Selected Notes obgyn 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What group is urinary incontinence most common in?

A

Elederly females

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2
Q

Name some risk factors for developing urinary incontinence

A

Advancing age<br></br>Previous pregnancy/childbirth<br></br>High BMI<br></br>Hysterectomy<br></br>Family history

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3
Q

Name the reversible causes of urinary incontinence

A

DIAPPERS<br></br>D-delirium<br></br>I-Infection<br></br>A-atrophic vaginitis or urethritis<br></br>P-Pharmaceuticals-meds)<br></br>P-Psychiatric disorders<br></br>E-Endocrine disorders-diabetes etc<br></br>R-Restricted mobility<br></br>S-Stool impaction

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4
Q

What causes urge incontinence?

A

Detrusor overactivity

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5
Q

What is functional incontinence?

A

Comorbid physical conditions impair the patient’s ability to get to a bathroom in time<br></br>Causes: dementia, medications, injury/illness causing impaired mobility

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6
Q

What is a cystometry?

A

Investigation to measure bladder pressure whilst voiding

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7
Q

What is a cystogram?

A

Contrast instilled into the bladder and a radiological image is obtained to see if the contrast travels anywhere else 

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8
Q

In the surgical management of stress incontinence, {{c1::colposuspension and fascial slings}} involve <span>s</span>{{c2::uspending the anterior vaginal wall}} <span>to the </span>{{c3::iliopectineal ligament of Cooper}}

A
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9
Q

What are the surgical management options for treating urge incontinence?

A

Bladder instillation->botox injection to paralyse detrusor muscle<br></br>Sacral neuromodulation->only int mtertiary centres where all other treatments have failed

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10
Q

What causes overflow incontinence?

A

Either:<br></br>1. Underactivity of the detrusor muscle e.g. from neurological damage OR<br></br>2. Urinary outlet pressures are too high e.g. constipation or prostatism

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11
Q

What is a genital or pelvic organ prolapse?

A

Descent of one or more pelvic structures from their normal anatomical position moving towards or through the vaginal opening

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12
Q

Name some risk factors for developing a genital prolapse

A

-Vaginal childbirth, especially with traumatic or complicated deliveries<br></br>-Increasing age<br></br>-Menopause<br></br>-Hysterectomy<br></br>-Obesity<br></br>-Chronic cough<br></br>-Heavy lifting<br></br>-Connective tissue disorders<br></br>-Spina bifida

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13
Q

What are the types of anterior vaginal wall prolapse?

A

Cystocele-bladder<br></br>Urethrocele-urethra<br></br>Cystourethrocele-both bladder and urethra

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14
Q

What is a cystocele? What condition can it lead to?

A

<ul><li>Bladder prolapse</li></ul>

Sterss incontinence<br></br>

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15
Q

Name the posterior wall prolapses

A

Enterocele-small intestine<br></br>Rectocele-rectum

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16
Q

Name the atypical vaginal wall prolapses?

A

Uterine prolapse-uterus<br></br>Vaginal vault prolapse-roof of the vagina

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17
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for a uterogential prolapse?

A

<ul><li>Gynecologic malignancy: associated with abnormal vaginal bleeding, weight loss, and pelvic pain</li><li>Cervicitis: characterized by vaginal discharge, bleeding, and pelvic pain</li><li>Urethral diverticulum: presents with dysuria, recurrent UTIs, and a palpable anterior vaginal mass</li></ul>

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18
Q

Name some investigations to diagnose a genital prolapse

A

-Pelvic exam<br></br>Imaging if compolx or required for surgical planning<br></br>Urodynamic studies if co-existing urinary symptoms

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19
Q

What is a vaginal fistula?

A

Unusual opening that connects your vagina to another organ<br></br>Can link vagina to bladder, ureters, urethra, rectum, intestines

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20
Q

Name some of the causes of a vaginal fistula?

A

Childbirth<br></br>Abdominal surgery<br></br>Pelvic, cervical or colon cancer<br></br>Radiation teatment<br></br>Bowel disease-Crohn’s or diverticulitis<br></br>Infection

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21
Q

Name some complications of a vaginal fistula

A

Vaginal/urinary tract infections that keep returning<br></br>Stool or gas that leaks through the vagina<br></br>Irritated/swollen skin around vagina/anus<br></br>Abscesses<br></br>

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22
Q

What are fibroids?

A

Benign smooth muscle tumours <span>originating from the myometrium of the uterus.</span>

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23
Q

Uterine fibroids develop in response to {{c1::oestrogen}}. The incidence increases with age until {{c1::menopause}}

A
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24
Q

In which group of people are uterine fibroids most common?

A

More common in Afro-Caribbean women

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25
Q

The growth of fiborids is promoted by {{c1::oestrogen and progesterone.}} Fibroids contain more oestrogen and progesterone than {{c1::normal uterine muscle cells}}

A
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26
Q

Name some symptoms of uterine fibroids

A

-Asymptomatic<br></br>-Menorrhagia and dysmenorrhoea-.can cause iron deficiency anaemia<br></br>-Bloating<br></br>-Lower abdominal pain, cramps<br></br>-Urinary symptoms<br></br>-Subfertility<br></br>Rare: polycythaemia

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27
Q

Name some differential diagnoses for uterine fibroids

A

<ul><li>Endometrial polyps: Present with irregular menstrual bleeding and spotting</li><li>Endometriosis: Characterized by dysmenorrhoea, deep dyspareunia, chronic pelvic pain, and infertility</li></ul>

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28
Q

Name some complications of uterine fibroids

A

-Subfertility<br></br>-Iron deficiency anaemia<br></br>-Red degeneration-> haemorrhage into tumour-> commonly occurs during pregnancy

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29
Q

What are the types of uterine fibroids?

A
  1. Intramural<br></br>2. Subserosal<br></br>3. Submucosal<br></br>4. Pedunculated
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30
Q

Intramural fibroids grow {{c1::within the myometrium}}. As they grow they {{c1::distort the uterus}}

A
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31
Q

Subserosal fibroids develop {{c1::just below the outer layer}} of the uterus. They grow outwards and can become very large filling the {{c1::abdominal cavity}}

A
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32
Q

023196576665434d969a9a2ddb7f6c1b-oa-1

A

Types of fibroids

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33
Q

023196576665434d969a9a2ddb7f6c1b-oa-2

A

Types of fibroids

<img></img>

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34
Q

023196576665434d969a9a2ddb7f6c1b-oa-3

A

Types of fibroids

<img></img>

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35
Q

023196576665434d969a9a2ddb7f6c1b-oa-4

A

Types of fibroids

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36
Q

Red degeneration of fibroids refers to i{{c1::schaemia, infarction and necrosis}} of the fibroid due to disrupted blood supply. It is more likely to occur in larger fibroids during the {{c1::2nd and 3rd}} trimester of pergnancy. It may occur as the {{c1::fibroid rapidly enlarges during pregnancy,}} outrgrowing its blood supply and becoming ischamic or due to{{c1:: <span>kinking in the blood vessels</span>}}<span> as the uterus changes shape and expands during pregnancy.</span>

A
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37
Q

What is an ovarian cyst?

A

Fluid filled <span>sac that develops within or on the surface of an ovary.</span>

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38
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for ovarian cysts?

A

<ul><li>Ovarian torsion: Characterised by sudden, severe pain, often accompanied by nausea and vomiting.</li><li>Ectopic pregnancy: Symptoms include abdominal pain, amenorrhea, and vaginal bleeding.</li><li>Appendicitis: Presents with abdominal pain that begins near the navel and then moves lower and to the right, loss of appetite, nausea, and vomiting.</li></ul>

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39
Q

What investigations are done into a suspected ovarian cyst?

A

Pregnancy test to exclude ectopic<br></br>Diagnostgic laparoscopy-> especially if haemodynamically unstable<br></br>Ultrasound<br></br>Bloods: <br></br><ul><li>Ca125: tumour marker for ovarian cancer</li><li>LDH, aFP, HCG to assess for germ cfell tumour</li></ul>

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40
Q

What are the main possible complications of an ovarian cyst?

A

<ul><li>Torsion</li><li>Haemorrhage into the cyst</li><li>Rupture with bleeding into the peritoneum</li></ul>

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41
Q

What are the types of physiological/functional cysts?

A

<ol><li>Follicular cysts</li><li>Corpus luteum cysts</li></ol>

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42
Q

Serous cystadenoma are {{c1::benign}} tumours of the {{c1::epithelial cells}}

A
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43
Q

Mucinour cystadenomas mare also {{c1::benign tumours of the epithelial cells}} but these can {{c1::become huge,}} <span>taking up lots of space in the pelvis and abdomen.</span>

A
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44
Q

Sex cord stromal tumours are<span> rare tumours, that can be </span>{{c1::benign or malignant.}}<span> They arise from the </span>{{c1::stroma (connective tissue)}}<span> or </span>{{c2::sex cords (embryonic structures associated with the follicles).}}<span> There are several types, including </span>{{c2::Sertoli–Leydig cell tumours and granulosa cell tumours}}<span>.</span>

A
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45
Q

Name some risk factors for ovarian malignancy

A

<ul><li>Age</li><li>Postmenopause</li><li>Increased number of ovulations</li><li>Obesity</li><li>Hormone replacement therapy</li><li>Smoking</li><li>Breastfeeding (protective)</li><li>Family history and BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes</li></ul>

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46
Q

Name some protective factors for ovarian cancer

A

<ul><li>Anything that will reduce the number of ovulations:</li><li>Later onset of periods (menarche)</li><li>Early menopause</li><li>Any pregnancies</li><li>Use of the combined contraceptive pill</li></ul>

<div>&nbsp;</div>

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47
Q

Name some non-malignant causes of a raiserd CA125

A

<ul><li>Endometriosis</li><li>Fibroids</li><li>Adenomyosis</li><li>Pelvic infection</li><li>Liver disease</li><li>Pregnancy</li></ul>

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48
Q

In women under 40 with a complex ovarian mass what tests should be done?

A

Tumour markers for a possibole germ cell tumour:<br></br><ul><li><b><i>Lactate dehydrogenase</i></b> (<b><i>LDH</i></b>)</li><li><b><i>Alpha-fetoprotein</i></b> (<b><i>α-FP</i></b>)</li><li><b><i>Human chorionic gonadotropin</i></b> (<b><i>HCG</i></b>)</li></ul>

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49
Q

Ovarian torsion is usually due to an {{c1::ovarian mass}} larger than {{c1::5cm.}} It is more likely to occur with {{c1::benign t}}umours. Also more likely to occur during {{c1::pregnancy}}

A
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50
Q

Name some risk factors for developing ovarian torsion?

A

Ovarian mass<br></br>Being of reproductive age<br></br>Pregnancy<br></br>Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

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51
Q

Name some complications of an ovarian torsion

A

Fertility not typically affected as other ovary can compensate<br></br>If only functioning ovary removed-> infertility and menopause<br></br><br></br>If necrotic ovary not removed:<br></br><ul><li>Infection</li><li>Abscess</li><li>Sepsis</li></ul><div>If it ruptures-> peritonitis and adhesions</div>

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52
Q

What is lichen sclerosus?

A

Inflammatory dermatological condition

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53
Q

What is Koebner phenomenon?

A

When the signs and symptoms worsen with friction to the skin

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54
Q

Name a few things that cane make lichen sclerosus worse

A

Friction to the skin<br></br>Tight underwear<br></br>Sex<br></br>Urinary incontinence<br></br>Scratching the affected area

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55
Q

Name some differential diagnoses for lichen sclerosus

A

<ul><li><div>Lichen planus: Characterized by purplish, itchy, flat-topped bumps, and white lacy patches in the mouth or on the skin.</div></li><li><div>Psoriasis: Manifests as red patches with silver scales, typically on the scalp, elbows, knees, and lower back.</div></li><li><div>Vitiligo: Presents as patchy loss of skin color, usually first on sun-exposed areas of the skin.</div></li></ul>

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56
Q

Name some complications of lichen sclerosus

A

<ul><li>5% risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva</li><li>Pain and discomfort</li><li>Sexual dysfunction</li><li>Bleeding</li><li>Narrowing of vaginal/urethral openings</li></ul>

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57
Q

Name some risk factors for developing cervical cancer

A

<ul><li>HPV 16 and 18 infection or anything that increases the risk of this (early sexual activity, not suing condoms, increased number of sexual partners)</li><li>Smoking</li><li>Immunosuppression</li><li>Non engagementwith cervical screening</li><li>Using COCP for &gt;5yrs</li></ul>

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58
Q

Name some differential diagnoses of cervical cancer

A

<ul><li>Vaginitis: itching, burning, pain, and abnormal discharge</li><li>Cervicitis: abnormal discharge, pelvic pain, and postcoital bleeding</li><li>Endometrial cancer: abnormal vaginal bleeding, pelvic pain, and unintentional weight loss</li><li>Cervical polyps: abnormal vaginal bleeding, discharge, and pain during intercourse</li></ul>

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59
Q

What characteristics of a cervix would be worrying and prompt an urgen colposcopy?

A

Ulceration<br></br>Inflammation<br></br>Bleeding<br></br>Visible tumour

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60
Q

What does cervical screening involve?

A

<ul><li>Speculum exam</li><li>Collection of cells from the cervix</li><li>Cells examined for precancerous changes(dyskaryosis)</li><li>Transporting the cells: liquid based cytology</li></ul>

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61
Q

Name some exceptions to the usual cervical screening programme

A

<ul><li>Women with HIV are screened annually</li><li>Women over 65 may request a smear if they have not had one since aged 50</li><li>Women with previous CIN may require additional tests (e.g. test of cure after treatment)</li><li>Certain groups of immunocompromised women may have additional screening (e.g. women on dialysis, cytotoxic drugs or undergoing an organ transplant)</li><li>Pregnant women due a routine smear should wait until 12 weeks post-partum</li></ul>

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62
Q

Name 3 infections that can be identified from smear testing for cervical cancer

A

<ul><li>Bacterial vaginosis</li><li>Candidiasis</li><li>Trichomoniasis</li></ul>

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63
Q

Management of smear results:<br></br><ul><li>Inadequate sample – {{c1::repeat the smear after at least three months}}</li><li>HPV negative – {{c2::continue routine screening}}</li><li>HPV positive with normal cytology – {{c3::repeat the HPV test after 12 months}}</li><li>HPV positive with abnormal cytology – {{c4::refer for colposcopy}}</li></ul>

A
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64
Q

What is a colposcopy?

A

Inserting a speculum and using a colposcope to magnify the cervix.<br></br>Allows epithelial lining of cervix to be examined

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65
Q

Tests used in a colposcopy:<br></br><div><ol><li><b><i>Acetic acid</i></b> causes abnormal cells to appear {{c1::white.}} This appearance is described as <b><i>acetowhite</i></b>. This occurs in cells with an increased {{c1::<b><i>nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio</i></b> (more <b><i>nuclear material</i></b>),}} such as {{c1::<b><i>cervical intraepithelial neoplasia</i></b> and <b><i>cervical cancer</i></b> }}cells.</li><li><b><i>Schiller’s iodine test</i></b> involves using an {{c1::<b><i>iodine solution</i></b> }}to stain the cells of the cervix. Iodine will stain {{c1::healthy cells a brown colour.}} Abnormal areas {{c1::will not stain.}}</li><li>A <b><i>punch biopsy</i></b> or <b><i>large loop excision of the transformational zone</i></b> can be performed during the colposcopy procedure to get a tissue sample.</li></ol></div>

A
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66
Q

<h3><b>Large Loop Excision of the Transformation Zone (LLETZ)</b></h3>

<div>A large loop excision of the transformation zone (<b><i>LLETZ</i></b>) procedure is also called a {{c1::<b><i>loop biopsy</i></b>.}} It can be performed with a {{c1::<b><i>local anaesthetic</i></b>&nbsp;d}}uring a {{c1::colposcopy procedure.}} It involves using a loop of wire with electrical current (<b><i>diathermy</i></b>) to {{c1::remove abnormal epithelial tissue on the cervix.}} The electrical current&nbsp;<b><i>cauterises</i></b>&nbsp;the tissue and stops bleeding.</div>

<div>{{c1::Bleeding and abnormal discharge}} can occur for several weeks following a LLETZ procedure. This varies between women. {{c1::Intercourse and tampon use should be avoided}} after the procedure to reduce the risk of infection. Depending on the depth of the tissue removed from the cervix, the procedure may increase the risk of {{c1::<b><i>preterm labour</i></b>.}}</div>

<div>&nbsp;</div>

A
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67
Q

What are the main risks associated with a cone biopsy?

A

<ul><li>Pain</li><li>Bleeding</li><li>Infection</li><li>Scar formation with stenosis of the cervix</li><li>Increased risk of miscarriage and premature labour</li></ul>

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68
Q

<h3><b>Staging of cervical cancer<br></br></b></h3>

<div>The{{c1::&nbsp;<b><i>International Federation of Gynaecology and Obstetrics</i></b>&nbsp;(<b><i>FIGO</i></b>)}}&nbsp;staging system is used to stage cervical cancer:</div>

<ul><li>Stage 1: {{c2::Confined to the cervix}}</li><li>Stage 2: {{c3::Invades the uterus or upper 2/3 of the vagina}}</li><li>Stage 3: {{c4::Invades the pelvic wall or lower 1/3 of the vagina}}</li><li>Stage 4: {{c5::Invades the bladder, rectum or beyond the pelvis}}</li></ul>

A
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69
Q

<h3><b>Management of cervical cancer</b></h3>

<div><br></br></div>

<ul><li><b><i>Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia</i></b>&nbsp;and&nbsp;<b><i>early-stage 1A</i></b>: {{c1::LLETZ or cone biopsy}}</li><li><b><i>Stage 1B – 2A</i></b>: {{c2::Radical hysterectomy and removal of local lymph nodes with chemotherapy and radiotherapy}}</li><li><b><i>Stage 2B – 4A</i></b>: {{c3::Chemotherapy and radiotherapy}}</li><li><b><i>Stage 4B</i></b>: M{{c4::anagement may involve a combination of surgery, radiotherapy, chemotherapy and palliative care}}</li></ul>

A
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70
Q

What do HPV strains 6 and 11 cause?

A

Genital warts

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71
Q

Name some risk factors for developing endometrial cancer

A

<ul><li>Nulliparity</li><li>Obesity</li><li>Early menarche</li><li>Late menopause</li><li>Polycystic ovary syndrome</li><li>Oestrogen-only hormone replacement therapy</li><li>Tamoxifen</li></ul>

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72
Q

Name some protective factors against endometrial cancer

A

<ul><li>multiparity</li><li>combined oral contraceptive pill</li><li>smoking&nbsp;(the reasons for this are unclear)</li></ul>

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73
Q

Name some symptoms of endometrial cancer

A

<ul><li><strong>Postmenopausal bleeding(usually slight and intermittent then becomes heavier)</strong></li><li>Abnormal vaginal bleeding, such as intermenstrual bleeding</li><li>Dyspareunia</li><li>Pelvic pain-uncommon apart from in later stages</li><li>Abdominal discomfort or bloating</li><li>Weight loss</li><li>Anaemia</li></ul>

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74
Q

Name some differentials for endometrial cancer

A

<ul><li>Uterine fibroids: Characterised by heavy menstrual bleeding, pelvic pressure or pain, frequent urination, and constipation.</li><li>Endometrial polyps: Symptoms may include irregular menstrual bleeding, bleeding between menstrual periods, excessively heavy menstrual periods, and vaginal bleeding after menopause.</li><li>Cervical cancer: Signs can include abnormal vaginal bleeding, postmenopausal bleeding, and pelvic pain.</li></ul>

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75
Q

What is endometrial hyperplasia?

A

Precancerous thickening of the endometrium

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76
Q

What are the 2 types of endometrial hyperplasia

A

<ul><li>Hyperplasia without atypia</li><li>Atypical hyperplasia</li></ul>

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77
Q

<b><i>Type 2 diabetes</i></b><span> may increase the risk of endometrial cancer due to the increased production of</span>{{c1::<span> </span><b><i>insulin</i></b><span>. </span>}} which<span> may stimulate the endometrial cells and increase the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and cancer. </span>

A
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78
Q

<b><i>Tamoxifen</i></b><span> has an </span>{{c1::anti-oestrogenic effec}}<span>t on breast tissue, but an </span>{{c1::oestrogenic}} <span>effect on the endometrium. This </span>{{c1::increase}}<span> the risk of endometrial cancer.</span>

A
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79
Q

What are the NICE suspected cancer referral guidelines concerning endometrial cancer?

A

Urgent 2 week wait: women with postmenopausal bleeding<br></br><br></br>Transvaginal US in women >55yrs with:<br></br><ul><li>Unexplained vaginal discharge</li><li>Visible haematuria+raised platelets, anaemia or elevated glucose levels</li></ul>

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80
Q

<div>The {{c1::<b><i>International Federation of Gynaecology and Obstetrics</i></b>&nbsp;(<b><i>FIGO</i></b>)}} staging system is used to stage endometrial cancer:</div>

<ul><li>Stage 1: {{c2::Confined to the uterus}}</li><li>Stage 2: {{c3::Invades the cervix}}</li><li>Stage 3: {{c4::Invades the ovaries, fallopian tubes, vagina or lymph nodes}}</li><li>Stage 4: {{c5::Invades bladder, rectum or beyond the pelvis}}</li></ul>

A
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81
Q

What are the different types of ovarian cancers?

A

<ol><li>Epithelial&nbsp;</li><li>Germ cell</li><li>Sex cord</li></ol>

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82
Q

What group of people do ovarian germ cell tumours typically arise from?

A

Young women-> atypical for most cases of ovarian cancer

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83
Q

What are the tumour markers for ovarian germ cell tumours?

A

Alpha fetoprotein and B-HCG

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84
Q

What is a Krukenbery tumour?

A

‘Signet ring’ sub-type of tumour typically GI in origin whcih has metastasised to the ovary

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85
Q

Name some risk factors for developing ovarian cancer

A

<ul><li>Advanced age</li><li>Smoking</li><li>Increased numbr of ovulations(early menarche, late menopause)</li><li>Obesity</li><li>HRT</li><li>Genetics: BRCA1&amp;2</li></ul>

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86
Q

Name some protective factors against ovarian cancer

A

<ul><li>Childbearong</li><li>Breastfeeding</li><li>Early menopause</li><li>Use of COCP</li></ul>

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87
Q

Name some differentials for developing ovarian cancer

A

<div><div><div><div><div><div><ul><li>Gastrointestinal conditions (e.g., irritable bowel syndrome): Characterised by abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits</li><li>Fibroids: May cause heavy menstrual bleeding, pelvic pressure or pain, frequent urination, and constipation</li><li>Ovarian cysts: Can cause pelvic pain, fullness or heaviness in the abdomen, and bloating</li><li>Other cancers (e.g., bladder, endometrial): May present with symptoms such as abnormal bleeding, pelvic pain, and urinary symptoms</li></ul></div></div></div></div></div></div>

<div><div><div><div><div><br></br></div></div></div></div></div>

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88
Q

What investigations are done to diagnose ovarian cancer?

A

<ol><li>CA125 blood test</li><li>Pelvic and abdominal US scan</li><li>CT scans for staging</li><li>AFP and B-HCG in younger women-germ cell tumours</li><li>Laparotomy for tissue biopsy</li></ol>

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89
Q

Name some conditions aside from ovarian cancer that can raise the CA125 level

A

<ul><li>Endometriosis</li><li>Menstruation</li><li>Benign ovarian cysts</li></ul>

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90
Q

<ul><li><div>Ovarian cancer staging:</div></li><li><div>Stage I ({{c1::limited to the ovaries):}}</div></li><li><div>Stage II {{c2::involving one or both ovaries with pelvic extension and/or implants:}}</div></li><li><div>Stage III {{c3::involving one or both ovaries with microscopically confirmed peritoneal implants outside the pelvis:}}</div></li><li><div>Stage IV ovarian cancer is {{c4::tumour involving one or both ovaries with distant metastasis.}}</div></li></ul>

A
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91
Q

What are the NICE suspected cancer guidelines relating to ovarian cancer?

A

2 week wait if:<br></br><ul><li>Ascites</li><li>Pelvic mass</li><li>Abdominal mass</li></ul><div>Further investigations includng CA125 if:</div><div><ul><li>New symptoms of IBS/change in bowel habit</li><li>Abdominal bloating</li><li>Early satiety</li><li>Pelvic pain</li><li>Urinary frequency/urgency</li><li>Weight loss</li></ul></div>

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92
Q

What does the risk of malignancy index relating to ovarian cancer take into account?

A

<div>Estimates the risk of an ovarian mass being malignant</div>

<ul><li>Menopausal status</li><li>Ultrasound findings</li><li>CA125 level</li></ul>

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93
Q

Name some risk factors for developing vulval cancer

A

<ul><li>Advancing age</li><li>HPV infeciton</li><li>Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia(VIN)</li><li>Immunosuppression</li><li>Lichen sclerosus</li></ul>

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94
Q

Name some differential diagnoses for vulval cancer

A

<div><div><div><div><div><div><ul><li>Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia: This precancerous condition can cause itching, burning, skin changes, and discomfort.</li><li>Lichen sclerosus: This condition can cause itching, pain, and white patches on the vulva.</li><li>Bartholin's cyst: This may present as a lump or swelling on the vulva, and can cause discomfort or pain.</li></ul></div></div></div></div></div></div>

<div><div><div><div><div><br></br></div></div></div></div></div>

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95
Q

What investigations might be done to diagnose vulval cancer?

A

<ul><li>Torough exam of vulva</li><li>Biopsy</li><li>Imaging/blood tests to a\ssess extent of disease and staging</li></ul>

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96
Q

What are the treatment options for VIN

A

<ul><li><b><i>Watch and wait</i></b>&nbsp;with close followup</li><li><b><i>Wide local excision</i></b>&nbsp;(surgery) to remove the lesion</li><li><b><i>Imiquimod</i></b>&nbsp;cream</li><li><b><i>Laser ablation</i></b></li></ul>

<br></br>

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97
Q

What age group(s) are most at risk of developing a molar pregnancy?

A

Extreme ends of the fertility age range: <br></br><ul><li><16yrs</li><li>>45yrs</li></ul>

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98
Q

What is a complete molar pregnancy?

A

<ul><li>Formation from a single sperm and empty egg with no genetic material</li><li>Sperm replicates to provide a normal number of chromosomes-all paternal origin</li><li>No foetal tissue, only proligeration of swollen chorionic villi</li></ul>

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99
Q

What is a partial molar paregnancy?

A

<ul><li>Formed from 2 sperm and a normal egg</li><li>Both paternal and maternal genetic materials present</li><li>Variable evidence of foetal parts</li></ul>

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100
Q

Name some differential diagnoses for a molar pregnancy

A

<ul><li>Ectopic pregnancy: Symptoms include lower abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and amenorrhea.</li><li>Miscarriage: Symptoms include vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, and passage of tissue.</li><li>Normal pregnancy: Typically characterized by a positive pregnancy test, absence of menstruation, and possible morning sickness.</li></ul>

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101
Q

Name 2 complications of molar pregnancies

A

Choriocarcinoma<br></br>Mole can metastasise-> patient may require systemic chemotherapy

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102
Q

What is endometriosis?

A

Growth of ectopic endometrial tissue outside of the uterine cavity

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103
Q

Name some theories thought to explain the cause of endometriosis

A

<ul><li>Retrograde menstruation</li><li>Coelomic metaplasia</li><li>Lymphatic/vascular dissemination of endometrial cells</li></ul>

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104
Q

Name some differential diagnoses for endometriosis

A

<ul><li>Primary dysmenorrhoea: characterised by crampy pelvic pain at the onset of menses with no identifiable pelvic pathology.</li><li>Uterine conditions (e.g. fibroids, adenomyosis): these can cause heavy menstrual bleeding and pelvic discomfort.</li><li>Adhesions: pelvic pain and possible bowel obstruction.</li><li>Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID): presents with lower abdominal pain, fever, abnormal vaginal discharge, and possible dyspareunia.</li></ul>

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105
Q

What investigations are used to diagnose endometriosis?

A

<ul><li>Transvaginal US-&gt; Often normal but may ID an ovarian endometrioma</li><li>GS: Diagnositc laparoscopy</li></ul>

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106
Q

Name a complication of endometriosis

A

<ul><li>Infertility</li><li>Poor quality of life due to chronic pain</li></ul>

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107
Q

<div>The {{c1::<b><i>American Society of Reproductive Medicine</i></b>&nbsp;(<b><i>ASRM</i></b>)}}&nbsp;has a staging system for endometriosis.</div>

<ul><li>Stage 1: {{c2::Small superficial lesions}}</li><li>Stage 2: {{c3::Mild, but deeper lesions than stage 1}}</li><li>Stage 3: {{c4::Deeper lesions, with lesions on the ovaries and mild adhesions}}</li><li>Stage 4: {{c5::Deep and large lesions affecting the ovaries with extensive adhesions}}</li></ul>

A
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108
Q

What is adenomyosis?

A

Presence of endometrial tissue within the myometrium

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109
Q

In which group of people is adenomyosis most common in?

A

Multiparous women towards the end of their reproductive years

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110
Q

What conditions can adenomyosis occur with?

A

<ul><li>Endometriosis</li><li>Fibroids</li></ul>

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111
Q

What investigations are done to diagnose adenomyosis?

A

1st line: transvaginal US of pelvis<br></br>If unsuitable: MRI and transabdominal US<br></br>GS: Histological exam of the uterus after a hysterectomy(mostly unsuitable)

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112
Q

What complications relating to pregnancy can adenomyosis cause?

A

<ul><li>Infertility</li><li>Miscarriage</li><li>Preterm birth</li><li>Small for gestational age</li><li>Preterm rupture of membranes</li><li>Malpresentation</li><li>Need for C section</li><li>Postpartum haemorrhage</li></ul>

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113
Q

What is atrophic vaginitis?

A

Inflammation and thinning of the geniatl tissues due to a decrease in oestrogen levels

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114
Q

What causes atophic vaginitis?

A

Decline in oestrogen levels, typically post-menopause

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115
Q

On examination, what might you find in a patient with atrophic vaginitis?

A

Pale and dry vagina<br></br><ul><li>Loss of pubic hair</li><li>Thinning of vaginal mucosa</li><li>Narrowed introitus</li><li>Loss of vaginal rugae</li></ul>

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116
Q

Name some differentials for atrophic vaginitis

A

<ul><li>For postmenopausal bleeding:&nbsp;<strong>malignancy</strong>, endometrial hyperplasia</li><li>For genital itching/discharge: sexually transmitted infection, vulvovaginal candidiasis, skin conditions such as lichen sclerosis, lichen planus, diabetes</li><li>For narrowed introitus: female genital mutilation</li><li>For urinary symptoms: urinary tract infection, bladder dysfunction, pelvic floor disfunction, cystitis</li><li>For dyspareunia: malignancy, vaginismus</li></ul>

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117
Q

What investigations should be done in a patient presenting with likely atrophic vaginitis?

A

<ul><li>Clinical examination, including speculum examination if tolerated, to look for vaginal signs of atrophy</li><li>Transvaginal ultrasound and endometrial biopsy, if necessary, to exclude endometrial cancer</li><li>An infection screen if itching or discharge is present</li><li>A biopsy of any abnormal skin lesions, if needed</li></ul>

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118
Q

What is a miscarriage?

A

Loss of pregnancy <24 weeks gestation

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119
Q

Name some risk factors for having a miscarriage

A

<ul><li>Maternal age &gt;30</li><li>Previous miscarriage</li><li>Obesity</li><li>Smoking</li><li>APS</li><li>Uterina abnormalities</li><li>Coagulopathies</li><li>Previous uterine surgeries</li><li>Chromosomal abnormalities</li></ul>

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120
Q

Name some symptoms of a miscarriage

A

<ul><li>Often found incidentally on US</li><li>Vaginal bleeding-&gt;clots/conception products</li><li>If lots of bleeding: signs of haemodynamic instability: pallor, dizziness, SOB</li><li>Suprapubic, cramping pain</li></ul>

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121
Q

<b>Signs a patient is having a miscarriage:</b><br></br><br></br><ul><li>Haemodynamic instability: {{c1::tachycardia, hypotension, tachypnoea}}<br></br></li><li>Abdominal exam: {{c2::distended, local areas of tenderness}}</li><li>Speculum exam: {{c3::diameter of cervical os, products of conception, bleeding}}</li><li>Bimanual exam: {{c4::uterine tenderness, adnexal masses/collections}}</li></ul>

A
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122
Q

Name some differentials for a miscarriage

A

<ul><li>Ectopic pregnancy</li><li>Hydatidiform mole</li><li>Cervical/uterine cancer</li></ul>

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123
Q

What blood might be done in a patient suspected of having a miscarriage?

A

b-HCG-important to also assess the possibility of an ectopic pregnancy

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124
Q

What are the different kinds of miscarriage?

A

<ul><li>Threatened</li><li>Inevitable</li><li>Missed/delayed</li><li>Incomplete</li><li>Complete</li><li>Septic</li></ul>

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125
Q

What is an ectopic pregnancy?

A

<ul><li>Embryo implants and beigns to grow outside fo the uterine cavity, usually in the fallopian tuubes</li></ul>

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126
Q

Name some of the causes/risk factors for having an ectopic pregnancy

A

<ul><li>Pelvic inflammatory disease</li><li>Endometriosis</li><li>Genital infections</li><li>Previous ectopic pregnancies</li><li>Having an IUD/coil in situ</li><li>Assissted reproduciton like IVF</li></ul>

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127
Q

Name some differentials for an ectopic pregnancy

A

<ul><li>Miscarriage</li><li>UTI</li><li>Appendicitis</li><li>Diverticulitis</li><li>PID</li><li>Ovarian accident</li></ul>

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128
Q

What investigations should be done in a patient with a suspected ectopic pregnancy?

A

<ol><li>B-HCG-POSITIVE</li><li>Pelvic US</li><li>Transvaginal US</li></ol>

<div>Can't find evidence of pregnancy on any scans</div>

<div><br></br></div>

<div><ul><li>Serum B-HCG</li></ul></div>

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129
Q

<b>Serum B-HCG in suspected ectopic pregnancy:<br></br></b><br></br><ul><li>Initial >1500iU: {{c1::ectopic-diagnostic laparoscopy}}</li><li>Initial <1500iU {{c2::and stable: repeat in 48 hours}}</li></ul><div><br></br></div><div><br></br></div>

A
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130
Q

Using B-HCG monitoring how can you tell if a patient is having a miscarriage or has a viable pregnancy?

A

<ul><li>Viable pregnancy: will double every 48 hours</li><li>Miscarriage: halves every 48 hours</li></ul>

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131
Q

What complications can arise from an ectopic pregnancy

A

<ul><li>Fallopian tube rupture-&gt; hypovolaemic shock-&gt;organ failure-&gt; death</li></ul>

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132
Q

Name some causes of oligohydramnios

A

<ul><li>Pre-term rupture of membranea</li><li>Non-functional kidneys</li><li>Renal agenesis(Potter's)</li><li>Obstructive uropathy</li><li>Placental insufficiency</li><li>Chromosomal abnormalities</li><li>Viral infections</li></ul>

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133
Q

What are the most common causes of oligohydramnios?

A

<ul><li>Pre-term rupture of membranes</li><li>Placental insufficiency&nbsp;</li></ul>

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134
Q

What causes symptoms in patients with oligohydramnios?

A

<ul><li>Decreased space around fetus</li><li>Lack of amniotic fluid for fetal growth and development</li></ul>

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135
Q

What investigations are typically done to diagnose oligohydramnios?

A

USS:<br></br><ul><li>Reduced amniotic fluid index</li><li>Reduced max pool depth(MPD) or single deepest pocket(SDP)</li></ul><div>To ID underlying cause:</div><div><ul><li>Meernal bloods</li><li>Karyotyping</li></ul><div>If membrane rup[ture suspecteD:</div></div><div><ul><li>IGFBP-1 or PAMG-1(usually in amniotic fluid)</li></ul></div>

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136
Q

What is important to remember if delivering a baby early via C-section due to oligohydramnios?

A

Give a course of steroids for fetal lung development and antibtiotics to lower risk of infection

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137
Q

What complications can arise from oligohydramnios and why?

A

<ul><li>Amniotic fluid allows fetus to move in utero</li><li>No fluid-&gt; no exercise-&gt; muscle contracures-&gt; disability after birth</li></ul>

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138
Q

What investigations might be done in a patient with polyhydramnios?

A

USS-diagnostic<br></br>To look for cause:<br></br><ul><li>Maternal glucose tolerance test</li><li>Fetal anaemia</li><li>Karyotyping</li><li>Fetal anatomy for structural cause</li><li>Viral screen(TORCH)</li></ul>

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139
Q

<b>Viral screen: TORCH</b><br></br><ul><li>T{{c1::oxoplasmosis}}<br></br></li><li>P{{c2::arvovirus}}</li><li>R{{c3::ubella}}</li><li>C{{c4::MV}}</li><li>H{{c5::epatitis}}</li></ul>

A
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140
Q

What are the 2 stages of labour?

A

<ul><li>Latent phase: 0-3cm cervical dilation</li><li>Active phase: 3-10cm cervical dilation</li></ul>

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141
Q

Name some differentials for the first stage of labour

A

<ul><li>Braxton Hicks</li><li>Preterm labour</li></ul>

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142
Q

What investigations might be done if a woman is in the first stage of labour?

A

<ul><li>Regular assessment of maternal and foetal vital signs</li><li>Frequent exam to determine cervical dilation and effacement</li><li>Palpation to assess position and descent of foetus</li></ul>

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143
Q

Name some signs and symptoms of the second stage of labour

A

<ul><li>Foetal head flexion, descent and ngagement into the pelvis</li><li>Foetal internal rotation to face maternal back</li><li>Foetal head extension to deliver head</li><li>Foetal external rotation after delivery of head, positioning of shoulders in AP position</li><li>Delivery of anterior shoulder first then rest of foetus</li><li>Maternal desure to push</li></ul>

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144
Q

Name some signs indicative of the 3rd stage of labour

A

<ul><li>Gush of blood from vagina</li><li>Lengthening of umbilical cord</li><li>Ascension of uterus in abdomen</li></ul>

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145
Q

Name some indications for inducing labour

A

<ul><li>Post dates: &gt;41 weeks gestation</li><li>Preterm prelabour rupture of membranes</li><li>Intrauterine foetal death</li><li>Abnormal CTG</li><li>Maternal conditions like pre-eclampsia, diabetes, cholestasis</li></ul>

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146
Q

Name some contrainidctaions for inducing labour

A

<ul><li>Previous classica/vertical incision during C-section</li><li>Multiple lower uterine segment C-sections</li><li>Transmissable infections&nbsp;</li><li>Placenta praevia</li><li>Malpresentations</li><li>Severe fetal compromise</li><li>Cord prolapse</li><li>Vasa previa</li></ul>

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147
Q

What investigations might be carried out prior to starting inductino of labour?

A

<ul><li>US: confirm gestational age, foetal position and placental location</li><li>Bloods: Check mother's health status-pre-eclampsia/diabetes</li></ul>

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148
Q

Name some differentials for pre-term labour

A

<ul><li>Braxton Hicks</li><li>UTI</li><li>Placental abruption</li><li>Uterine rupture</li></ul>

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149
Q

What investigations might be done in a patient presentign with pre term labour

A

<ul><li>Foetal fibroenctin tes(fFN)- assesss risk of pre term elivery after onset of pre-term labour</li></ul>

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150
Q

What age does menopause usually happen?

A

<ul><li>45-55</li><li>Average in UK: 52yrs</li></ul>

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151
Q

Name some symptoms of menopause

A

<ul><li>Vasomotor: hot flushes, night sweats</li><li>Sexual dysfunction: vaginal dryness, reduced libido, problems with orgasm</li><li>Psychological: depression, anxiety, brain fog</li></ul>

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152
Q

Name some differentials for menopause

A

<ul><li>Hyperthyroidism</li><li>Depression</li><li>premature ovarian insufficiency</li></ul>

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153
Q

What are the types of HRT

A

<ul><li>Oestrogens-can be oral, transdermal or topical</li><li>Progestogens-oral, transdermal, intrauterine</li></ul>

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154
Q

Name some benefits of HRT

A

<ul><li>Relief of vasomotor sx</li><li>Relief of urogential sc</li><li>Reduced risk of osteoporosis</li></ul>

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155
Q

Name some things HRT can increase the risk of?

A

<ul><li>Breast cancer</li><li>Endometrial cancer(especially if given alone)</li><li>VTE</li></ul>

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156
Q

Name some contraindications for prescribing HRT

A

<ul><li>Breast cancer</li><li>Oestrogen dependednt cancer</li><li>Vaginal bleeding of unknown cause</li><li>Pregnancy</li><li>Untreated endometrial hyperplasia</li><li>VTE</li><li>Liver disease with abnormal LFTs</li></ul>

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157
Q

Name some complications of menopause

A

<ul><li>Osteoporosis</li><li>Cardiovascular disease</li><li>Dyspareunia</li><li>Urinary incontinence</li></ul>

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158
Q

What does GnRH do for the menstrual cycle?

A

<ul><li>Released from the hypothalamus and stimulates LH and FSH release from anterior pituitary</li></ul>

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159
Q

What are the phases of the ovarian cycle?

A

<ul><li>Follicular&nbsp;</li><li>Ovulation</li><li>Luteal</li></ul>

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160
Q

What happens during the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle?

A

<ul><li>Follicles begin to mature and prepare to release an oocyte</li></ul>

<div>At the start: low ovarian hormoen profuction: little negative feedback at HPG axis so increase in FSH and LH</div>

<div>Only 1 follicle can reach maturity, other follicles form polar bodies</div>

<div>Oestrogen becomes high enough to initiate positive feedback, increases everything, especially LH but increased inhibin means FSH doesn't surge(inhibin selectively inhibits FSH)</div>

<div>Granulosa cells express LH receptors</div>

<div><img></img><br></br></div>

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161
Q

What happens during the ovulaton stage of the ovarian cycle

A

<ul><li>Response to LH surge: follicle ruptures and oocyte assissted to fallopiani tube by fimbria-&gt; viable for fertilisaton for 24 hours</li><li>After ovulation, follicel remains luteinised, secreting oestrogen and progesterone</li></ul>

<div><img></img><br></br></div>

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162
Q

What happens in the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle?

A

<ul><li>In absence of fertilisation: corpus luteum regresses after 14 days, fall in hormones relieving negative feedback</li></ul>

<div><img></img><br></br></div>

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163
Q

What happens to the corpus luteum if fertilisation occurs?

A

<ul><li>HCG is produced exerting a leuteningin effect to maintain the corpus luteum</li></ul>

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164
Q

What are the stages of the uterine cycle?

A

<ul><li>Proliferative&nbsp;</li><li>Secretory</li><li>Menses</li></ul>

<div><br></br></div>

<div><img></img><br></br></div>

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165
Q

What happens in the proliferative phase of the uterine cycle?

A

<ul><li>Runs alongside follicular phase</li><li>Prepares reproductive tract for fertilisation and implantation</li><li>Oestrogen initiates fallopian tube formation-&gt; endometrium thickening-&gt; increased growth and motility o fmyometrium and productive of thin alkaline cervical mucus</li></ul>

<div><br></br></div>

<div><img></img><br></br></div>

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166
Q

What happens during the secretory phase of the uterine cycle?

A

<ul><li>Runs alongside luteal phase</li><li>Progesterone stimulates thickening of endometrium into glandular secretory form, thickening of myometrium, reduction of motility in myometrium, thick acidic cervical mucus production(prevent polyspermy)</li></ul>

<div><img></img><br></br></div>

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167
Q

What are the main hormones involved in:<br></br>a)proliferative phase<br></br>b)secretory phase?

A

a)oestrogen<br></br>b)progesterone

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168
Q

Name some differentials for PCOS

A

<ul><li>Menopause</li><li>Congenital adrenal hyperplasia</li><li>Hyperprolactinaemia</li><li>Androgen secreting tumour</li><li>Cushing's</li></ul>

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169
Q

What investigations might be done to diagnose PCOS?

A

<ul><li>Bedside: clinical exam to look for features of hyperandrogenism/insulin resistance</li><li>Bloods: LH:FSH ratio, total testosterone, fasting/oral glucose tolerance, TFT, prolactin, cortisol</li><li>Imaging: transabdominal/transvaginal USS</li></ul>

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170
Q

What diagnostic criteria is used for PCOS?

A

<ul><li>Rotterdam diagnostic criteria</li></ul>

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171
Q

Name some complications of PCOS

A

<ul><li>Infertility</li><li>Metabolic syndrome and dyslipidaemia</li><li>T2DM</li><li>CVD</li><li>Hypertension</li><li>Obstructive sleep apnoea</li></ul>

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172
Q

What is Asherman’s syndrome?

A

<ul><li>Adhesions(synechiae) form within uterus following damage to the uterus</li></ul>

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173
Q

Name some common causes of Asherman’s syndrome

A

<ul><li>Pregnancy related dilatation and curettage procedure</li><li>Post uterine surgery</li><li>Pelvic infections</li></ul>

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174
Q

Name some complications of Asherman’s syndrome

A

<ul><li>Menstruation abnormalities</li><li>Infertility</li><li>Recurrent miscarriages</li></ul>

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175
Q

What are congenital malformations of the female genital tract?

A

<ul><li>Deviations form normal anatomy resulting from embryonic maldevelopment of Mullerian or paramesonephric ducts</li></ul>

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176
Q

What are the most common types of congenital uterine abnormalities caused by?

A

<ul><li>Incomplete fusion of mullerian or paramesonephric ducts</li></ul>

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177
Q

Name some complications of congenital uteirne abnormalities

A

<ul><li>Dysmenorrhoea</li><li>Haematoemtra</li><li>Complicaitons during pregnancy and labour</li><li>Congenital renal abnormalities often co-exist</li></ul>

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178
Q

What are endometrial polyps?

A

<ul><li>Benign growths of endometrial lining of the uterus, consisting of glandular epithelium, stroma and blood vessels</li></ul>

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179
Q

What age groups are endometrial polyps found in?

A

<ul><li>Reproductive age women</li><li>Can occur post menopausal</li></ul>

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180
Q

Name some risk factors for polyps

A

<ul><li>Obesity</li><li>Htn</li><li>Tamoxifen</li><li>HRT</li></ul>

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181
Q

Name some differentials for a polyp

A

<ul><li>Fibroid</li><li>Adenomyoma</li><li>Endometrial carcinoma</li><li>Gestation trophoblastic disease</li></ul>

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182
Q

Name some complications fo endometrial polyps

A

<ul><li>Small percentage may have atypical hyperplasia/endometrial carcinoma</li><li>Anaemia due to chronic blood loss in those with heavy menstrual bleeding</li></ul>

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183
Q

Name the causative organisms of PID

A

<ul><li>Chlamydia trachomatis-most common cause</li><li>Gonnorhoea</li><li>Mycoplasma genitalium</li><li>Mycoplasma hominis</li><li>Sometiems no pathogen isolates</li></ul>

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184
Q

What is Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome?

A

<ul><li>Adhesions form between anterior liver capsule and anterior wall/diaphragm in context of PIC</li></ul>

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185
Q

Name some differential diagnoses for PID

A

<ul><li>Appendicitis</li><li>Ectopic</li><li>Endometriosis</li><li>Ovarian cyst</li><li>UTI</li></ul>

186
Q

What investigations are used to diagnose PID

A

<ul><li>Pregnancy test to exclude ectopic</li><li>Swabs for gonorrhoea and chlamydia or urine NAAT&nbsp;</li><li>Bimanual exam: cervical motion tenderness</li></ul>

<div>Bloods: FBC+WCC+CRP</div>

<div><br></br></div>

<div>Imaging: TV USS</div>

187
Q

Name some complications of PID

A

<ul><li>Chornic pelvic pain-tubal damage from inflammation</li><li>Infertility</li><li>Ectopic pregnancy</li><li>Fitz-High Curtis syndrome</li></ul>

188
Q

What condition might Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome be confused with?

A

<ul><li>Cholecystitis</li></ul>

189
Q

Name some risk factors for developing renal stones

A

<ul><li>Obesity</li><li>Dehydration</li><li>Diet rich in oxalate foods like fruit, nuts, cocoa</li><li>Previous stones</li><li>Anatomical abnormalities</li><li>FHx</li></ul>

190
Q

Name some differentials for urinary tract calculi

A

<ul><li>Pyelonephritis</li><li>Appendicits</li><li>Diverticulitis</li><li>Ovarian torsion</li><li>Ectopic pregnancy</li><li>AAA</li></ul>

191
Q

What investigaitons might be done to diagnose renal stones?

A

<ul><li>Urinalysis</li><li>Uirne mc+s</li><li>Observations to check for sepsis</li><li>FBC, UE, calcium and uric acid</li><li><b>GS: non contrast helical CT KUB</b></li><li><br></br></li></ul>

192
Q

What is a prolactinoma?

A

<ul><li>Benign tumour of the pituitary gland-secretes excessive prolactin</li></ul>

193
Q

What does the aerola contain and how do they change during pregnancy?

A

<ul><li>Contain sebaceous glands</li><li>Enlarge during pregnancy and secrete an oily substance that acts as a protective lubricant</li></ul>

194
Q

What are the 3 main parts that make up the anatomical structure of the breast

A

<ul><li>Mammary glands</li><li>Connective tissue stroma</li><li>Pectoral fascia</li></ul>

195
Q

What are the groups of lymph nodes that receive lymph from breast tissues?

A

<ul><li>Axillary nodes(75%)</li><li>Parasternal nodes(20%)</li><li>Posterior intercosta nodes(5%)</li></ul>

196
Q

What is a fibroadenoma?

A

<ul><li>Benign tumour consisting of a mixture of fibrous and epithelial tissue</li></ul>

197
Q

Name some differentials for fibroadenomas

A

<ul><li>Breast cyst</li><li>Invasive breast cancer</li><li>Intraductal papilloma</li><li>Lipoma</li></ul>

198
Q

What investigations might be done in a patient presenting with a likely fibroadenoma?

A

<div>Triple assessment:</div>

<div><ul><li>Clinical exam</li><li>Imaging: US/Mammogram</li><li>Needle biopsy-fine needle aspiration/core biopsy</li></ul></div>

199
Q

What is fibrocytic breast disease?

A

<ul><li>Benign condition-&gt; presence of fibrous tissue and cysts in the breast</li><li>Considered a variation of normal breast tissue</li></ul>

200
Q

Name some differentials for fibrocystic breast disease

A

<ul><li>Breast cancer</li><li>Cysts</li><li>Fibroadenoma</li><li>Mastitis/abscess</li></ul>

201
Q

What investigations might be used to diagnose fibrocystic breast disease

A

<ul><li>Clinical exam</li><li>Mammogram and US</li><li>Biopsy: exclude malignancy if suspicious findings</li></ul>

202
Q

What genetic mutations are implicated in breast cancer?

A

<ul><li>BRCA1/2</li></ul>

203
Q

Name some risk factors for developing breast cancer

A

High hormone exposure:<br></br><ul><li>Endogenous oestrogen: early menarche, nulliparity, late menopause</li><li>Exogenous oestrogen and progestin: COCP, HRT</li></ul><div>Inherited gene mutations: BRCA1/2</div><div>Increasing age</div><div>F history/personal history of breast cancer</div><div>Alcohol/tobacco use</div>

204
Q

What are the subtypes of breast cancer?

A

Pre-invasive:<br></br><ul><li>Ductal carcinoma in situ</li><li>Lobular carcinomaa in situ</li></ul><div>Invasive:</div><div><ul><li>Invasive ductal carcinoma</li><li>Invasive lobular carcinoma</li><li>Medullary carcinoma</li></ul><div>Others:</div></div><div><ul><li>Inflammatory</li><li>Mucinous</li><li>Tubular</li><li>HER2 positive breast cancer</li><li>Triple negative breast cancer</li></ul></div>

205
Q

Name some differentials for breast cancer

A

<ul><li>Fibroadenoma</li><li>Cysts</li><li>Mastitis</li><li>Lipoma</li></ul>

206
Q

Name 2 methods for staging breast cancer

A

<ul><li>TNM staging(tumour node metastasis)</li><li>Stage 1A/B/2A/B/ETC</li></ul>

207
Q

What are some methods used to treat breast cancer?

A

<ul><li>Surgery</li><li>Radiotherapy</li><li>Hormone therapy</li><li>Biological therapy</li><li>Chemotherapy</li></ul>

208
Q

What are some features that wwould favour a mastectomy instead of awide local excision?

A

<ul><li>Multifocal tumour rather than solitary lesion</li><li>Central tumour rather than peripheral</li><li>Large lesion in small breast rather than small lesion in large breast</li><li>DCIS &gt;4CM rather than &lt;4cm</li></ul>

209
Q

Name a biological therapy that might be used in breast cancer treatment and when it might be used?

A

<ul><li>Trastuzumab(Herceptin)-used in HER2 positive tumours</li><li>Can't be used in patients with heart disorders</li></ul>

210
Q

Name some examples of hormonal therapies that might be used in patients with breast cancer

A

<ul><li>Tamoxifen: pre/peri menopausal women</li><li>Anastrozole: aromatose inhibitors: post-menopausal women</li></ul>

211
Q

Name some side effects of tamoxifen

A

<ul><li>Increased risk of endometrial cancer</li><li>VTE</li><li>Menopausal symptoms</li></ul>

212
Q

<b>Symptoms of benign breast disease</b><br></br><ul><li>Fibroadenoma: {{c1::highly mobile, encapsulated breast masses}}<br></br></li><li>Mastitis: {{c2::breast redness, mastalgia, malaise, fever}}</li><li>Intraductal papilloma: {{c3::bloody discharge from nipple, no mass}}</li><li>Radial scar: {{c4::mammogram-stellite pattern-central scanning and glandular tissue}}</li><li>Fat necrosis: {{c5::painless breast mass, skin thickening}}</li><li>Fibrocystic breast disease: {{c6::breast lumps, pain, tenderness}}</li><li>Mammry duct ectasia: {{c7::palpable peri-areolar breast mass, nipple discharge}}</li></ul>

A
213
Q

Name some differentials for Paget’s disease of the nipple

A

<ul><li>Atopic dermatitis/contact dermatitis/psoriasis</li><li>Intraductal papilloma</li><li>Mastitis/abscess</li></ul>

214
Q

What is cervical effecement?

A

<ul><li>Also called cervical ripening</li><li>Thinning of the cervix</li><li>Before: shaped like a bottleneck and up to 4cm</li><li>Through pregnancy: cervix tightly closed and protected by mucus plug</li></ul>

<div><img></img><br></br></div>

215
Q

What are the 7 mechanisms of labour?

A

<ul><li>Descent</li><li>Flexion</li><li>Internal rotation</li><li>Extension</li><li>Restitution</li><li>External rotation</li><li>Delivery of body</li></ul>

216
Q

What happens during the ‘descent’ stage of labour?

A

<ul><li>Fetus descends into pelvis</li></ul>

<div><img></img><br></br></div>

217
Q

What encourages the ‘descent’ stage of labour?

A

<ul><li>Increased abdominal muscle tone</li><li>Increased frequency and strength of contractions</li></ul>

218
Q

What happens during the ‘flexion’ stage of labour?

A

<ul><li>Fetus descends through pelvis-&gt; uterine contractions exert pressure down fetal spine towards occiput forcing the occiput to come into contact with pelvic floor</li><li>Fetal neck flexes allowing the circumference of the head to reduce-easier to pass through pelvis</li><li><img></img><br></br></li></ul>

219
Q

What happens during the internal rotation stage of labour?

A

<ul><li>With each contraction, fetal head is pushed onto pelvic floor, supporting a small degree of rotation</li><li>Regular contractions eventually lead to head completing 90 degree turn</li></ul>

<div><img></img><br></br></div>

220
Q

What happens during the ‘extension’ phase of labour?

A

<ul><li>Fetal occiput slips beneath suprapubic arch allowing the head to extend-fetal head born and usually facing maternal back</li></ul>

<div><img></img><br></br></div>

221
Q

What happens during the ‘restitution/external rotation’ stage of labour?

A

<ul><li>fetus naturally aligns head with shoulders</li><li>Visually head may be seen to externally rotate face to right or left</li></ul>

<div><img></img><br></br></div>

222
Q

What is delayed cord clamping?

A

<ul><li>Umbilical cord not immediately clamped and cut at point of birth but allowed &gt;1 minute to transfuse blood to baby</li><li>Baby can receive up to 214g of blood&nbsp;</li></ul>

223
Q

Name some benefits of delayed cord clamping

A

<ul><li>Allows baby time to transition to extra-uterine life</li><li>Increase in RBC, irone and stem cells</li><li>Reduced need for inotropic support</li></ul>

224
Q

What are some benefits of an upright birth?

A

<ul><li>Increases diameter of pelvic inlet</li><li>Less risk of compressing mother's aorta</li><li>Encourages stronger and longer contractions</li><li>Gravity</li></ul>

225
Q

What are the advantages of using entotox as pain relief in labour?

A

<ul><li>Fast actnig-20-30 seconds</li><li>Can eb used alongside analgesia</li><li>Does not require further fetal monitoring</li></ul>

226
Q

What is an epidural?

A

<ul><li>Mix of bupivacaine and fentanyl</li><li>Epidural catheter inserted by anaesthetist and drugs administered through pump</li></ul>

<div><img></img><br></br></div>

227
Q

Name some pros and cons of using an epidural

A

Pros:<br></br><ul><li>Total pain relief in 90% of cases</li><li>Effect will last until baby is born</li></ul><div>Cons:</div><div><ul><li>Reduced mobility</li><li>Cant take up to an hour to take effect</li><li>Will need urinary catheter</li><li>Can slow donw labour if not already established</li></ul></div>

228
Q

What is an operative vaginal delivery?

A

<ul><li>Use of an instrument to aid delivery of the fetus</li></ul>

229
Q

What are the 2 main instruments used in operative deliveries?

A

<ul><li>Ventouse</li><li>Forceps</li></ul>

230
Q

What are ventouse deliveries associated with?

A

<ul><li>Lower success rate</li><li>Less maternal perineal injuries</li><li>Less pain</li><li>More cephalhaematoma</li><li>More subgaleal haematoma</li><li>More fetal retinal haemorrhage</li></ul>

231
Q

What are forceps and how are they used for delivery?

A

<ul><li>Double bladed instruments</li><li>Inserted into pelvis, applied round sides of fetal head with blades locked together</li><li>Gentle traction applied during uterine contractions</li></ul>

<div><img></img><br></br></div>

232
Q

What are forceps associated with?

A

<ul><li>Higher rate of 3rd/4th degree tears</li><li>Less often used to rotate</li><li>Doesn't require maternal effort</li></ul>

233
Q

Name some indications for performing an assisted vaginal delivery

A

Maternal:<br></br><ul><li>Maternal exhaustion</li><li>Maternal medical conditions that mean active pushing should be avoided(intracranial pathologies, severe heart disease/htn)</li></ul><div><br></br></div><div>Fetal:</div><div><ul><li>Suspected fetal compromise in 2nd stage of labour0CTG monitoring/abnormal fetal blood sample</li><li>Cinical concerns like significant antepartum haemorrhage</li></ul></div>

234
Q

Name some absolute contraindications to an instrumental delivery

A

<ul><li>Unengaged fetal head</li><li>Incompletely dilated cervix</li><li>True cephalo pelvic disproportion</li><li>Breech and face presentation</li><li>Preterm gestation(&lt;34 weeks)</li></ul>

235
Q

What are the pre-requisites for intstrumental delivery?

A

<ul><li>Fully dilated</li><li>Ruptured membranes</li><li>Cephalic presentation</li><li>Defined fetal position</li><li>Fetal head at least at level of ischial spines and no more than 1/5 palpable per abdomen</li><li>Empty bladder</li><li>Adequate pain relief</li><li>Adequate maternal pelvis</li></ul>

236
Q

Name some fetal complications from an instrumental deliver

A

<ul><li>Neonatal jaundice</li><li>Scalp lacerations</li><li>Cephalohaematoma</li><li>Subgaleal haematoma</li><li>Retinal heamorrhage</li><li>Skull fractures</li></ul>

237
Q

Name some maternal complications of instrumental deliveries

A

<ul><li>Vaginal tears: 3rd/4th degree</li><li>VTE</li><li>Incontinence</li><li>PPH</li><li>Shoulder dystocia</li><li>Infection</li></ul>

238
Q

<b>Results of quadruple test indicative of higher Down’s risk</b><br></br><ul><li>AFP: {{c1::Low}}<br></br></li><li>hCG: {{c2::high}}</li><li>Inhibin A: {{c3::high}}</li><li>Unconjugated oestriol: {{c4::low}}</li></ul>

A
239
Q

What are the 2 types of invasive prenatal diagnostic testing?

A

<ul><li>Chorionic villus testing(CVS)</li><li>Amniocentesis</li></ul>

240
Q

What is CVS?

A

<ul><li>US guided smapling of placental tissue by insterting a fine needle through abdomen and into uterus</li><li>Rules out mosaicism-if positive will need amniocentesis</li></ul>

241
Q

What is amniocentesis?

A

<ul><li>US guided insertion of fine needle through abdomen into uterus to take a sample of amniotic fluid-contains abby's cells so is a true reflection of baby's DNA</li></ul>

242
Q

Name some risks of invasive prenatal testing

A

<ul><li>Miscarriage</li><li>Infection</li></ul>

243
Q

What does the anomaly scan screen for?

A

<ul><li>11 physical confitions</li><li>Some associated with Down's-congenital heart disease, abdominal wall defects</li></ul>

244
Q

Name some risk factors for mastitis

A

<ul><li>Poor breastfeeding technique</li><li>Nipple damage</li><li>Maternal stress</li><li>Previous hx of mastitis</li></ul>

245
Q

Name some differentials for mastitis

A

<ul><li>Breast abscess</li><li>Breast cancer</li><li>Breast engorgement-&gt; bilateral, ssociated with milk stasis and tense breasts</li></ul>

246
Q

Name a complication of mastitis

A

<ul><li>Breast abscess</li></ul>

247
Q

What is a breast abscess?

A

<ul><li>Accumulation of pus within an area of breast tissue, often a complication of infectious mastitis</li></ul>

248
Q

What is bacterial vaginosis?

A

<ul><li>Bacterial imblaance of the vagina cuased by an overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria and loss of lactobacilli</li></ul>

249
Q

What are the features of lactobacilli bacteria?

A

<ul><li>Rod-shaped</li><li>Produce hydrogen peroxide-&gt; keeps vaginal pH &gt;4.5 which inhibits growth of other organisms</li></ul>

250
Q

Name some risk factors for bacterial vagnosis

A

<ul><li>Sexual activity</li><li>Receptive oral sex</li><li>Presence of an STI</li><li>Smoking</li><li>Recent antibiotic use</li><li>Ethnicity(higher in black women)</li><li>Vaginal douching/use of scented soaps/vaginal deoderants</li></ul>

251
Q

Name some differentials for bacterial vaginosis

A

<ul><li>Vulvovaginal candidiasis</li><li>Trichomonas vaginalis infection</li><li>Chlamydia/gonorrhoea</li><li>Atrophic vaginitis</li></ul>

252
Q

What investigations are done to diagnose bacterial vaginosis?

A

Ansel criteria: 3/4 of:<br></br><ul><li>pH>4.5</li><li>grey/milky discharge</li><li>clue cells on wet mount(vaginal epithelial cells studded with gram variable coccobacilli)</li><li>KOH whiff test</li></ul><div>Microscopy: high vaginal smear: clue cells, decreased lactobacilli and no pus cells</div>

253
Q

Name some complications for bacterial vaginosis

A

<ul><li>Pregnancy related-&gt; premature birth, miscarriage, chorioamnionitis risks</li></ul>

<div><br></br></div>

254
Q

Name some risk factors for vulvovaginal candidiasis

A

<ul><li>Pregnancy</li><li>Diabetes</li><li>Antibiotic use</li><li>Corticosteroid use/immunosuppression</li></ul>

255
Q

Name some signs of vulvovaginal candidiasis

A

<ul><li>Erythema/swelling of vulva</li><li>Discharge</li><li>Satellite lesions-red, pustular lesions with superficial white/creamy pseudomembranous plaques</li></ul>

256
Q

What is chlamydia?

A

<ul><li>STD caused by obligate intracellular bacteria chlamydia trachomatis</li></ul>

257
Q

What are the different serotypes of chlamydia and what infections do they cause?

A

<ul><li>A-C: Ocular infection: chlamydial conjunctivitis</li><li>D-K: classical GU infection</li><li>L1-L3: Lymphogrannuloma venereum(LGV), MSM, proctitis</li></ul>

258
Q

What group of people is L1-L3 chalmydial infections found in most commonly?

A

<ul><li>MSM</li></ul>

259
Q

Name some risk factors for chlamydia

A

<ul><li>&lt;25yrs</li><li>Recent change in sexual partner/infected partner</li><li>Co-infection with other STIs</li><li>Non-barrier contraception</li></ul>

260
Q

What does chlamydia in rpegnancy increase the risk of?

A

<ul><li>Low birth weight</li><li>Miscarriage</li></ul>

261
Q

What contact tracing should be done in patient with chlamydia?

A

<ul><li>Men with urethral sx: all partners 4 weeks prior to sx onset</li><li>asx men and women: last 6 months r most recent partner</li></ul>

262
Q

Name some complicatons of chlamydia

A

<div><ul><li>Reactive arthritis</li><li>Infertility</li><li>Epididymitis</li><li>PID</li><li>Endometritis</li><li>Increased incidence of ectopics</li><li>Perihepatitis</li></ul></div>

<br></br>

263
Q

Name some risk facotrs for gonorrhoea

A

<ul><li>&lt;225yrs</li><li>MSM</li><li>High density urban areas</li><li>Previous gonorrhoea infections</li><li>Multiple sexual partners</li></ul>

264
Q

Name some complications of gonorrhoea

A

<ul><li>PID</li><li>Epididdymo-orchitis.prostatitis</li><li>Dissminated gonococcal infection</li></ul>

265
Q

Name some complications of disseminated gonococcal infection

A

<ul><li>Septic arthriits: mc cause of septic arthritis in young people</li><li>Endocarditis</li><li>Perihepatitis</li></ul>

<div>Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome</div>

266
Q

What is gonorrhoea in pregnancy associated with?

A

<ul><li>Perinatal mortality</li><li>Spontaneous abortion</li><li>Premature labour</li><li>fetal membrane rupture</li><li>Vertical transmission-&gt; gonococcal conjunctivitis</li></ul>

267
Q

What are gential herpes?

A

<ul><li>Infectious disease that causes painful sores/ulceers on the genitals</li><li>HSV1/2</li></ul>

268
Q

What does HSV1 cause?

A

<ul><li>Oral/genital herpes-coldsores</li></ul>

269
Q

What does HSV2 cause?

A

<ul><li>Anogenital herpes</li></ul>

270
Q

Name some risk factors for developing gential herpes

A

<ul><li>Multiple sexual partners</li><li>Oral sex with partner with cold sores</li></ul>

271
Q

What are genital warts?

A

<ul><li>Benign epithelial/mucosal outgrowths caused by HPV</li></ul>

272
Q

Name some risk factors for developing genital warts

A

<ul><li>Early age at 1st sex</li><li>Multiple partnes</li><li>Smoking</li><li>Immunosuppression</li><li>Diabetes-&gt; persistence of warts</li></ul>

273
Q

Name some differentials for genital warts

A

<ul><li>Molluscum contagiosum</li><li>Condyloma lata(secondary syphilis)</li><li>Genital herpes</li><li>Skin tags</li></ul>

274
Q

What is a risk of gential warts in pregnancy?

A

<ul><li>Very low risk of transmission during birth-can cause respiraotry papillomatosis</li></ul>

275
Q

What is HIV?

A

<ul><li>Single stranded RNA retrovirus that infects and replicates in CD4(T helper) cells</li></ul>

276
Q

Name some risk factors for developing HIV

A

<ul><li>MSM</li><li>IVDU</li><li>High prevalence areas</li><li>Other STDs, breaks in skin</li></ul>

277
Q

What are the different stages of HIV infection?

A

<ol><li>Seroconversion illness</li><li>Symptomatic HIV</li><li>AIDS defining illness</li></ol>

278
Q

Name some AIDS defining illnesses/infections/malignancies

A

<ul><li>Pneumocystis jiroveci</li><li>Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma</li><li>TB</li></ul>

279
Q

What are NRTI’s? 

A

<ul><li>nuceloside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors</li><li>E.g. zidovudine, abacavir etc</li><li>General SE: peripheral neuropathy</li></ul>

280
Q

Is the cervical os open or closed in a threatened miscarriage?

A

<ul><li>Closed</li></ul>

281
Q

What are the surgical options for miscarriage management?

A

<ul><li>&lt;12 weeks: manual vacuum aspiration</li><li>&gt;12 weeks: evacuation of retained products of conception(ERPC)</li></ul>

282
Q

Name some causes of polyhydramnios

A

Idiopathic: 50-60% of cases<br></br><br></br>Excess production due to increased fetal urination:<br></br><ul><li>Maternal diabetes mellitus</li><li>Fetal renal disorders</li><li>Fetal anaemia</li><li>Twin to twin transfusion syndrome</li></ul><div>Insufficiency removal due to decreased fetal swallowing:</div><div><ul><li>Oeosphageal.duodenal atresia</li><li>Diaphragmatic disorders</li><li>Anencephaly</li><li>Chromosomal disorders</li></ul></div>

283
Q

What are some risks of amnioreduction in patients with polyhydramnios?

A

<ul><li>Infection</li><li>Placental abruption-&gt; sudden increase in intrauterine pressure</li></ul>

284
Q

What are the risks of indomethacin for polyhydramnios?

A

<ul><li>Associated with premature closure of ductus arteriosus(&lt;32 weeks only)</li></ul>

285
Q

Name some complications of polyhydramnios

A

<ul><li>Higher incidence of preterm labour</li><li>Malpresentation-fetus has more space to move within uterus</li><li>Higher risk fo cord prolapse</li><li>postpartum haemorrhage</li></ul>

286
Q

What is a prolonged pregnancy?

A

<ul><li>5-10% of pregnancies that persist after 42 weeks gestation</li></ul>

287
Q

Name some risk factors for a prolonged pregnancy

A

<ul><li>Nulliparity</li><li>Maternal age &gt;40yrs</li><li>Previous prolonged pregnancy/fhx</li><li>High BMI</li></ul>

288
Q

Name some symptoms patient with a prolonged pregnancy might experience

A

<ul><li>Static growth/macrosomia</li><li>Oligohydramnios</li><li>Decreased fetal movements</li><li>Presence of meconium</li><li>Dry/flaky skin with reduced vernix</li></ul>

289
Q

What investigations might be done in a patient with a prolonged pregnancy?

A

<ul><li>Datig between 11+0 and 13+6 wk gestation during 1st triemster scan</li><li>US scanning to check growth and liquor volume-&gt; poor prognostic value in determining placental functino and predicting fetal distress&nbsp;</li></ul>

290
Q

What are the 2 main types of placenta praevia?

A

<ul><li>Minor placenta praevia: placenta is low but not coverig cervical s</li><li>Major placenta praevia: placenta lies over internal cervical os</li></ul>

291
Q

What are the risks associated with placenta praevia?

A

<ul><li>Defective attachment to uterine wall-&gt; increased risk of haemorrhage</li><li>Bleeding can be spontaneous or from mild trauma</li><li>Placenta can be damaged as fetus moves into lower uterine segment</li></ul>

292
Q

Name some risk factors for placenta praevia

A

<ul><li>High parity</li><li>Age &gt;40yrs</li><li>Previous hx</li><li>Hx of endometritis</li><li>Curettage to endometrium post miscarriage</li></ul>

293
Q

What investigations might be done for a patient with suspected placenta praevia?

A

<ul><li>TV USS-&gt; short distance between lower edge of placenta and internal os</li><li>Further USS at 37 weeks to reassess placental position</li><li>Kleihour testl if RH negative doe anti D for feto-maternal haemorrhage</li><li>&gt;26 weeks: CTG to assess fetal wellbeing</li></ul>

294
Q

What are the 2 kinds of placental abruption

A

<ol><li>Revealed: bleeding tracks down and drains through cervix-&gt; vaginal bleeding</li><li>Concealed: Bleeding stays in uterus and forms clot retroplacentally-&gt; not visible-&gt; can cause systemic shock</li></ol>

295
Q

Name some risk factors for placental abruption

A

ABRUPTION<br></br><ul><li>Abruption previously</li><li>B: BP-hypertension/pre-eclampsia</li><li>R: ruptured membranes-preamture/prolonged</li><li>Uterine injury</li><li>Polyhydramnios</li><li>Twins/multiple gestation</li><li>Infection-chorioamnionitis</li><li>Older age: >35yrs</li><li>Narcotic use +smoking</li></ul>

296
Q

Name some differentials for placental abruption

A

<ul><li>Placenta praevia</li><li>Vasa praevia</li><li>Marginal placental bleeed</li><li>Uterine rupture</li><li>Local genital causes</li></ul>

297
Q

What investigations might be used in a patient with suspected placental abruption?

A

<ul><li>CTG</li><li>US-retroplacental haematoma-&gt; poor negative preedictive value(shouldn't be used to exclude abruption)</li></ul>

298
Q

What are the different kinds of breech presentation?

A

<ul><li>Complete(flexed)-cross legged</li><li>Frank(extended): legs flexed at hip and extended at knees-mc</li><li>Footling: Atl eeast one leg extended at hip so foot is presenting part</li></ul>

<div><img></img><br></br></div>

299
Q

Name some risk factors for breech presentation

A

Uterine:<br></br><ul><li>Multiparity</li><li>Fibroids</li><li>Placenta praevia</li><li>Uterine malformations</li></ul><div>Fetal:</div><div><ul><li>Prematurity</li><li>Macrosomia</li><li>Polyhydramnios</li><li>Twins</li></ul></div>

300
Q

Name some differentials for breech presentation

A

<ul><li>Oblique lie</li><li>Transverse lie</li><li>Unstable lie(position changes)</li></ul>

301
Q

Name some complications of external cephalic version

A

<ul><li>Transient/persistent heart rate abnormalities</li><li>Placental abruption</li></ul>

302
Q

Name some specific manouvers used during a vaginal breech birth

A

<ul><li>Flexing fetal knees</li><li>Lovsett's manoeuver(rotate body and deliver shoulders)</li><li>Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit(MSV) manoeuver</li></ul>

<div>If fails: forceps</div>

<div>'hands off': no tractions: fetal head would extend and get trapped</div>

303
Q

Name some complications of a breech presentation

A

<ul><li>Cord prolapse</li><li>Fetal head entrapment</li><li>Birth asphyxia-&gt; usually secondary from delay in delivery</li><li>Premature rupture of membranes</li><li>Intracranial haemorrhage-&gt; rapid head compression during delivery</li><li>Developmental dysplasia of the hip</li></ul>

304
Q

What are the different kinds of fetal lies

A

<ul><li>Longitudinal</li><li>Transverse&nbsp;</li><li>Oblique</li></ul>

305
Q

What are the different kinds of fetal presentation?

A

<ul><li>Cephalic-mc and safest</li><li>Shoulder</li><li>face</li><li>brow</li><li>breech</li></ul>

306
Q

What are the different kinds of fetal position?

A

<ul><li>Occipito-anterior: mc and ideal</li><li>Occipito posterior</li><li>Occipito transverse</li></ul>

307
Q

Name some risk factors for abnormal fetal lie/malpresentation/rotation

A

<ul><li>Prematurity</li><li>Multiple pregnancy</li><li>Fetal abnormalities</li><li>Placenta praevia</li><li>Primiparity</li><li>Uterine abnormalities(fibroids, partial septate uterus)</li></ul>

308
Q

Name some contraindications for external cephalic version

A

<ul><li>Recent APH</li><li>Rutpured membranes</li><li>Uterine abnormaliites</li><li>Prior C section</li></ul>

309
Q

Name some moderate risk factors for pre-eclampsia

A

<ul><li>Nulliparity</li><li>&gt;40yrs</li><li>High BMI</li><li>Multiple pregnancy</li></ul>

310
Q

Name some high risk factors for pre-eclampsia

A

<ul><li>Chronic hypertension</li><li>Previous eclampsia/pre-eclampsia</li><li>Diabetes</li><li>CKD</li><li>AI diseases: SLE, APS</li></ul>

311
Q

Name some differentials for pre-eclampsia

A

<ul><li>Essential hypertension</li><li>Pregnancy induced hypertension</li><li>Eclampsia</li></ul>

312
Q

What investigations might be done in a patient with suspected pre-eclampsia?

A

<ul><li>BP and proteinuria measurements</li><li>FBC: low Hb, low platelets</li><li>U&amp;Es: high urea, high creatinine, low urine output</li><li>LFTs: high ALT, high AST</li></ul>

313
Q

Name some maternal complications of pre-eclampsia

A

<ul><li>Eclampsia</li><li>Organ failure</li><li>DIC</li><li>HELLP syndrome</li></ul>

314
Q

Name some fetal complications of pre-eclampsia

A

<ul><li>Intrauterine growth restriction</li><li>Pre-term delivery</li><li>Placental abruption</li><li>Neonatal hypoxia</li></ul>

315
Q

What is eclampsia?

A

<ul><li>Occurence of one or more seizure in a pre-eclamptic women in the absence of another cause</li></ul>

316
Q

What investigations might be done in a patient with eclampsia?

A

<ul><li>Exclude other reversible causes of seizure and assess for complications: blood glucose, neuro workup</li><li>Abdo USS-&gt; rule out placental abruption</li></ul>

317
Q

Name some signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity

A

<ul><li>Hypo-reflexia</li><li>Respiratory distress</li></ul>

318
Q

What are the risks of BP treatment for a patient with eclampsia

A

<ul><li>If drop in BP is too rapid-&gt; fetal HR abnormalities-&gt; continuous CTG monitoring</li></ul>

319
Q

Name some differentials for eclampsia

A

<ul><li>Hypoglycaemia</li><li>Stroke</li><li>Head trauma</li><li>Pre-existing epilepsy</li><li>Meningitis</li><li>Medication induced</li></ul>

320
Q

Name some differentials for t<span>richomoniasis</span>

A

<ul><li>Bacterial vaginosis</li><li>Candidiasis</li><li>Gonorrhoea</li><li>Chlamydia</li></ul>

321
Q

Name some complications in females of t<span>richomoniasis</span>

A

<ul><li>Perinatal complications</li><li>HIV transmission</li><li>PID</li><li>Bacterial vaginosis</li><li>Cervical cancer risk</li><li>Infertility</li></ul>

322
Q

Name some complications in males of t<span>richomoniasis</span>

A

<ul><li>Prostatitis</li><li>HIV transmission</li><li>Prostate cancer risk</li><li>Infertility</li></ul>

323
Q

What is chancroid?

A

<ul><li>STI of the genital skin</li></ul>

324
Q

What causes chancroid?

A

<ul><li>Gram negative bacillus haemophilius ducreyi</li></ul>

325
Q

Name some risk factors for chancroid

A

<ul><li>Tropical areas</li><li>Poor living conditions</li><li>Lack of public health infrastructure</li></ul>

326
Q

Name some differentials for chancroid

A

<ul><li>HSV</li><li>Syphilis</li><li>Lymphogranuloma venereum</li></ul>

327
Q

Name some risk factors for l<span>ymphogranuloma venereum</span>

A

<ul><li>MSM</li><li>Tropics</li><li>Developed countries: concurrent HIV infection more common</li></ul>

328
Q

Name some differentials for lymphogranuloma venereum?

A

<ul><li>Primary syphilis</li><li>HSV</li><li>Chancroid</li></ul>

329
Q

What is balanitis?

A

<ul><li>Inflammation of the glans penis</li><li>Balanoposthitis: extends to underside of foreskin</li></ul>

330
Q

Name some causes of balanitis

A

<ul><li>Candidiasis</li><li>Dermatits</li><li>Bacterial-mc Staph spp</li><li>Anaerobic</li><li>Lichen planus</li><li>Lichen sclerosus</li></ul>

331
Q

What are the different stages of syphilis?

A

<ul><li>Primary</li><li>Secondary</li><li>Tertiary</li></ul>

332
Q

Name some differentials for syphilis

A

Primary:<br></br><ul><li>Herpes</li><li>Lymphgranuloma venereum</li><li>Malignancy</li></ul><div>Secondary:</div><div><ul><li>HIV</li><li>Mono</li><li>Malignancy</li></ul><div>Tertiary:</div></div><div><ul><li>Dementia</li><li>Psych conditions</li><li>Chronic granulomatous lesions</li></ul></div>

333
Q

Name some causes of a false positive non-treponemal test for syphilis

A

<ul><li>Pregnancy</li><li>SLE</li><li>APS</li><li>TB</li><li>Leprosy</li><li>Malaria</li><li>HIV</li></ul>

334
Q

What conclusion could be drawn from a positive non-treponemal test and positive treponemal test for syphilis?

A

<ul><li>Consistent with active syphilis infection</li></ul>

335
Q

What conclusion could be drawn from a positive non-treponemal test and negative treponemal test for syphilis?

A

<ul><li>False positive syphilis result</li></ul>

336
Q

What conclusion could be drawn from a negative non-treponemal test and positive treponemal test for syphilis?

A

<ul><li>Successfully treated syphilis</li></ul>

337
Q

What is a Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?

A

<ul><li>May occur on treatment initiation for syphilis</li><li>Rash, fever, tachycardia after 1st dose NO wheeze/hypotension</li><li>Due to release of endotoxins following bacterial death</li><li>Tx: reassuring and antipyretics</li></ul>

338
Q

Name some complications of syphilis

A

<ul><li>Neurosyphilis: general paresis, tabes dorsalis, meningitis, ocular/auditory abnormalities</li><li>CVR: aortic aneurysm, regurg, angina, heart failure</li><li>Gummatous syphilis: granulomatous lesions affecting skin and bone</li><li>HIV transmission facilitation</li></ul>

339
Q

Name some complications of syphilis in pregnancy

A

<ul><li>Hydrops</li><li>Preterm labour</li><li>Low birth weight</li><li>Fetal loss</li><li>Congeital syphilis of the newborn</li></ul>

340
Q

What is intraductal papilloma?

A

<ul><li>Benign tumour: local areas of epithelial proliferation in large mammary ducts</li><li>Hyperplastic lesions rather than malignant</li></ul>

341
Q

What is a breast cyst?

A

<ul><li>Benign fluid-filled sacs inside the breast</li></ul>

342
Q

What groups of people are more likely to get breast cysts?

A

<ul><li>Women before menopause: &lt;50yrs</li><li>Post menopausal women on HRT</li></ul>

343
Q

What is HELLP syndrome?

A

<ul><li>Complication of pregnancy characterised by hemolysis(H), elevated liver enzymes(EL) and low platelets(LP)</li></ul>

344
Q

What can HELLP syndrome follow on from?

A

<ul><li>Severe pre-eclampsia: 10-20% of patients go on to get HELLP</li><li>Considered separate disorder</li></ul>

345
Q

Name some differentials for HELLP syndrome

A

<ul><li>Acute fatty liver of pregnancy</li><li>ITP</li><li>TTP</li></ul>

346
Q

Name somme investigations for HELLP syndrome

A

<ul><li>FBC: low platelets, hemolysis</li><li>LFTs: elevated liver enzymes</li><li>Coags: assess for DIC</li><li>US: liver abnormlities and placental abruption</li></ul>

347
Q

Name some maternal complications of HELLP syndrome

A

<ul><li>Organ failure</li><li>Placental abruption</li><li>DIC</li></ul>

348
Q

Name some fetal complications of HELLP syndrome

A

<ul><li>Intrauterine growth restriction</li><li>Preterm delivery</li><li>Neonatal hypoxia</li></ul>

349
Q

What is cord prolapse?

A

<ul><li>Umbilical cord descends through the cervix into the vagina before the presenting part of the feotus</li></ul>

350
Q

Name some risk factors associated with cord prolapse

A

<ul><li>Abnormal lie: breech, transverse</li><li>Multiple pregnancy</li><li>Polyhydramnios</li><li>High fetal head at deliveery</li><li>Multiparity</li><li>Low birth weight</li><li>Prematurity</li><li>Premature rupture of membranes</li></ul>

351
Q

Name some differentials for cord prolapse

A

<ul><li>Cord presentation</li><li>Funic presentation</li><li>Vaginal bleeding or unkown origin</li></ul>

352
Q

Name some risk factors for vasa praevia

A

<ul><li>Multiparity</li><li>Previous C sectionn</li><li>IVF</li><li>Velamentous cord insertion-BIG one</li></ul>

353
Q

Name some differentials for vasa praevia

A

<ul><li>Placenta praevia-no change in fetal hr unless maternal haemorrhage</li><li>Placental abruption</li><li>Premature rupture of membranes</li></ul>

354
Q

Name some complications of vasa praevia

A

<ul><li>Fetal exsanguination: rupture or unprotected vessels</li><li>Hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy</li><li>Preterm labour</li><li>Intrauterine growth restriction-&gt; compromised placental perfusion</li></ul>

355
Q

Name some risk factors for peruperal psychosis

A

<ul><li>Hx of schizophrenia</li><li>Hx of bipolar affective disorder</li><li>FHx/hx of postpartum psychosis</li></ul>

356
Q

Name a differential for peurperal psychosis

A

<ul><li>Postpartum depression</li><li>Baby blues</li></ul>

357
Q

Name 2 antipsychotics that are safe for use in breastfeeding

A

<ul><li>olanzapine</li><li>quetiapine</li></ul>

358
Q

Name some risk factors for postpartum depression

A

<ul><li>Low socioeconomic status</li><li>History of mental health disorders</li><li>Lack of social support</li></ul>

359
Q

Name some differentials for postpartum depression

A

<ul><li>Baby blues</li><li>Postpartum psychosis</li><li>Adjustment disorders</li><li>GAD</li></ul>

360
Q

Name some fetal complications of PPROM

A

<ul><li>Prematurity</li><li>Infection</li><li>Pulmonary hyoplasia</li></ul>

361
Q

Name a maternal complication of PPROM

A

<ul><li>Chorioamnionitis</li></ul>

362
Q

Name some risk factors for primary postpartum haemorrhage

A

<ul><li>Previous PPH</li><li>Prolonged labour</li><li>Pre-eclampsia</li><li>Increase maternal age</li><li>Polyhydramnios</li><li>Emergency C-section</li><li>Plaacenta praevia/accreta</li><li>BMI&gt;35</li><li>Instrumental delivery and episiotomy</li></ul>

363
Q

What investigations might be done in a patient with postpartum haemorrhage

A

<ul><li>Bloods for group/save and crossmatch</li><li>Consider FFP if clotting abnormalities</li><li>Secondary: US looking for retained products of conception</li><li>Endocervical/high vaginal swabs-infection</li></ul>

364
Q

What health professionals are needed for a termination of pregnancy?

A

<ul><li>2 registered medical practitioners mmust sign legal document(only one needed in emergency)</li><li>Must be performed by a registered medical practitioner and done in an NHS hospital or licensed premise</li></ul>

365
Q

What advice is there regarding anti D and termination of pregnancy?

A

<ul><li>Anti-D prophylaxis should be given to women who are rhesus D negative and having an abortion after 10 weeks gestation</li></ul>

366
Q

Name some side effects/complications of medical termination of pregnancy

A

<ul><li>Severe nausea</li><li>Cramps</li><li>Diarrhoea</li><li>Vaginal bleeeding</li><li>Incomplete termination of pregnancy-&gt; must be maanaged surgically</li></ul>

367
Q

Name some side effects/complications of surgical termination of pregnancy

A

<ul><li>Retained products of conception</li><li>Haemorrhage</li><li>Infection</li><li>Perforation</li></ul>

368
Q

Name some risks of trichomoniasis vaginalis in pregnancy

A

<ul><li>Premature births</li><li>Low birth weight</li><li>Maternal postpartum sepsis</li></ul>

369
Q

What is a uterine rupture?

A

<ul><li>Full-thickness disruption of the uterine muscle and overlying serosa</li><li>Can extend to affect bladder and broad ligament</li></ul>

<div><br></br></div>

<div><img></img><br></br></div>

370
Q

What are the 2 main types of uterine rupture?

A

<ul><li>Incomplete: peritoneum overlying uterus is intact-uterine contents remain inside</li><li>Compleete: peritoneum is torn and uterine contents can escape into peritoneal cavity</li></ul>

371
Q

Name some risk factors for uterine rupture

A

<ul><li>Previous C-section(especially classical/vertical incision)</li><li>Previous uterine surgery</li><li>Induction(esp prostaglandins or augmentation of labour)</li><li>Obstruction of labour</li><li>Multiple pregnancy</li><li>Multiparity</li></ul>

372
Q

Name some differentials for a uterine rupture

A

<ul><li>Placental abruption</li><li>Placenta praevia</li><li>Vasa praevia</li></ul>

373
Q

What investigations might be done for a patient with a suspected uterine rupture

A

<ul><li>USS: abnormal fetal lie/presentation, haemoperitoneum and absent uterine wall</li><li>CTG: ;changes in fetal heart rate patern and prolonged fetal bradycardia: early indicators for uterine rupture</li></ul>

374
Q

Name some causes of folic acid deficiency

A

<ul><li>Phenytoin</li><li>Methotrexate</li><li>Pregnancy</li><li>Alcohol excess</li></ul>

375
Q

Name some connsequences of folic acid deficiency

A

<ul><li>Macrocytic, megaloblastic anaemia</li><li>Neural tube defects</li></ul>

376
Q

What advice should be given around pregnancy and folic acid?

A

<ul><li>All women should take 400mcg folic acid until 12th week of pregnancy</li><li>Women at higher risk of children with neural tube defects should take 5mg folic acid from before conception to 12th week</li></ul>

377
Q

Name some risk factors for developing gestational diabetea

A

<ul><li>BMI&gt;30kg/m2</li><li>Previous macrosomic baby weighing &gt;=4.5kg</li><li>Previous gestational diabetes</li><li>1st degree relatives with diabetes</li><li>Ethnic backgrounds with high prevalence of diabetes(middle easterm south asian, afro-caribbean)</li><li>Hx of stilllbirth/perinatal death</li></ul>

378
Q

Name some fetal complications of gestational diabetes

A

<ul><li>Macrosomia(birtthweight &gt;4kg)-&gt; shoulder dystocia, birth injuries and C section</li><li>Sacral agenesis&nbsp;</li><li>Pre-term delivery and neonatal respiratory distress syndrome</li><li>Neonatal hypoglycaemia</li><li>Increased risk of T2DM later in life</li></ul>

379
Q

Name some maternal complications of gestational diabetes

A

<ul><li>Increased risk of hypertension and pre-eclampsia</li><li>Increased risk of T2DM and gestational diabetes in subsequent pregnancies</li></ul>

380
Q

What is hypertension defined as in pregnancy?

A

<ul><li>Systolic &gt;140mmHg or diastolic &gt;90mmHg OR</li><li>Increase above booking readings of &gt;30 systolic or &gt;15 diastolic</li></ul>

381
Q

What are women with pregnancy induced hypertension more at risk of later in life?

A

<ul><li>Future pre-eclampsia</li><li>Future hypertension</li></ul>

382
Q

Name some risk factors for Group B strep infection

A

<ul><li>Prematurity</li><li>Prolonged rupture of membranes</li><li>Previous sibling GBS infection</li><li>Maternal pyrexia (e.g. secondary to chorioamnionitis)</li></ul>

383
Q

Name some clinical features of Group B strep infection in the newborn

A

<ul><li>Sepsis</li><li>Pneumonia</li><li>Meningitis</li></ul>

384
Q

Name some maternal risks of obesity in pregnancy

A

<ul><li>Miscarriage</li><li>VTE</li><li>Gestational diabetes</li><li>Pre-eclampsia</li><li>Postpartum haemorrhage</li><li>Wound infections</li><li>Higher C section rate</li></ul>

385
Q

Name some fetal risks of maternal obesity in pregnancy

A

<ul><li>Congenital abnormality</li><li>Prematurity</li><li>Macrosomia</li><li>Stillbirth</li><li>Increased risk of developing obesity and metabolic disorders in childhood</li><li>Neonatal death</li></ul>

386
Q

What is cephalopelvic disproportion?

A

<ul><li>Mismatch between size of fetal head and maternal pelvis causing difficulty in the safe passage of the fetus through the birth canal</li></ul>

387
Q

Name some causes of absolute cephalopelvic disproportion

A

Maternal:<br></br><ul><li>Contracted pelvis</li><li>Spondylolisthesis</li></ul><div>Fetal:</div><div><ul><li>Hydrocephalus</li><li>Macrosomia</li></ul></div>

388
Q

Name some causative factors for prolonged labour

A

<ul><li>Cephalopelvic disproportion</li><li>Insufficient uterine contractions</li><li>Fetal malpresentation</li><li>Macrosomia</li><li>Anomalies in birth canal</li></ul>

389
Q

Name some complications of prolonged labour

A

<ul><li>Maternal exhaustion</li><li>Post partum haemorrhage</li><li>Post partum infection</li><li>Fetal distress: hypoxia or acidosis</li></ul>

390
Q

Name some differentials for obstetric cholestasis

A

<ul><li>Prurigo of pregnancy</li><li>Pruritus gravidarum</li><li>Other hepatobiliary dirsorders</li></ul>

391
Q

What investigations might be done for obstetric cholestasis

A

<ul><li>LFT's-. raissed bilirubin</li><li>Bile acid measurements</li><li>Fetal monitoring may be required&nbsp; due ot risk of spontaneous intrauterine death</li></ul>

392
Q

What is chorioamnionitis?

A

<ul><li>Bacterial infection that affects the amniotic sac and amniotic fluid within the uterus</li><li>Life threatening emergency to both mother and fetus</li></ul>

393
Q

What is a major risk factor for chorioamnionitis?

A

<ul><li>Preterm premature rupture of membranes: expose normally sterile environment of uterus to pathogens</li></ul>

394
Q

Name some signs and symptoms of chorioamnionitis

A

<ul><li>Fever</li><li>Abdo pain</li><li>Offensive vaginal discharge</li><li>Evidence of preterm rupture of memebranes</li><li>Maternal and fetal tachycardia</li><li>Pyrexia</li><li>Uterine tenderness</li></ul>

395
Q

Name some differentials for chorioamnionitis

A

<ul><li>UTI</li><li>Appendicitis</li><li>Placental abruption</li></ul>

396
Q

What is female genital multilation?

A

<ul><li>Harful practice of injuring or cutting the female genitalia for non-medical reasons</li></ul>

397
Q

Name some risk factors for shoulder dystocia

A

<ul><li>Maternal gestational diabetes</li><li>Macrosomia</li><li>Birthweight &gt;4kg</li><li>Advanced maternal age</li><li>Maternal short stature/small pelvis</li><li>Maternal obesity</li><li>Post-dates pregnancy/prolonged labour</li></ul>

398
Q

Name some internal rotational manoeuvres used in shoulder dystocia management

A

<ul><li>Woods' screw: anterior shoulder pushed towards fetal chest and posterior shoulder pushed towards fetal back</li><li>Rubin 2: rotate anerior shoulder towards fetal chest</li></ul>

399
Q

What is celidotomy?

A

<ul><li>Division of fetal clavicle</li></ul>

400
Q

Name some maternal complications of shoulder dystocia

A

<ul><li>PPH</li><li>Perineal tears</li><li>Genital tract trauma</li></ul>

401
Q

Name some fetal complications of shoulder dystocia

A

<ul><li>brachial plexus injury</li><li>Neonatal death</li><li>Hypoxic brain damage</li><li>Humeral/clavicle fractures</li></ul>

402
Q

Name some risk factors for anaemia in pregnancy

A

<ul><li>Haemoglopinathies: thalassaemia/sickle cell disease</li><li>Increasing maternal age</li><li>Low socioeconomic staus</li><li>Poor diet</li><li>Anaemia during previous pregnancy</li></ul>

403
Q

Name some differentials for congenital rubella syndrome

A

<ul><li>Toxoplasmosis</li><li>CMV</li><li>HSV</li><li>Syphillis</li><li>VZV</li></ul>

404
Q

Name some risk factors for perineal tears

A

<ul><li>Primigravida</li><li>Large babies</li><li>Precipitant labour</li><li>Shoulder dystocia</li><li>Forceps delivery</li></ul>

405
Q

What is an amniotic fluid embolism?

A

<ul><li>Life threatening condition that occurs when amniotic fluid or other debris enters the maternal circulation</li></ul>

406
Q

Name some differentials for an amniotic fluid embolism

A

<ul><li>Septic shock</li><li>Anaphylactic shock</li><li>PE</li><li>Hypovolaemia shock</li></ul>

407
Q

What is hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

<ul><li>Severe nausea and vomiting commencing before the 20th week gestation</li><li>Different to 'morning sickness' -more severe</li></ul>

408
Q

What is hyperemesis gravidarum thought to be related to?

A

<ul><li>Raised B hCG levels</li></ul>

409
Q

Name some risk factors for hyperemesis gravidarum

A

<ul><li>Increased levels of B-hCG-multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease</li><li>Nulliparity</li><li>Obesity</li><li>Personal/family hx of hyperemesis gravidarum</li></ul>

410
Q

Name a protective factor for hyperemesis gravidarum

A

<ul><li>Smoking</li></ul>

411
Q

What criteria should be met for a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

<ol><li>5% pre-pregnancy weight loss</li><li>Dehydration</li><li>Electrolyte imbalance</li></ol>

412
Q

Name some differentials for<b> </b>hyperemesis gravidarum

A

<ul><li>Infections: gastroenteritis, UTI, hepatitis, meningitis</li><li>GI: appendicitis, cholecystitis, bowel obstruction</li><li>Metabolic: DKA, thyrotoxicosis</li><li>Drug toxicity</li><li>Molar rpegnancy</li></ul>

413
Q

What is a risk of odansetron use in pregnancy?

A

<ul><li>In first trimester: increased risk of cleft lip/palate</li></ul>

414
Q

Name some complications of hyperemesis gravidarum

A

<ul><li>AKI</li><li>Wernicke's encephalopathy</li><li>Oesophagitis</li><li>Mallory-Weiss tear</li><li>VTE</li></ul>

415
Q

What is acute fatty liver of pregnancy?

A

<ul><li>Severe, rare, liver disease related to pregnancy which can result in hepatic failure and results in immediate medical and obstetric intervention</li></ul>

416
Q

Name some risk factors for acute fatty liver of pregnancy

A

<ul><li>Fetal homozygous mutation for long chain 3 hydroxyl CoA dehydrogenase</li><li>Multiple pregnancies</li><li>Male fetuses</li></ul>

417
Q

Name some signs and symptoms of acute fatty liver of pregnancy

A

<ul><li>N+V</li><li>Headache</li><li>Anorexia</li><li>Abdo pain</li><li>Can rapidly progress to liver failure: HE, jaundice, hypoglycaemia and coagulopathy</li></ul>

418
Q

What criteria can be used to diagnose acute fatty liver of pregnancy

A

<ul><li>Swansea criteria</li></ul>

419
Q

What are the best predictors for the need for liver transplantation or risk of maternal death in acute fatty liver of pregnancy

A

<ul><li>Elevated lactate levels+hepatic encephalopathy</li></ul>

420
Q

What are the 3 stages of postpartum thyroiditis?

A

<ol><li>Thyrotoxicosis</li><li>Hypothyroidism</li><li>Normal thryoid function(high recurrence rate in future pregnancies)</li></ol>

421
Q

What antibodies are found in postpartum thyroidits?

A

<ul><li>Thyroid peroxidase antibodies in 90%</li></ul>

422
Q

Name some risk factors for VTE that might suggest the need for postnatal thromboprophylaxis

A

>=4:<br></br><ul><li>Previous VTE</li><li>Thrombophilia</li><li>Medical comorbidities(cancer, heart failure, systemic inflammatory conditions)</li><li>Age >35yrs</li><li>Parity >3</li><li>BMI>30</li><li>Smoking</li><li>Multiple pregnancy</li><li>Pre-eclampsia</li><li>C-section</li><li>Prolonged labour</li><li>Obstructed delivery</li><li>Preterm birth</li><li>Stillbirth</li><li>Postpartum haemorrhage >1000mL</li><li>Other surgical prcedure carried out</li><li>Immobility</li><li>Systemic infection</li></ul>

423
Q

Name some causes of obstructed labour

A

<ul><li>Head: large fetal head/cephalopelvic disproportion, hydrocephalus</li><li>Presentation: brow, face, shoulder, persistent malposition</li><li>Twin pregnancy: locked/conjoined twins</li><li>Bony pelvis: contracted(malposition), deformed(trauma, polio)</li><li>Soft tissue: tumour in pelvis, viral infection from uterus/abdomen, scars(FGM)</li></ul>

424
Q

Name some complications from an obstructed labour

A

<ul><li>Fistula-mc</li><li>PPH</li><li>Sepsis</li><li>Paralytic ileus</li><li>noenatal sepsis</li><li>Asphyxia of the baby</li><li>Facila injury of the baby</li></ul>

425
Q

What is intrauterine growth restriction?

A

<ul><li>Fetus is unable to reach its genetically determined potential size</li></ul>

426
Q

Name some maternal causes of intrauterine growth restriction

A

<ul><li>Maternal BMI and nutritional status</li><li>Co-morbidities: diabetes, anaemia, htn, infeciton, sickle cell, CVR/renal disease, coelia</li><li>Cigarette smoking, alchol and substance abuse</li><li>Structural uterine malformations</li></ul>

427
Q

Name dome fetal causes of intrauterine growth restriction

A

<ul><li>Chromosomal defects</li><li>Multiple pregnancy</li><li>Vertically transmitted infection(CMV, rubella, toxoplasmosis)</li></ul>

428
Q

Name some placental causes of intrauterine growth restriction

A

<ul><li>Utero-placental insufficiency</li><li>Pre-eclampsia</li></ul>

429
Q

Name some differentials for intrauterine growth restriction

A

<ul><li>Normal physiological variation</li><li>Constitutional smallness-&gt; small for gestational age but healthy</li><li>Chromosomal abnormalities</li></ul>

430
Q

What investigations might be done for intrauterine growth restriction?

A

<ul><li>USS: fetal biometry, amniotic fluid volume, placental appearance</li><li>Doppler studies: blood flow in umbilical artery, middle cerebral and ductus venosus</li><li>Biophysical profile to assess fetal wellbeing</li></ul>

431
Q

What are the risks to the baby if exposed to VZV in pregnancy?

A

<ul><li>Fetal varicella syndrome</li><li>Shingles in infancy</li><li>Severe neonatal varicella</li></ul>

432
Q

Name some risk factors for placental insufficiency

A

<ul><li>Maternal hypertensive disorders</li><li>Smoking, alcohol consumption and drug use</li><li>Primiparity</li><li>Advanced maternal age</li><li>Use of antiepileptics/antineoplastics</li></ul>

433
Q

What factor would make a pregnant woman immediately high risk for VTE?

A

<ul><li>Prevous VTE history</li></ul>

434
Q

What are monozygotic twins?

A

<ul><li>Identical-fertilisation of one egg and one sperm</li></ul>

435
Q

What are dizygotic twins? Describe the features

A

<ul><li>Non-identical</li><li>Fertilisation of 2 different eggs with 2 different sperms</li><li>All will be dichorionic and diamnotic(2 outer separate sacs and inner sacs) and separate placentas</li></ul>

436
Q

Name some complications associated with monoamniotic monozygotic twins

A

<ul><li>Increased spontaenous miscarriage</li><li>Increased malformations, IUGR, prematurity</li><li>Twin to twin transfusion syndrome</li></ul>

437
Q

Name some predisposing factors for dizygotic twins

A

<ul><li>Previous twins</li><li>Fhx</li><li>Increasing maternal age</li><li>Multigravida</li><li>Induced ovulation and IVF</li><li>Race(Afro-Caribbean)</li></ul>

438
Q

Name some antenatal complications of monozygotic twins

A

<ul><li>Polyhydramnnios</li><li>Pregnancy induced hypertension</li><li>Anaemia</li><li>Antepartum haemorrhage</li></ul>

439
Q

Name some fetal omplications of monozygotic twins

A

<ul><li>Perinatal mortality (twins x5, triplets x 10)</li><li>Prematurity</li><li>Light for date babies</li><li>Malformation(x3)</li></ul>

440
Q

Name some labour complications of monozygotic twins

A

<ul><li>Increased PPH risk(x2)</li><li>Malpresentation</li><li>Cord prolapse, entanglement</li></ul>

441
Q

Name some differentials for twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome

A

<ul><li>Anaemia</li><li>Cardiac failure</li><li>Hydrops fetalis</li></ul>

442
Q

What is asymptomatic bacteriuria

A

<ul><li>Positive urine culture without UTI sx</li></ul>

443
Q

What is a puerperal infection?

A

<ul><li>Occurs when bacteria infect the uterus and surrounding areas after birth</li></ul>

444
Q

What are the types of puerperal infections?

A

<ul><li>Endometritis-uterine lining</li><li>Myometritis: uterine muscle</li><li>Parametritis(aka pelvic cellulitis): supportive tissue around uterus</li></ul>

445
Q

Name some complications of puerperal infection

A

<ul><li>Sepsis-&gt; organ failure and shock</li><li>Increased risk of infertility/ectopic pregnancy</li></ul>

446
Q

What is constitutional delay?

A

<ul><li>Delay in puberty and growth with no medical cause-do reach normal height</li><li>Check fhx for delay in puberty</li></ul>

447
Q

Name some causes of primary amenorrhoea

A

<ul><li>Primary hypergonadotropism: Turners</li><li>Primary hypogonadotropism: Kallmann's<br></br></li><li>Androgen insensitivity syndrome</li><li>Imperforated hymen</li></ul>

448
Q

What investigations might be done to investigate primary amenorrrhoea

A

<ul><li>Urine BHcg</li><li>HbA1c</li><li>Blood hormones: oestrogen, progesterone, testosterone, FSH ad LH</li><li>Prolactin, thyroid function, IGF1, estradiol</li></ul>

449
Q

Name some causes of secondary amenorrhoea

A

<ul><li>Sheehan's</li><li>Asherman's</li><li>Breastfeeding</li><li>Contraceptives</li><li>Stress/exercise induced</li><li>PCOS</li><li>Ovvarian failure</li></ul>

450
Q

What is Ashermann’s syndrome?

A

<ul><li>Intrauterine adhesions formed typically as a result of surgery/infeciton and trauma to uterus</li></ul>

451
Q

What investigations might be done for secondary amenorrhoea?

A

<ul><li>Pregnancy test</li><li>Bloods including hormones</li><li>USS/MRI</li><li>Endometrial biospy</li></ul>

452
Q

Name some causes of menorrhagia

A

<ul><li>Idiopathic</li><li>Fibroids</li><li>Adenomyosis</li><li>Polyps</li><li>Endometriosis</li><li>IUD coontraception</li><li>Bleedig disorders</li></ul>

453
Q

What is infertility?

A

<ul><li>Diminished ability of a coupe to conceive a child</li><li>Can be from a definable cause: ovulatory, tubal or sperm problems or</li><li>Unexplained failure to conceive over a two year period despite regule(3-4 times/week) unprotected sexual intercourse</li></ul>

454
Q

Name some factors affecting natural fertility

A

<ul><li>Increasing age</li><li>Obesity</li><li>Smoking</li><li>Tight fitting underwear</li><li>Excessive alchohol consumption</li><li>Anabolic steroid use</li><li>Illicit drug use</li></ul>

455
Q

Name some genetic causes of infertility

A

<ul><li>Turner's(XO)</li><li>Kleinfelter's(XXY)</li></ul>

456
Q

Name some cervical abnormalities that can cause infertility

A

Cervical damage after biopsy/LLETZ procedure

457
Q

Name some testicular disorders that can result in infertility

A

<ul><li>Cryptochordism</li><li>Varcicele</li><li>Testicular cancer</li><li>Congenital testicular defects</li></ul>

458
Q

Name some ejaculatory disorders that can cause infertility

A

<ul><li>Obstruction of ejaculatory system</li><li>Retrograde ejaculation</li></ul>

459
Q

What does anti-mullerian hormone show?

A

<ul><li>Measure of ovarian reserve</li></ul>

460
Q

In what condition might you find a ‘woody’ uterus?

A

<ul><li>Placental abruption</li></ul>