to diagnose and assess TCA toxicity?

A

<ul><li>FBC</li><li>U&amp;E</li><li>CRP</li><li>LFT'S</li><li>VBG</li><li>ECG-QT prolongation</li></ul>

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129
Q

How is TCA toxicity treated

A

<ul><li>Generally supportive care and management</li><li>Consider activated charcoal withint 2-4 hours of OD and intensive care review if severe</li></ul>

<br></br>

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130
Q

What is neuroloeptic malignant syndrome?

A

<ul><li>Rare, life threatening reaction to antipsychotics</li></ul>

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131
Q

When does neuroleptic malignant condition occur?

A

After the introduction of or increase in neuroleptic medications (antipsychotics)

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132
Q

How do patients with neuroleptic malignany syndrome present?

A

<ul><li>Hyperthermia</li><li>Altered mental state</li><li>'Lead pipe rigidity'&nbsp;</li><li>Autonomic dysregulation</li></ul>

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133
Q

Name some differentials for neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

<ul><li>Malignant hyperthermia</li><li>Serotonin syndrome</li></ul>

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134
Q

What are some investigations to investigate neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

<ul><li>Creatine kinase!</li><li>FBC</li><li>Renal and liver function</li></ul>

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135
Q

What is the treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

<ul><li>Stop causative agent</li><li>Cooling blankets and IV fluids to prevent renal failure and hyperthermia</li><li>Benzodiazepines for muscle rigidity</li><li>Dantrolene in severe cases</li><li>Intensive monitoring</li></ul>

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136
Q

What is serotonin syndrome?

A

<ul><li>Life threatening emergency characterised by an increase in serotonergic activity in the CNS</li></ul>

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137
Q

When does serotonin syndrome occur?

A

Typically first few months after starting an SSRI/increasing the dose<br></br><ul><li>Can also happen with SNRI’s, MAO-I’s, TCA’s, MDMA/cocaine</li></ul>

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138
Q

Describe the presentation of a patient with serotonin syndrome

A

<ul><li>Hyperthermia</li><li>Altered mental state</li><li>Neuromuscular hyperactivity-&gt; tremors, clonus, hyperreflexia</li><li>NOT rigidity</li></ul>

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139
Q

Name some differentials for serotonin syndrome

A

<ul><li>Neuroleptic malignant syndrome</li><li>Malignant hyperthermia</li><li>Anti-cholinergic toxicity-&gt;decreased bowel sounds, urinary retention</li></ul>

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140
Q

How can serotonin syndrome and neuroleptic malignant syndrome be differentiated?

A

<ul><li>Neuroleptic malignant syndrome: slower onset, longer duration</li></ul>

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141
Q

How is serotonin syndrome diagnosed?

A

<ul><li>Mostly based on clinical exam and history</li><li>Bloods to monitor organ function</li></ul>

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142
Q

How is serotonin syndrome managed?

A

<ul><li>Stop causative agent</li><li>Supportive care and symptom management</li><li>In severe cases: antidotes like cypropheptadine</li></ul>

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143
Q

What are the features of addiction?

A

<ul><li>Tolerance</li><li>Withdrawal</li><li>Persistent desire/unsuccessful attempts to stop</li><li>Substance taken in large amounts/used for longer periods then intended</li><li>Vocational/social/recreational activities given up or reduced because of substance us</li><li>More time spent seeking/recovering from meffects of substance</li><li>Repeated use despite awareness of damage from substance</li></ul>

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144
Q

Which pathway is addiction medicated by?

A

Dopamine reward pathway

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145
Q

153a8a3d8b7e436597a59035d3809f0f-oa-1

A

Stages of change model

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<img></img>

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146
Q

153a8a3d8b7e436597a59035d3809f0f-oa-2

A

Stages of change model

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<img></img>

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147
Q

153a8a3d8b7e436597a59035d3809f0f-oa-3

A

Stages of change model

<img></img>

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<img></img>

<img></img>

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148
Q

153a8a3d8b7e436597a59035d3809f0f-oa-4

A

Stages of change model

<img></img>

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<img></img>

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149
Q

153a8a3d8b7e436597a59035d3809f0f-oa-5

A

Stages of change model

<img></img>

<img></img>

<img></img>

<img></img>

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150
Q

153a8a3d8b7e436597a59035d3809f0f-oa-6

A

Stages of change model

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<img></img>

<img></img>

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151
Q

Descirbe the general management of addiction

A

<ul><li>Maintainence vs abstinence</li><li>Treat co-morbidities(mental and physical)</li><li>Psychological interventions(CBT, motivational interviewing, AA)</li><li>Pharmacological intervention(manage detox, maintainence etc)</li><li>Social intervention(work, housing, family)</li></ul>

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152
Q

Descirbe the symptoms of acute alcohol intoxication

A

<ul><li>Ataxia</li><li>Nausea and vomiting</li><li>Decreased GCS</li><li>Respiraotyr depression</li><li>Impaired judgement</li><li>Anterograde amnesia</li><li>Dysarthria</li></ul>

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153
Q

When does alcohol withdrawal typically occur?

A

12 hours after the last drink

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154
Q

What scoring system is used to monitor signs of alcohol withdrawal and guide treatment?

A

CIWA score<br></br>Clinical institute withdrawal assessment

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155
Q

<b>Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal:</b><br></br><ul><li>>6 hours: {{c1::tremor, nausea, sweating, vomiting, anxiety, insomnia, tachycardia, hypertension, pyrexia}}</li><li>7-48 hours: {{c2::Seizures, risk of status epilepticus}}</li><li>48-72 hours: {{c3::Tremor, hallucintations, delusions, confusion, agitation}}</li></ul>

A
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156
Q

How many hours after the last drink is a patient going through alcohol withdrawal most at risk of seizures or status epilepticus?

A

7-48 hours

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157
Q

Descirbe the pharmacological management of alcohol withdrawal

A

<ul><li>Short acting benzodiazepines</li></ul>

<div>Chlordiazepoxide reducing regine (20-40mg qds reducing to 0 over 1 week)</div>

<div><br></br></div>

<div><ul><li>Pabrinex-prevent Wernicke-Korsakoff's syndrome</li></ul></div>

<div><br></br></div>

<div><ul><li>Oxazepam if evidence of liver injury</li></ul></div>

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158
Q

Describe the supportive management of alcohol withdrawal

A

<ul><li>Fluids</li><li>Anti-emetics</li><li>Referral to local drug and alcohol liasion teams</li></ul>

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159
Q

What is delirium tremens?

A

Life threatening emergency characterised by extreme autonomic hyperactivity and neuropsychiatric symptoms

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160
Q

How long after alcohol cessation is delirium tremens most likely to set in?

A

About 72 hours

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161
Q

What are the triggers for developing delirium tremens

A

<ul><li>Cessation of alcohol</li><li>Cna be precipitated by infeciton, trauma or illness</li></ul>

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162
Q

Describe the symptoms of delirium tremens

A

<ul><li>Confusion and disorientation</li><li>Hallucinations (visual or tactile, formication)</li><li>Autonomic hyperactivity-&gt; sweating, hypertension</li><li>Rarely seizures</li></ul>

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163
Q

When do symptoms of delirium tremens typically peak?

A

<ul><li>Between 4th and 5th day post withdrawal</li></ul>

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164
Q

Give some differentials for delirium tremens

A

<ul><li>Alcohol withdrawal(no hallucinations)</li><li>Wernicke-korsakoff(no autonomic instability)</li><li>Encephalitis/meningitis(no focal neurological signs)</li></ul>

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165
Q

Describe the management of delirium tremens

A

<ul><li>1st line: lorazepam</li><li>If symptoms persist: parenteral lorazepam or haloperidol</li><li>Maintainence therapy of alcohol withdrawal</li></ul>

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166
Q

What is Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

<ul><li>Acute neurological syndrome from a thiamina(B1) deficiency</li></ul>

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167
Q

Name some causes of Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

<ul><li>Most common: chornic alcohol abuse</li><li>Malabsorption, eating disorders</li></ul>

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168
Q

What are the 3 core symptoms of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

<ul><li>Confusion</li><li>Ataxia</li><li>Ophthalmoplegia/nystagmus</li></ul>

<div>Don;t need all 3 to make a diagnosis</div>

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169
Q

How is Wernicke’s encephalopathy investigated?

A

<ul><li>Thiamine level testing</li><li>Bloods-FBC's, U&amp;E's, liver and bone profile, magensium, clotting</li><li>Neuroimaging-&gt;MRI</li></ul>

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170
Q

How is Wernicke’s encephalopathy managed?

A

<ul><li>Treat underlying cause</li><li>Thiamine supplementation-&gt;pabrinex</li></ul>

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171
Q

What is Korsakoff’s syndrome?

A

<ul><li>Chronic memory disorder that arises as a late complication og untreated Wernicke's</li></ul>

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172
Q

What is the main complication of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

<ul><li>Korsakoff's syndrome(becomes permanent)</li><li>Also coma, death</li></ul>

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173
Q

What is the aetiology of Korsakoff’s syndrome?

A

<ul><li>Degeneration of mamillary bodies(part of circuit of papez involved in memory formation) due to thiamine deficiency</li></ul>

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174
Q

What are the symptoms of a patient with Korsakoff’s syndrome?

A

<ul><li>Profoound anterograde amnesia</li><li>Limited retrograde amnesia</li><li>Confabulation(fabricate memories to mask deficit)</li></ul>

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175
Q

How is Korsakoff’s syndrome treated?

A

<ul><li>Ongoing thiamine supplementation</li><li>Cognitive rehabilitation</li><li>Treat underlying cause(like alcoholism)</li></ul>

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176
Q

What are some symptoms of opiate intoxication?

A

<ul><li>Drowsiness</li><li>Confusion</li><li>Constricted pupils</li><li>Bradypnoea</li><li>Bradycardia</li></ul>

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177
Q

How many hours after the last dose might opiate withdrawal symptoms begin, and when does it peak?

A

<ul><li>Can begin as early as 6 hours after last dose</li><li>Symptoms peak at 36-72 hours</li></ul>

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178
Q

Is opiate withdrawal typically life threatening?

A

No

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179
Q

Describe the symptoms of opiate withdrawal

A

<ul><li>Agitation</li><li>Chills</li><li>Cramps</li><li>Sweating</li><li>Increased salivation</li><li>Insomnia</li><li>GI disturbance</li><li>Dilated pupils</li><li>Piloerection</li><li>Tachycardia and hypertension</li></ul>

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180
Q

How is opiate withdrawal managed acutely?

A

<ul><li>Methadone(can cause prolonged QT syndrome)</li><li>Lofexedine(alpha 2 receptor agonist)</li><li>Loperamide(for diarrhoea)</li><li>Anti-emetics(nausea)</li><li>Benzodiazepines(only for agitation, should be avoided)</li></ul>

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181
Q

What is used in opiate detox programmes?

A

<ul><li>Methadone and bupernorphine</li></ul>

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3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What is used as opiate addiction relapse prevention?

A

Neltrexone once detox done

183
Q

What is an opiate overdose treated with?

A

Naloxone

184
Q

Give some examples of stimulants

A

<ul><li>Cocaine</li><li>meth</li><li>MDMA</li></ul>

185
Q

What are some symptoms of stimulant intoxication?

A

<ul><li>Euphoria</li><li>Hypertensive crisis</li><li>Tachycardia</li><li>Dilate pupils</li><li>Pyr4exia</li><li>Agitation</li><li>Psychosis</li></ul>

186
Q

What are some potential consequences of stimulant intoxication?

A

<ul><li>Rhabodymolisis</li><li>SIADH and water overload</li><li>Cocaine-&gt; Ischaemic events due to vasospasm</li><li>Death</li></ul>

187
Q

What causes death in patients with stimulant intoxication?

A

<ul><li>Hyperpyrexia</li><li>Hypertension</li></ul>

188
Q

How is stimulant intoxication managed?

A

Deaths due to hyperpyrexia and hypertension so:<br></br><ul><li>Cooling</li><li>Antihypertensives like nitroprusside or GTN</li><li>Benzodiazepines</li></ul>

189
Q

What is the criteria for an ADHD diagnosis?

A

<ul><li>Neurodevelopmental disorder-symptoms affetc daily functioning in &gt;1 setting and symptoms last for &gt;6 months</li><li>Symptoms present before age&nbsp; of 12 years</li></ul>

190
Q

What are the cardinal features of ADHD?

A

<ol><li>Inattention</li><li>Impulsivity</li><li>Hyperactivity</li></ol>

191
Q

Describe the aetiology of ADHD

A

<ul><li>Decreased activity in the frontal lobe-&gt; impaired executive function</li></ul>

192
Q

How might inattention manifest in a patient with ADHD

A

<ul><li>Difficult sustaining attention to tasks that aren't rewarding or stimulating or require sustained mental effort</li><li>Easily distracted by external stimuli</li><li>Loses things</li></ul>

193
Q

How might hyperactivity/impulsivity manifest in a patient with ADHD?

A

<ul><li>Excessive motor activity</li><li>Difficult engaging in activities quietly</li><li>Blurts out answers in school/work</li><li>Tendency to act in response to immediate stimuli without deliberation or consideration of risk/consequence</li></ul>

194
Q

How is ADHD diagnosed?

A

According to the DSM-5 clinical criteria<br></br><ul><li>Behavioural observation</li><li>Comprehensive history and physical exam</li><li>Teacher and parent reports</li><li>Neuropsychological testing</li></ul>

195
Q

How is ADHD treated?

A

<ul><li>Conservative-&gt; behavioural therapy, CBT, psychoeducation, social skills training</li><li>Medical-stimulants-&gt; methylphenidate, amphetamines</li></ul>

196
Q

How do stimulants work to treat patients wth ADHD?

A

<ul><li>Act on frontal lobe to increase executive function and attention and decrease impulsivity</li></ul>

197
Q

What should be monitored in children on methylphenidate?

A

Growth

198
Q

Define autism spectrum disorders

A

Set of complex neurodevelopmental disorders resulting in social, language and behavioura deficits

199
Q

How does ASD present?

A

<ol><li>Social interaction-&gt; plays alone, no eye contact, struggle to perceive others</li><li>Language and communication-&gt; speech and langiage delay, monotonous voice, interpret speech literally</li><li>Behavioural traits-&gt; narrow interests, rituilistic behaviours, routines, stereotyped movements</li><li>Other conditions-&gt; Learning difficulties, genetics, seizures</li></ol>

200
Q

Name some differentials for ASD

A

<ul><li>Intellectual disability(no social deficits)</li><li>ADHD(no social/language deficits)</li><li>Specific language impairment</li><li>Childhood schizophrenia(hallucinations/delusions)</li><li>Asperger's-&gt; milder social features and near normal speech development</li></ul>

201
Q

How is ASD diagnosed?

A

<ul><li>MDT assessmnt</li><li>Psychological evaluation</li><li>Speech and language assessment</li><li>Cognitive assessment</li></ul>

202
Q

How is ASD managed?

A

<ul><li>MDT approach</li><li>Behavioural-&gt;applied behavioural analysis(encourage positive behaviours, ignore negative)</li><li>Family and social support</li></ul>

203
Q

How is ASD different to asperger’s?

A

Asperger’s has milder social fe3atures and near normal speech development

204
Q

What are the key features of learning disabilities?

A

<ul><li>Decreased intellectual ability</li><li>Difficulty with everyday activities</li></ul>

205
Q

Name some potential causes of learning disabilities

A

<ul><li>Inherited</li><li>Early childhood illness/brain injury</li><li>Problems during pregnancy/birth</li><li>Smoking/alcohol in pregnancy</li></ul>

206
Q

What causes Down’s syndrome?

A

Trisomy 21

207
Q

Name some risk factors for having Down’s syndrome

A

<ul><li>High maternal age</li><li>Family history</li></ul>

208
Q

Descirbe the typical facial features of a patient with Down’s syndrome

A

<ul><li>Flat occiput</li><li>Oblique palpebral fissures</li><li>Small mouth</li><li>High arched palate</li><li>Broad hands</li><li>Single, transverse palmar crease</li></ul>

209
Q

What medical conditions are associated with Down’s syndrome?

A

<ul><li>Complete AV septal defecy</li><li>Hypothyroidism</li><li>Increased risk of Alzheimer's by age of 50</li><li>Learning disability&nbsp;</li><li>Autistic t5raits</li></ul>

210
Q

What is generalised anxiety disorder?

A

<ul><li>Chronic and pervasive condition characterised by excessive, uncontrollable worry extending across various life domains</li></ul>

211
Q

What are the ICD10 criteria for GAD?

A

<ol><li>6 month history of tension, worry and axiety about everyday issues</li><li>Increase in symptoms(autonomic, chest/abdo, brain, tension)</li><li>Doesn't met criteria for panic disorder, hypochondriasis and OCD</li><li>Can't be explained by a physical condition or medication</li></ol>

212
Q

Describe the epidemiology of GAD

A

<ul><li>More common in females, associated with depression, substance misuse and personality disorders</li></ul>

213
Q

Name some risk factors for developing GAD

A

<ul><li>Low socioeconomic status</li><li>Unemplyment</li><li>Divorce</li><li>Lack of education</li></ul>

214
Q

GAD symptoms:<br></br><ul><li>Psychological: {{c1::worries, decreased concentration, insomnia, derealisation}}</li><li>Motor: {{c1::restlessness, feeling on edge}}</li><li>Neuromuscular: {{c1::tremore, tension headache, muscle aches, dizziness}}</li><li>GI: {{c1::dry mouth, nausea, indugestion, nausea and vomiting}}</li><li>CVR: {{c1::chest pain, palpitations}}</li><li>Resp: {{c1::Dsypnoea, tight chest, breathlessness}}</li><li>GU: {{c1::urinary frequency, erectile dysfunction, amenorrhoea}}</li></ul>

A
215
Q

How is GAD diagnosed?

A

<ul><li>Full history and exam(rule out organic causes)</li><li>Questionnaires liked GAD-2/7</li><li>Sucide risk assessment</li></ul>

216
Q

Name some differentials for GAD

A

<ul><li>Hyperthyroidism</li><li>Cardiac causes</li><li>Too much caffeine</li><li>Substance abuse</li><li>Depression</li><li>Medication induced anxiety</li><li>Anxious/avoidant mpersonality disorder</li><li>Early stage dementia/schizophrenia</li></ul>

217
Q

GAD management:<br></br><br></br>1st line: <br></br><ul><li>I{{c1::</li><li>ndividual, non-facilitated help</li><li>Individual, guided mself-help</li><li>Psycho-educational groups-interactive CBT sessions</li>}}</ul><div>2nd line:</div><div><ul><li>{{c2::</li><li>High intensity psychological intervention-CBT,applied r4elaxation</li><li>Medical management-SSRI’s, sertraline 1st line</li>}}<br></br></ul><div>Symtpomatic management: {{c3::propanolol}}</div></div>

A
218
Q

What is panic disorder?

A

<ul><li>Occurence of recurrent unexpected panic attacks, each marked by intense fear/discomoft resulting in avoidant behaviours</li></ul>

219
Q

What is the criteria for a panic attack disorder diagnosis?

A

<ol><li>Recurrent unexpected panic attacks</li><li>Persistent concern about future attackd</li><li>Behavioural changes resulting in avoidance of associated situations</li></ol>

220
Q

Describe the epidemiology of panic disorder

A

<ul><li>Bimodial incidence, peaks and 20yrs and 50 yrs</li><li>Concurrent agoraphobia in 30-50% of cases</li><li>Increased risk of attempted suicide with comorbid epression/substance abuse</li></ul>

221
Q

Describe the clinical features of panic disorder

A

<ul><li>Breathing difficulties, chest pain, palpitations, shaking, sweating</li><li>Hyperventilation-&gt; hypocalcaemia, carpopedal spasm</li><li>Depersonalisation/derealistation</li><li>Agoraphobia</li></ul>

222
Q

Name some differentials for panic disorder

A

<ul><li>Other anxiety disorders(GAD, agoraphobia)</li><li>Depression(takes precedence), alcohol/drug withdrawal</li><li>Organic: CVR/resp, hypoglycaemia, hyperthyroidism, phaeocromocytoma</li></ul>

223
Q

How is panic disorder managed?

A

<ol><li>CBT(80-100&amp; successful)</li></ol>

<div><ul><li>Psychoeducation and 'fear of fear' cycles</li><li>Interoceptive exposure and techniques</li><li>secondary agoraphobia exposure techniques</li></ul><div>2. SSRI's</div></div>

<div><ul><li>Clomipramine(TCA)</li><li>Propanolol for symptomatic management</li></ul></div>

<div><br></br></div>

224
Q

What are phobias?

A

<ul><li>Excessive and irrational fears, restricted to highly specific situations</li></ul>

225
Q

What are the clinical features of a phobia?

A

<ul><li>Usually apparent in early childhood</li><li>Leads to avoidance behaviours</li><li>Results in bradycardia or hypotension</li><li>Rule out depression</li></ul>

226
Q

What is agoraphobia?

A

<ul><li>Fear of open spaces and associated factors like the presence of crowds or difficulty of immediate escape</li></ul>

227
Q

At what age does agoraphobia typically start?

A

<ul><li>20's mor mid 30's</li></ul>

228
Q

What is social anxiety disorder?

A

<ul><li>AKA social phobia</li><li>Fear of scrutiny by others in small groups(5-6 people)</li><li>Can be specific(public speaking) or generalised</li></ul>

229
Q

What are the symptoms of social phobia

A

<ul><li>BLUSHING(characteristic)</li><li>Palpitations</li><li>Sweating</li><li>Trembling</li></ul>

230
Q

What can precipitate the development of social phobia?

A

<ul><li>Stressful/humiliating experiences</li><li>Parental death</li><li>Separation</li><li>Chronic stress</li></ul>

231
Q

What are come complications of social phobia?

A

<ul><li>Depression</li><li>Alcohol/drug abuse</li></ul>

232
Q

How are phobias managed?

A

<ol><li>CBT</li></ol>

<div><ul><li>Ecposure techniques-&gt;systematic desensitization</li><li>Flooding</li><li>Modelling</li></ul><div>2. SRRI's</div></div>

<div><ul><li>Propanolol if somatic symptoms dominate</li></ul></div>

233
Q

What is an acute stress reaction?

A

<ul><li>Immediate and intense psychological response following exposure to a traumatic event</li></ul>

234
Q

How is acute stress reaction differentiated from PTSD?

A

Sx for <1 month: acute stress reaction<br></br>>1 month: PTSD

235
Q

What is the criteria needed to diagnose an acute stress reaction?

A

<ul><li>Exposure: direct/indirect exposure to traumatic event</li><li>Symptoms: Dissociation, low mood, arousal, avoidance</li><li>Duration: 3 days-1 months post event</li></ul>

236
Q

Name some clinical features of acute stress reaction

A

<ul><li>Intrusive memories, dissociation, hyperarousal, avoidance, low mood</li><li>Emotional: anxiety, sense of unreality</li><li>Physiological: palpitations, hypervigilance</li><li>Behavioural: effort to escape reality and reminders</li></ul>

237
Q

Name some differentials for an acute stress reaction

A

<ul><li>Adjustment disorders</li><li>PTSD(&gt;1 month)</li></ul>

238
Q

How is acute stress reaction managed?

A

<ol><li>Trauma focused CBT</li><li>Medications if severe: benzodiazepines</li></ol>

239
Q

What is adjustment disorder?

A

<ul><li>Significant emotional distress and disturbance that interferes with social functioning</li></ul>

240
Q

When does adjustment disorder typically arise?

A

During a period o adaptation to a major life change/stress<br></br>

241
Q

How is adjustment disorder different to an acute stress reaction?

A

Adjustment disorder: stressor doesn’t need ot be severe or life-threatening(e.g., being fired)<br></br>Acute stress reaction: Severe stressor

242
Q

Describe the clinical features of adjustment disorder

A

<ul><li>Mood: depression/amxiety</li><li>Behavioural: marked irritability, imapired work/social function</li><li>Interpersonal disruptions and avoidance behaviours</li><li>Cognitive alterations: persistent negative outlook, precoccupations with the stressor&nbsp;</li></ul>

243
Q

Name some differentials for adjustment disorder

A

<ul><li>Acute stress reaction</li><li>PTSD</li></ul>

244
Q

How is adjustment disorder managed?

A

<ul><li>Psychotherapy(CBT, group, family)</li><li>Medications(anti-anxiety/antidepressants)</li><li>Self care strategies(stress management, activity, social support)</li><li>Treatment usually short term, symptoms improve once stressor is removed or indivdual learns how to cope</li></ul>

245
Q

What criteria is needed to diagnose PTSD?

A

<ul><li>Direct/indirect exposure to a traumatic event(actual threatened death, serious injury or sexual violence)</li><li>Symptoms:intrusion, avoidance, negative alterations in cognition and mood, arousal and reactivity</li><li>Duration: &gt;1 months(DSM-5) or &gt;6 months(ICD-11)</li></ul>

246
Q

How long do symptoms need to have been present for to make a PTSD diagnosis?

A

<ul><li>ICD 11: &gt;6 months</li><li>DSM 5: &gt;1 months</li></ul>

247
Q

How common is PTSD?

A

<ul><li>Lifetime rates: 7-9%</li></ul>

248
Q

Describe the clinical features of PTSD

A

<ul><li>Intrusions: recurrent distressing memories/nightmares/flashbacks</li><li>Avoidance</li><li>Mood and cognition: distorted blame, negative emotions and beliefs</li><li>Arousal and activity: Increased vigilance, concentration and sleep troubles, increased startle response</li></ul>

249
Q

How is PTSD classified?

A

<ul><li>Mild: Manageable, limited impact on social/ocupational function</li><li>Moderate: Mild-severe distress and impact on function, no significant risk of suicide, self harm or risk to others</li><li>Severe: Unmanageable distress, high risk of self-harm/suicide</li></ul>

250
Q

How is PTSD managed?

A

<ul><li>Moderate-severe; secondary care referral</li><li>Trauma focussed CBT and EMDR</li><li>Veterans priority scheme</li><li>Risk assessment for suicide/self-harm</li><li>Medications: SSRI's(start with sertraline, paroxetine) or SNRI(venlefaxine)</li></ul>

<div><br></br></div>

251
Q

What is the criteria for a diagnosis of OCD?

A

<ul><li>Presence of obsessions, compulsions or both</li><li>Time-consuming (&gt;1hr/day), OR cause significant impairment</li><li>Not attributable to another medical/mental disorder</li></ul>

252
Q

How common is OCD?

A

1-3% of the population

253
Q

At what age does OCD typically present?

A

<ul><li>Adolescence/early adulthood</li></ul>

254
Q

How do patients with OCD present?

A

Obsessions; intrusive, unwanted distressing thoughts/images<br></br>Compulsions: Repetitive behaviours aimed at decreasing anxiety

255
Q

What scoring system is used to assess severeity of OCD?

A

Yales-Brown OC scale<br></br><ul><li>Mild: 8-15</li><li>Moderate: 16-23</li><li>Severe: 24-31</li><li>Extremely severe: 32-40</li></ul>

256
Q

Name some differentials for OCD

A

<ul><li>GAD</li><li>Major depressive disorder</li><li>Body dysmorphic disorder</li><li>Social anxiety disorder</li><li>Hoarding disorder</li><li>Trichotillomania</li><li>PTSD</li><li>ASD</li></ul>

257
Q

How is OCD managed?

A

Mild: low intensity CBT<br></br><ul><li>Exposure and repsonse prevention: ERP</li></ul><div>Moderate: Intensive CBT or SSRI</div><div><ul><li>Fluoxetine, citalopram, paroxetine, sertraline</li><li>Clomipramine as alternative</li></ul><div>Severe:</div></div><div><ul><li>Intensive CBT and SSRI</li></ul></div><br></br>

258
Q

If a patient is on a medication for OCD, how long should they continue taking it for?

A

<ul><li>If effective: continue for at least 12 months, then review</li></ul>

259
Q

What is the criteria for a diagnosis of major depressive disorder?

A

<ul><li>Presence of a major depressive episode lasting over 2 weeks</li></ul>

260
Q

What is dysthymia?

A

<ul><li>Persistent depressive disorder-chronic form of depression lasting more than 2 years</li></ul>

261
Q

What are the 9 DSM 5 depression symptoms?

A

<ul><li>Depressed mood/irritability(can be subjective or objective)</li><li>Anhedonia</li><li>Weight/appetite changes</li><li>Sleep changes</li><li>Activity changes-pscyhomotor agitation/retardation</li><li>Fatigue/loss og energy</li><li>Guilt and feelings of worthlessness</li><li>Cognitive issues</li><li>Suicidality(thoughts or formulation of a plan</li></ul>

262
Q

What is the DSM-5 criteria for a depression diagnosis?

A

<ul><li>5/9 symptoms for at least 2 weeks</li></ul>

263
Q

Name 2 additional features that might be seen in severe depression

A

<ul><li>Psychosis-&gt;delusions and/or hallucinations</li><li>Depressive stupor-&gt; immobility, mutism, refusal to eat/drink-&gt;ECT</li></ul>

264
Q

What investigations should be done to make a diagnosis of depression?

A

<ul><li>FBC</li><li>U&amp;E's</li><li>TFT'S</li><li>LFT</li><li>Glucose</li><li>cortisol</li><li>B12/folate</li><li>Toxicology screen</li><li>CNS imaging in some cases</li><li>Questionnares: HAD scale and PHQ-9</li></ul>

265
Q

What questionnaires are used to assess depression?

A

<ul><li>HAD scale</li><li>PHQ-9</li></ul>

266
Q

Name some differential diagnoses for depression

A

Organic:<br></br><ul><li>Neurological: Parkinson’s, dementia, MS</li><li>Endocrine: thryoid, hyoer/hypo-adrenalism</li><li>Chronic conditions: mdiabetes, obstructuve sleep apnoea, mono</li><li>Neoplasms and cancer</li><li>Substance use/medication side effect</li></ul>

267
Q

Management of depression:<br></br><ul><li>Refer to secondary care if {{c1::high risk for cuicide, psychosis/bipolar}}</li></ul><div>Mild/moderate:</div><div><ol><li>{{c2::Low/high intensity psychological interventions(self-help, CBT, etc)}}</li><li>{{c3::Consider antidepressants(SSRI’s, SNRI’s)}}</li></ol><div>Recurrent:</div></div><div><ol><li>{{c4::Antidepressant+lithium}}</li></ol><ul><li>Continue for at least {{c4::6 months post remission then taper}}</li><li>High suicide risk age {{c4::18-25 yrs,}} follow up after {{c4::1 week}}</li></ul><div>Severe:</div><div><ol><li>{{c5::ECT}}</li></ol></div><br></br></div>

A
268
Q

Name some side effects of ECT

A

<ul><li>Headaches</li><li>Muscle aches</li><li>Memory loss</li><li>Confusion</li><li>Death</li></ul>

269
Q

Why should antidepressants be used with caution for depression?

A

High risk of suicide

270
Q

What are the most common ways in which patients self harm?

A

<ul><li>Cutting</li><li>Self-poisoning</li><li>Burning</li><li>Hitting</li><li>Hair pulling</li></ul>

271
Q

What groups is self harm most common in?

A

<ul><li>Young people</li><li>More common in females</li></ul>

272
Q

Name some risk factors for self-harming

A

<ul><li>Mental illness</li><li>Alcohol/substance misus</li><li>Social disadvantage/lack of social support</li><li>Childhood adversity</li><li>Personality characteristis#(impulsivity, poor problem solving, interpersonal difficulties)</li><li>Life events-predisporing/precipitating factors(especially relationship problems</li></ul>

273
Q

Give some reasons behind why a patient would self-harm

A

<ul><li>Expression of personal distress</li><li>May/may not be with lethal intent</li><li>Attempt to communicate/seek help/care</li><li>Way of obtaining relief from a difficult and otherwise overwhelming situation</li></ul>

274
Q

Name some of the most common methods by which patients committ suicide

A

<ul><li>Hanging-most common</li><li>Self-poisoning</li><li>Jumping</li><li>Drowning</li><li>Cutting/stabbing</li><li>Firearms</li></ul>

275
Q

Risk factors for commiting suicide:<br></br>SADPERSON:<br></br>S{{c1::ex: male}}<br></br>A{{c1::ge}}<br></br>D{{c1::epression}}<br></br>P{{c1::sychiatric care}}<br></br>E{{c1::xcessive drug use}}<br></br>R{{c1::ational thinking absent}}<br></br>S{{c1::ingle}}<br></br>O{{c1::rganised attempy/PREVIOUS SH/ATTEMPTS}}<br></br>N{{c1::o support/living alone}}<br></br>S{{c1::tates future attempt<br></br>}}<br></br>Others:<br></br><ul><li>{{c1::</li><li>Poverty and unemployment</li><li>Prisoners/marginalised groups</li><li>Family history of mental illness/suicide</li><li>Childhood adversity and bullying</li><li>Physical illness</li>}}<br></br></ul>

A
276
Q

What are some red flags and important things to assess when carrying out a suicide risk assessment?

A

<ul><li>Level of intent/hopelessness, agitation, lack of sleep</li><li>Prior attempts/plans/notes</li><li>Giving away possessions etc</li><li>Typical: young male/late life white divorced male living alone, social withdrawal</li></ul>

277
Q

What are the different kinds of overdose using paracetemol?

A

<ul><li>Acute: Excessive amounts in &lt;1 hour</li><li>Staggered: Excessive amount ingested in &gt;1 hour</li><li>Therapeutic excess: Too much taken&nbsp; to treat pain/fever without self harm intent</li></ul>

278
Q

How much paracetemol counts as an overdose?

A

>75mg/kg/24 hours

279
Q

How does a paracetemol overdose cause problems/

A

<ul><li>Normally: NAPQ1 inactivated by glutathione</li><li>OD: glutathione depleted, so massive excess of NAPQ1 which builds up and causes liver and kidney damage</li></ul>

280
Q

How do patients who have OD’s on paracetemol present?

A

<ul><li>N+V</li><li>Haematuria and proteinuria</li><li>Jaundice</li><li>Loin pain</li><li>Abdominal pain</li><li>Coma/unconscious</li></ul>

281
Q

What investigations should be done for a patient who has overdosed on paracetemol?

A

<ul><li>fbc</li><li>u&amp;e</li><li>lfts</li><li>clotting screen</li><li>VBG-severe metabolic acidosis</li><li>Paracetemol levels</li></ul>

282
Q

What kind of imbalance can a paracetemol overdose cause?

A

Metabolic acidosis

283
Q

Management of a paracetemol overdose:<br></br><ul><li><1hour ago and dose >150mg/kg: {{c1::activated charcoal}}</li><li>1-4 hours: {{c1::wait, check at 4 hours then N-acetylcysteine}}</li><li>4-24 hours/staggered OD: {{c1::N-acetylcysteine}}</li><li>>24 hours: {{c1::N-acetyclysteine if liver failure or high paracetemol levels}}</li><li>Last line: {{c1::liver transplant}}</li></ul>

A
284
Q

When would a patient who has overdosed on paracetemol be considered for an urgent transplant?

A

<ul><li>Arterial pH&lt;7.3</li></ul>

<div>OR</div>

<div><ol><li>Serum creatinine &gt;300micromol/litre</li><li>Prothrombin time &gt;100 seconds</li><li>Grade 3/4 encephalopathy</li></ol></div>

285
Q

Which patients are at higher risk of complications after a paracetemol overdose?

A

<ul><li>HIV</li><li>Mlanutrition</li><li>Wating disorders</li><li>Pre-existing liver disease</li><li>Regular alcohol excess</li></ul>

286
Q

Which blood test results indicate a poor prognosis following a paracetemol overdose?

A

<ul><li>Bilirubin &gt;300micromol</li><li>INR&gt;6.5</li></ul>

287
Q

What is post partum depression?

A

<ul><li>Significant mood disorder that develops within 1 year post birth</li></ul>

288
Q

How is postpartum depression different to the baby blues?

A

Baby blues: Less than 2 weeks post birth, resolve spontaneously<br></br>Postpartum depression: significant mood disorder up to 1 year post birth

289
Q

Name some risk factors for developing postpartum depression

A

<ul><li>Deprivation</li><li>History of mental health disorders</li><li>Lack of support</li></ul>

290
Q

<b>Aetiology of postpartum depression:</b><br></br><ul><li>Biological: {{c1::hormonal fluctuations (lower progesterone, oesrogen etc, changes in melatonin, cortisol, immune and inflammatory processes}}<br></br></li><li>Psychological: {{c1::Stress mfrom transition to parenthood}}</li><li>Social: {{c1::lack of support, life stressors, low socioeconomic status}}</li></ul>

A
291
Q

What symptoms might a patient with postpartum depression present with?

A

<ul><li>Persistent low mood, anhedonia, low energy</li><li>Decreased appetitie, disturbed sleep patterns, insidious onset</li><li>Concerns about bonding with baby and caring for it</li><li>Potential thoughts of harm</li></ul>

292
Q

Name some differentials for postpartum depression

A

<ul><li>Baby blues</li><li>Postpartum psychosis</li><li>Adjustment disorders</li></ul>

293
Q

What investigations should be done to diagnose postpartum depression?

A

<ul><li>Edinburgh postnatal depression scale(EPDS)</li><li>Detailed psychiatric history, phhysical exam and rule out organic causes&nbsp;</li></ul>

294
Q

How is postpartum depression treated?

A

<ol><li>Self-help and psychological therapies(CBT and IPT(interpersonal))</li><li>Antidepressants(sertraline/paroxetine-safer for breastfeeding)</li><li>Admission to mother-baby mental health uni</li></ol>

295
Q

Which SSRI’s are safest for breastfeeding mothers?

A

<ul><li>Sertraline</li><li>Paroxetine</li></ul>

296
Q

What is the treatment for baby blues?

A

<ul><li>Reassurance and support</li><li>Regular health visits to check in on mum and baby</li></ul>

297
Q

What is post partum psychosis and when does it typically occur?

A

<ul><li>Serious psychiatric condition</li><li>Typically under 2 weeks post birth</li></ul>

298
Q

Name some risk factors for developing post partum psychosis

A

<ul><li>Prior history of psychosis</li><li>Family history</li></ul>

299
Q

Describe the aetiology of post-partum psychosis

A

Unknown, combination of:<br></br><ul><li>Genetic susceptibility</li><li>Hormonal changes post birth</li><li>Psychosocial stressors</li></ul><div>Increases risk if history of severe mental illness</div>

300
Q

How do patients with post-partum psychosis present?

A

<ul><li>Paranoia</li><li>Hallucinations</li><li>Manic epsiodes</li><li>Despressive episodes</li><li>Confusion</li><li>Delusions(especially capgras-baby replaced by imposter)</li></ul>

301
Q

What investigations should be done in a patient with post partum psychosis?

A

<ul><li>Clinical diagnosis</li><li>Rule out organic causes-&gt; sepsis, thyroid issues etc</li></ul>

302
Q

How is post partum psychosis managed?

A

<ul><li>Antipsychotics: olanzapine and quetiapine(safe for breastfeeding)</li><li>Mood stabilisers for some</li><li>High risk: referral to specialist mother and baby inpatient mental health unit</li></ul>

303
Q

When should a referral be made to a specialist mother and baby inpatient mental health unit in patients with post partum psychosis?

A

<ul><li>If high risk, especially if comman hallucinations and delusions about baby</li><li>Command-&gt;kill baby/not your baby, imposter etc</li></ul>

304
Q

What are eponymous syndromes?

A

<ul><li>Unique and rare manifestations of distorted thinking</li></ul>

305
Q

Capgras delusion?

A

<ul><li>Either oneself or another person has been replaced by an exact clone</li></ul>

306
Q

What causes capgras delusion?

A

<ul><li>Psychotic illness</li><li>Brain trauma</li></ul>

307
Q

What is Ekbom’s syndrome?

A

<ul><li>Patient feels infested with parasites-'crawling' inside skin</li></ul>

308
Q

What causes Ekbom’s syndrome?

A

<ul><li>Psychosis</li><li>B12 deficiency</li><li>Hypothyroidism</li><li>Neurological disorders</li></ul>

309
Q

What is cotard delusion?

A

<ul><li>Patient is dead, non-existing or rotten</li></ul>

310
Q

What causes cotard delusion?

A

<ul><li>Psychosis</li><li>Parietal lobe lesions</li></ul>

311
Q

What is othello syndrome?

A

Spouse/partner is unfaithful with little ot no proof

312
Q

What causes othello syndrome?

A

<ul><li>Alcohol mabuse</li><li>Psychosis</li><li>Frontal lobe damage</li></ul>

313
Q

What is freigoli syndrome?

A

<ul><li>Persecutory beliefs-&gt;strangers are persecutors in disguise</li></ul>

314
Q

What is folie a deux?

A

Delusions shared by 2 or more people<br></br><ul><li>One has psychosis, the other is submissive</li></ul>

315
Q

What is de clerembault’s syndrome?

A

<ul><li>Delusion of being the object of love</li><li>'erotomania'</li></ul>

316
Q

Name some psychiatric conditions that can cause delusions

A

<ul><li>Schizophrenia</li><li>Bipolar disorder</li><li>Psychotic depression</li></ul>

317
Q

What are the different classifications of delusions?

A

<ul><li>Bizarre-very unusual</li><li>Non-bizarre-plausible but not correct</li><li>Mood congruent</li><li>Mood neutral</li></ul>

318
Q

What is a nihilistic delusion?

A

<ul><li>Typicallyh congruent with depressed mood</li></ul>

<div>Believes they are dead, world is ending etc(cotard)</div>

319
Q

What are grandiose delusions?

A

<ul><li>Patient believes they possess ext5raordinary trais/power</li></ul>

320
Q

Whne are grandiose delusions most commonly seen?

A

Manic phase of bipolar disorder

321
Q

What are delusions of control?

A

<ul><li>External entity controlling thoughts/actions</li></ul>

322
Q

Whare are persecutory delsuions and when are they most commonly seen?

A

<ul><li>Patient feels conspired against</li><li>Schizophrenia-paranoid delusions</li></ul>

323
Q

What are somatic delusions?

A

Convinced they have a physical, medical, biological problem despite no medical evidence

324
Q

What are delusional perceptions?

A

<ul><li>Delusions from an a real perception</li></ul>

<div>Like seeing a certain flower means aliens are landing</div>

325
Q

What are delusions of reference?

A

<ul><li>Things that are mundane (like words in a newspaper) mean something special to the patient</li></ul>

326
Q

Give some differentials for delusions

A

<ul><li>Mood disorders with psychotic features</li><li>Neurocognitive disorders-&gt;Alzheimer's/Parkinson's</li><li>Substance induced psychosis</li></ul>

327
Q

How are delusions managed?

A

<ul><li>Pharmacological-&gt;antipsychotics(treat underlying disorder)</li><li>Psychotherapy-&gt; CBT to challenge irrational beliefs</li><li>Psychoeducation</li></ul>

328
Q

What is schizophrenia?

A

<ul><li>Chronic or relapsing/remitting form of psychosis</li></ul>

329
Q

What is the DSM 5 criteria for a schizophrenia diagnosis?

A

<ul><li>Symptoms for at least 6 months</li><li>At least 1 month of 'active phase' symptoms(1 'ABCD' symptom)</li></ul>

330
Q

What are the different subtypes of schizophrenia?

A

<ol><li>Paranoid</li><li>Catatonic</li><li>Hebephrenic</li><li>Residual</li><li>Simple</li></ol>

331
Q

Describe the features of paranoid schizophrenia?

A

<ul><li>Delusions and hallucinations, often with a persecutory theme</li></ul>

332
Q

Describe the features of catatonic schizophrenia

A

<ul><li>Motor disturbances and way felxibility</li></ul>

333
Q

Describe the features of hebephrenic schizophrenia

A

<ul><li>Disorganised thinking, emotions and bheaviour</li></ul>

334
Q

Describe the features of residual schizophrenia

A

<ul><li>Symptoms persist after a major episode</li></ul>

335
Q

Describe the features of simple schizophrenia

A

<ul><li>Gradual decline in functioning without prominent positive symptoms</li></ul>

336
Q

Describe the aetiology of schizophrenia

A

<ul><li>Huge genetic component</li><li>Environmental</li></ul>

337
Q

Name some environemntal risk factors for developing schizophrenia

A

<ul><li>Childhood trauma/birth trauma</li><li>Urban living and immigration to more developed countries</li><li>Heavy cannabis use in childhood</li></ul>

338
Q

What are the positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

ABCD<br></br><ul><li>Auditory hallucinations(3rd person auditory)</li><li>Thought Broadcasting</li><li>Control issues</li><li>Delusional perceptions</li></ul>

339
Q

What are the negative sympotms of schizophrenia?

A

<ul><li>Alogia</li><li>Anhedonia</li><li>Affective incongruity/blunting</li><li>Avolition</li></ul>

340
Q

What are some risk indicators in patients with schizophrenia?

A

<ul><li>Harm to self/others</li><li>Command hallucinations</li><li>Hisotyr of self harm or suicidal ideation</li><li>Fixation on specific individuals</li></ul>

341
Q

What investigations might be done when making a schizophrenia diagnosis?

A

<ul><li>Brain imaging</li><li>Drug screening</li><li>Test to exclude infection(HIV, syphilis) or metabolic (thyroid) causes</li></ul>

342
Q

Name some differentials for schizophrenia

A

<ul><li>Substance induced psychotic disorder</li><li>Organic psychosis-&gt; infection,l brain injurhy, Wilson's, encephalitis</li><li>Depression and dementia</li><li>Schizoaffective disorder(mood episodes independent of psychosis)</li></ul>

343
Q

Describe the acute management of schizophrenia

A

Sedatives: to manage dangerous behaviour<br></br><ul><li>Lorazepam</li><li>Haloperidol</li><li>Promethazine</li></ul><div>IM/oral atyhpical antipsychotics:</div><div><ul><li>Risperidone</li><li>Olanzapine</li></ul></div><div><br></br></div>

344
Q

Describe the long term management of schizophrenia

A

<ul><li>Psychiatric referral and psychotherapy</li><li>Maintainence therapy with atypical antipsychotics(risperidone, olanzapine)</li><li>Treatment resistant: clozapine</li></ul>

345
Q

How many antipsychotics need to be trialled to consider schizphrenia treatment resistant?

A

<ul><li>At least 2&nbsp;</li></ul>

346
Q

Describe the prognosis of schizophrenia?

A

Rule of quarter:<br></br><ul><li>25% never have another episode</li><li>25% improve significantly with treatment</li><li>25% show some improvement</li><li>25% are resistant to treatment</li></ul>

347
Q

Name some factors associated with a good prognosis in patients with schizophrenia

A

<ul><li>High IQ/high education</li><li>Sudden onset</li><li>Precipitating factor</li><li>Strong support network</li><li>Mostly positive symptoms</li></ul>

348
Q

What are the features of mania/hypomania?

A

<ul><li>High mood</li><li>Increased irritability</li><li>Excessive energy</li><li>Little sleep</li></ul>

349
Q

How is hypomania different to mania?

A

<ul><li>Hypomania;&nbsp; &gt;=4 days, no psychotic symptoms, limited impairment&nbsp;</li><li>Main: &gt;=7 days, severe functional impairment and presence of psychosis</li></ul>

350
Q

What criteria is needed for a diagnosis of bipolar affective disorder?

A

<ul><li>&gt;=2 episodes</li><li>Including one episode of mania/hypomania</li></ul>

351
Q

What are the different type of BPAD?

A

<ul><li>Type 1 and type 2</li></ul>

352
Q

What is the criteria for BPAD type 1?

A

>=1 depressive episode and >=1 manic episode

353
Q

What is the criteria for BPAD type 2?

A

Recurrent major depressive episodes and hypomania

354
Q

How long does a depressive episode need to last for it to count towards a bipolar diagnosis?

A

At least 2 weeks

355
Q

<b>Presentation of patients with BPAD:</b><br></br><ul><li>Depressive: {{c1::low mood, wothlessness, low energy, suicidal ideation}}<br></br></li><li>Manic: {{c2::high mood, inflated self esteem, little sleep, psychosis, impulsivity, rapid speech}}</li><li>Others; {{c3::risk taking behaviours-violence, money spending, sexual disinhibition}}</li></ul>

A
356
Q

Name some differentials for BPAD

A

<ul><li>Major depressive disorder(no mania/hypomania)</li><li>Cyclothymic disorder</li><li>Schizoaffective disorder</li></ul>

357
Q

What is cyclothymic disorder?

A

Mood fluctuations over 2 years

358
Q

When are patients with suspected BPAD refffered to CMHT?

A

<ul><li>Hypomania: routine CMHT referral</li><li>Mania/depression: urgent CMHT referral</li></ul>

359
Q

Describe the management of new/acute BPAD in a patient presenting with mania/hypomania

A

<ul><li>Stop SSRI</li><li>Mania+agitation: IM benzo/neuroleptic</li><li>Main: oral antipsychotics(haloperidol, olanzapine</li><li>2nd line: different antipsychotic</li><li>3rd: Lithium</li><li>4th: ECT</li></ul>

360
Q

Describe the management of new/acute BPAD in a patient presenting with depression

A

<ul><li>Mood stabiliser</li><li>Consider SSRI/atypical antipsychotic</li></ul>

361
Q

When is BPAD considered chronic and maintainence therapy started?

A

<ul><li>4 weeks post resolution of acute episode</li></ul>

362
Q

How is chronic BPAD managed?

A

<ul><li>Maintainence therapy: mood stabilisers-lithium</li><li>High intensity psychological therapy(CBGT, interpersonal therapy)</li></ul>

363
Q

What are the broad features of class a personality disorders

A

<ul><li>Odd/eccentric cluster</li></ul>

364
Q

What age do you need to be to be diagnosed with a personality disorder?

A

At leasy 18 years

365
Q

What are the Class A personality disorders?

A

<ol><li>Paranoid personality disorder</li><li>Schizoid personality disorder</li><li>Schizotypal personality disorder</li></ol>

366
Q

What are the features of paranoid personality disorder?

A

<ul><li>Pervasive and enduring irrational suspicion and mistrust of others</li><li>Hypersensitivity to criticism</li><li>Reluctance to confide in others for fear of it being used against them</li><li>Often preoccupied with unfounded beliefs about conspiracies against them</li></ul>

367
Q

What are the features of schizoid personality disorder?

A

<ul><li>Detachemnt of social relationships, lack of interest/desire for interpersonal relationships</li><li>Prefer solitary activites</li><li>Few, if any close relationships outside of immediate family</li><li>Emotional coldness, detachment, flattened affect</li></ul>

368
Q

What are the features of schizotypal personality disorder?

A

<ul><li>Impaired social interacitons, distorted cognitions and perceptions</li><li>Inappropriate/constricted afdect, eccentric behaviour</li><li>Odd thinking and speech, magical thinking, peculiar ideas</li><li>Paranoid ideation and belief in influence of external forces</li></ul>

369
Q

How is schizotypal personality disorder different to schizophrenia?

A

<ul><li>Both have cognitive/perceptual distortions&nbsp;</li><li>Schizotypal personality disorder patients have a better grasp on reality</li></ul>

370
Q

How are class A personality disorders managed?

A

<ul><li>Psychotherapy like CBT</li><li>Medication mangement for associated symptoms</li></ul>

371
Q

What are the broad features of class B personality disorders?

A

Dramatic/emotional/impulsive cluster

372
Q

What are the disorders included in the clas B personality disorder cluster?

A

<ol><li>Antisocial personality disorder</li><li>Borderline personality disorder/EUPD</li><li>Histrionic personality disorder</li><li>Narcissistic personality disorder</li></ol>

373
Q

What are the features of antisocial personality deisorder?

A

<ul><li>Disregard for and violation of the rights of others</li><li>Exhibit a lack of empathy, engage in manipulative and umpulsive actions</li><li>Unremorseful behaviour</li><li>Failure to obey social norms and laws</li></ul>

374
Q

What condition in childhood increases the risk of developing antisocial personality disorder in adulthood, and how can this risk be diminished?

A

<ul><li>Conduct disorder</li><li>CBT treatment</li></ul>

375
Q

What are the features of BPD/EUPD?

A

<ul><li>Abrupt mood swings, unstable relationships, poor self esteem</li><li>Inability to contro. temper and manage responses effectively</li><li>History of trauma and higher propensity for self harm</li><li>Splitting-relationships idealised or devalued</li></ul>

376
Q

How is BPD managed?

A

Dialectical behavioural therapy (DBT)

377
Q

Describe the features of histrionic personality disorder

A

<ul><li>Attention seeking behaviours and increased displays of emotion</li><li>Many display innapropriate sexual bhevaiours</li><li>Shallow, dramatic and exaggerated emotional expressions</li><li>Distorted perception of interpersonal boundaries</li></ul>

378
Q

Describe the features of narcissistic personality disorder

A

<ul><li>Persistent pattern on grandiosity, lack of empathy and need for admiration from others</li><li>Sense of entitlement-&gt; exploit other to fulfil own desires</li><li>Arrogant and preoccupied with eprsonal fantasies and desires, even at the cost of others' feelings and needs</li></ul>

379
Q

What are the broad features of class C personality disorders

A

<ul><li>Anxious/fearful cluster</li></ul>

380
Q

What personality disorders are included in class C personality disorders?

A

<ol><li>Avoidant personality disorder</li><li>Dependent personality disorder</li><li>Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder</li></ol>

381
Q

Describe the features of avoidant personality disorder

A

<ul><li>Intense feelings of social inadequacy, fear of rejection and increased sensitivity to criticism</li><li>Patients often self impose isolation to avoid strong potential criticism, depsite strong desire for social acceptance and interaction</li></ul>

382
Q

Describe the features of dependent personality disorder

A

<ul><li>Pervasive and excessive need ot be taken care of, leading to submissive and clingy bhevaiour</li><li>Often lack self-confidence and initiative, relying excessively on others for deciison making</li><li>Patients may seek new relationships as a source of care and support when existing ones end</li></ul>

383
Q

Descirbe the features of obssessive compulsive personality disorder

A

<ul><li>Excessive preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism and control</li><li>Strict adherence to tasks and perfectionism</li><li>Reluctance to delegate</li></ul>

384
Q

How is obsessive compulsive personality disorder different to OCD?

A

<ul><li>Obsessive compulsive personality disorder has no recurrent intrusive thoughts or rituals</li><li>Ego-syntonic-patient perceives their symptoms as rational unlike OCD</li></ul>

385
Q

What are medically unexplained symptoms?

A

<ul><li>Persistent bodily complaints for which adequate investigations don't reveal sufficient explanatory pathology</li></ul>

386
Q

What are the features of somatoform disorder

A

<ul><li>Unconscious process</li><li>Common presentations: GI sx, fatigue, weakness, MSK symptoms</li><li>Can lead to loos of function</li></ul>

387
Q

Describe the features of conversion disorder

A

<ul><li>Neurological symptoms without an underlying neurological cause</li><li>Commonly: paralysis, pseudoseizures, sensory changes</li><li>Linked to emotional stress</li><li>Unconscious process</li></ul>

388
Q

Describe the features of hypochondriasis

A

<ul><li>Excessive concern they will develop&nbsp; a serious illness depsite a lack of evidence</li><li>Typically have no/very few symptoms</li><li>Patients tend to demand lots of investigations which further anxiety</li></ul>

389
Q

Describe the features of Munchausen’s syndorme

A

<ul><li>Fictitious disorder where patients intentionally fake symptoms to gain attention and play a patient role&nbsp;</li><li>No insight into motivation</li></ul>

390
Q

WHat is malingering?

A

<ul><li>Patients intentionally fake/induce illness for a secondary gain</li><li>Secondary gain: drug seeking, benefits, avoiding prison/work</li></ul>

391
Q

How are medically unexplained symptoms managed?

A

<ul><li>Screen for underlying health problems</li><li>Psychological support and therapied like CBT</li></ul>

392
Q

What is delirium?

A

<ul><li>Acute confusional state, mostly in the elderly, usually reversible</li></ul>

393
Q

What are the general symptoms of delirium?

A

<ul><li>Fluctuating attention and cognition</li><li>Change in consciousness</li></ul>

394
Q

What are the different types of delirium?

A

Hyperactive<br></br>Hypoactive<br></br>Mixed

395
Q

What are the features of hyperactive delirium?

A

<ul><li>Increased psychomotor activity</li><li>Restlessness</li><li>Hallucinations</li></ul>

396
Q

WHta are the symptoms of hypoactive delirium?

A

<ul><li>Lethargy</li><li>Decreased responsiveness</li><li>Withdrawal</li></ul>

397
Q

Describe the aetiology of delirium?

A

DELIRIUM<br></br><ul><li>Drugs and alcohol</li><li>Eyes, ears and emotional disturbances</li><li>Low output state(MIR, ARDS, PE, CHF, COPD)</li><li>Infection</li><li>Retention(of stool/urine)</li><li>Ictal(related to seizure activity)</li><li>Under hydration/malnutrition</li><li>Metabolic disorders (Wilson’s, thyroid, electrolyte imbalances)</li><li>Subdural haematoma, sleep deprivation</li></ul>

398
Q

Give some examples of metabolic disorders that can cause delirium

A

<ul><li>Wilson's</li><li>Thyroid problems</li><li>Electrolyte imbalances</li></ul>

399
Q

Give some examples of drug classess that can cause delirium

A

<ul><li>Anti-cholinergics</li><li>Anti-convulsants</li></ul>

400
Q

Describe the typical presentation of a patient with delirium?

A

<ul><li>Disorientation</li><li>Hallucinations(visual or auditory)</li><li>Inattention</li><li>Memory problems</li><li>Change in mood or personality</li><li>Sundowning</li><li>Disturbed sleep&nbsp;</li></ul>

401
Q

What is sundowning?

A

<ul><li>Increased agitation/confusion later on in the day</li></ul>

402
Q

What are some differentials for delirium?

A

<ul><li>Dementia: gradual onset and stable consciousness level</li><li>Psychosis: Usually preserved orientation and memory</li><li>Depression: stable consciousness, pervasive low mood</li><li>Stroke: focal neurological signs</li></ul>

403
Q

What investigations should be done for a patient to diagnose delirium?

A

<ul><li>Tools: 4AT, CAM for delirium assessment</li><li>Comprehensive physical exam and infection screen</li><li>Bedside: bladder scan, medication review, ECG, urine MC&amp;S</li><li>Bloods: FBC, U&amp;Es, LFTs, TFTs, cultures</li><li>Imaging: abdo US, CXR</li><li>CT/MRI if no identifiable cause found</li></ul>

404
Q

How is delirium managed?

A

Treat underlying cause<br></br>Non pharamcological strategies:<br></br><ul><li>Environment with good lighting</li><li>Maintaining a regular sleep-wake cycle</li><li>Regular orientation and reassurance</li><li>Ensuring glassess and hearing aids are used</li></ul><div>If very agitated, low dose lorazepam/haloperidol</div>

405
Q

What is dementia?

A

<ul><li>Syndorme of chronic/progressive nature which involves the impairment of multiple higher cortical functions</li></ul>

406
Q

What quesitonnaire can be useful for assessing dementia?

A

Mini mental state exam(MMSE)

407
Q

MMSE results dementia:<br></br><24/30: {{c1::dementia}}<br></br>20-24: {{c2::mild<br></br>}}13-20: {{c3::moderate}}<br></br><12: {{c4::severe}}

A
408
Q

How can demential be classified?

A

<ol><li>Primary</li><li>Secindary(caused by something else)</li></ol>

409
Q

Name some primary causes of dementia

A

<ul><li>Alzheimer's</li><li>Fronto-temporal</li><li>Lewy body</li><li>Parkinson's</li><li>Huntington's</li><li>Vascular</li></ul>

410
Q

Name some secondary causes of dementia

A

<ul><li>Infection</li><li>Trauma</li><li>Post-ictal</li><li>Toxic</li><li>Autoimmune</li><li>Metabolic</li><li>Neoplastic</li><li>Congential</li><li>Endocirne</li><li>Functional</li></ul>

411
Q

How do patients with dementia present

A

<ul><li>Memory loss</li><li>Language problems</li><li>Disorientation</li><li>Difficulty with ADL's</li><li>Poor judgement</li><li>Mood/behaviour/personality changes</li><li>Withdrawal from society</li><li>Decrease in consciousness</li></ul>

412
Q

What investigations should be done in a patient with suspected dementia?

A

<ul><li>Functional history(including collateral and risk assessment)</li><li>Cognitive assessments: MMSE, MOCA, IO-CS, MIS, TYM</li><li>Brain imaging: CT/MRI</li><li>Bloods=confusion screen</li></ul>

413
Q

What bloods are including in the ‘confusion screen’?

A

<ul><li>FBC</li><li>U&amp;Es</li><li>LFTs</li><li>CRP/ESR</li><li>Calcium</li><li>TFTs</li><li>B12 and folate</li><li>Syphilis and HIV screen</li></ul>

414
Q

Describe the general management of dementia

A

HOWSAFE<br></br>HOme safety<br></br>Wandering<br></br>Self-neglect<br></br>Abuse<br></br>Falls<br></br>Eating<br></br><br></br><ul><li>Lifestyle-encourage activity</li><li>Social-include OT assessment</li><li>Psychological-group stimulation therapy</li><li>Pharmacological</li></ul>

415
Q

What is the most common cause of dementia?

A

Alzheimer’s disease

416
Q

Descirbe the pathophysiology of alzheimer’s disease

A

<ul><li>Build up of amyloid plaques and neurofibrially tangles within the brain</li></ul>

417
Q

Name one risk factor for Alzheimer’s disease

A

Down’s syndrome

418
Q

Describe the features of alzheimer’s disease

A

4A’s:<br></br>Amnesia (most recent memories lost first)<br></br>Aphasia (word finding problems, muddled speech)<br></br>Agnosia (recognition problem)<br></br>Apraxia (inability to carry out skilled tasks despite intact motor)

419
Q

What is the treatment for dementia?

A

<ul><li>Mild-moderate: cholinesterase inhibitors(rivastigmine, galantamine, donezepil)</li><li>Severe: NMDA inhibitor: memantine</li></ul>

420
Q

What is the 2nd most common cause of dementia?

A

<ul><li>Vascualr dementia</li></ul>

421
Q

Descirbe the pathophysiology of vascular dementia

A

<ul><li>Impaired blood flow to areas of the brain due to vascular damage</li></ul>

422
Q

What is the key symptoms of vascualr dementia?

A

<ul><li>'Step-wise' cognitive decline due to progressive infarcts</li></ul>

423
Q

How is vascular dementia diagnosed?

A

<ul><li>Clinical</li><li>Neuro-imaging can show evidence of significant small vessel disease</li></ul>

424
Q

How is vascular dementia treated?

A

<ul><li>Manage underlying vascular risk factors, e.g. statins</li></ul>

425
Q

What is the 3rd most common cause of ementia?

A

Lewy body dementia

426
Q

Describe the aetiology of lewy body dementia

A

<ul><li>Lewy bodies(alpha synuclein) deposits in cells as inclusions</li></ul>

427
Q

What are the key symptoms of lewy body dementia

A

<ul><li>Cogniitive decline and Parkinsonism(rigidity, tremor, bradykinesia)</li><li>Associated with liliputian hallucinations</li></ul>

428
Q

Desribe the timing of symptom onset in patients with lewy body dementia

A

<ul><li>Dementia, then movement problems both begin within a year of each other&nbsp;</li></ul>

429
Q

Why does dementia present before parkinsonisn in lewy body dementia?

A

<ul><li>Inclusions affect paralimbic and neocortical areas first, then progress to the substantia nigra</li></ul>

430
Q

How can lewy body dementia be distinguished from dementia due to parkinson’s?

A

<div>Lewy body: dementia first and parkinsonism begin within a year of each other</div>

<div>Parkinson's: Parkisonism first then dementia, develops a year apart</div>

431
Q

Which medications might be used to treat lewy body dementia?

A

<ul><li>Rivastigmine</li><li>Neuroleptics(haloperidol) can help with hallucinations but worsen rigidity</li><li>Dopaminergics(amantadine) help rigidity but worsen hallucinations</li></ul>

432
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of fronto-temporal dementia

A

<ul><li>Atrophy of frontal and temporal lobes&nbsp;</li></ul>

433
Q

What are the key symptoms of fronto-temporal dementia?

A

<ul><li>Behavioural changes</li><li>Disinhibition</li><li>Cognitive impairment</li></ul>

434
Q

What age is fronto temporal dementia usually diagnosed?

A

Age 45-65<br></br>Most other types of demenita affect those >65 years

435
Q

<b>Fronto-temporal dementia subtypes:</b><br></br><br></br>Behavioural variant(60%): loss of social skills, personal conduct awareness, disinhibition and repetitive behaviour<br></br><br></br>Semantic dementia(20%): Inability to remember words for things<br></br><br></br>Progressive non-fluent aphasia(20%): patients can’t verbalise. Genetic tests<br></br><br></br>Pick’s disease: diagnosed post portem

A
436
Q

What is Pick’s disease?

A

Type of fronto temporal dementia where tau proteins that damage frontal and temporal lobes<br></br>Diagnosed post mortem

437
Q

How is fronto temporal dementia diagnosed?

A

<ul><li>SPECT imaging: decreased metabolic function in frontal lobe</li><li>MRI: increased T2 signal in frontal lobe</li></ul>

438
Q

What is anorexia nervosa?

A

<ul><li>Self imposed starvation and relentless pursuit if extreme thinnes</li><li>Distorted body image</li></ul>

439
Q

What are the subtypes of anorexia nervosa?

A

<ul><li>Restrictive: minimal food intake and excessive exercise</li><li>Bulimic: Episodic binge eating then behaviours like induce vomiting/laxative use</li></ul>

440
Q

What is the criteria for an anorexia nervosa diagnosis?

A

<ul><li>Restrictive energy/food intake</li><li>Distorted body image</li><li>Intense fear of gaining weight</li></ul>

<div>ICD-11 ONLY: low BMI</div>

441
Q

Describe the epidemiology of anorexia nervosa

A

<ul><li>Mostly adolescents and young adults</li><li>F&gt;M</li><li>Associated with other psychiatric disorders</li></ul>

442
Q

How is anorexia nervosa diagnosed?

A

<ul><li>Full physical exam and history(including collateral)</li><li>Bloods</li></ul>

443
Q

What bloods might be different in patients with anorexia nervosa?

A

<ul><li>Deranged electrolyes: low calcium, magnesium, postassium and phosphate</li><li>Low FSH, LH oestrogen and testosterone</li><li>Leukopenia</li><li>Increased GH, and cortisol</li><li>High cholesterol</li><li>Metabolic alkalossi</li></ul>

444
Q

What might you see when taking a history of a patient with anorexia nervosa?

A

<ul><li>Preoccupation with food and calories</li><li>Starvation via restricting intake, purgking or excessive exercise</li><li>Poor insight, calories in mind regardless of physical health</li></ul>

445
Q

What might you seen on a physical exam in a patient with anorexia nervosa?

A

<ul><li>BMI &lt;17.5kg/m2</li><li>Hypotension</li><li>Bradycardia</li><li>Enlarged salivary glands</li><li>Lanugo hair</li><li>Amenorrhoea</li><li>Pitted teeth</li><li>Parotid swelling</li><li>Russel's sign</li><li>Failed SUSS test</li></ul>

446
Q

What is Russel’s sign?

A

<ul><li>Lesions on hand from inducing vomiting</li></ul>

447
Q

How might an examination of someone with anorexia nervosa be different to one with bulimia nervosa?

A

<ul><li>Anorexia: BMI&lt;17.5kg/m2</li><li>Bulimia: might have normal BMI</li></ul>

448
Q

Describe the management of anorexia nervosa?

A

<ul><li>CBT-ED</li><li>SSCM</li><li>MANTRA(maudsley model of AN treatment for adults</li><li>Family therapy if underage</li><li>Admission under MHA ofr structured re-feeding</li><li>MARSIPAN checklist</li></ul>

449
Q

What symptoms might promt inpatient treatment when it comes to anorexia nervosa?

A

<ul><li>Severe/rapid weight loss</li><li>Suicide risk</li><li>Failed SUSS test</li></ul>

450
Q

What is the SUSS test anorexia?

A

<ul><li>Sit up squat stand test</li><li>Assesses proximal muscle weakness which might hint at respiratory muscle weakness</li></ul>

451
Q

Name some complications of anorexia 

A

<ul><li>Re-feeding syndrome</li><li>Arrhythmias</li><li>Osteoporosis</li></ul>

452
Q

What arrhythmias might you see as a result of anorexia nervosa?

A

<ul><li>Bradycardia</li><li>Prolonged QTc</li></ul>

453
Q

What is refeeding syndrome?

A

Rapid increase in insulin shifts potassium, magnesium and phosphate into cells leading to oedema, tachycradia and confusion

454
Q

How can re-feeding syndrome be prevented?

A

<ul><li>Pabrinex</li><li>Pre-feeding</li><li>Monitor and replensih electrolyed</li><li>Build caloric intake gradually</li></ul>