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PCP-1902 > Segment #2 > Flashcards

Segment #2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the vicious circle in MI’s?

A

Decreased 02/nutrients available makes heart work harder to movement ore blood for supply which in turn raises demand

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2
Q

Insulin is produced by?

A

Beta cells

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3
Q

Valium, Ativan, versed, rohypnol are examples of?

A

Benzos

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4
Q

Opioids active what receptors?

A

MU, Kappa

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5
Q

What is group beating

A

A pattern of repetitive arms complexes

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6
Q

What is parasystole?

A

A ectopic, independent RYTHM that operates concurrently with the dominant rhythm whose foci cant be discharged by the dominant pacemaker impulses.

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7
Q

How many total vertebrae?

A

33

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8
Q

GTPLAM means?

A 
G: gravida
T: Term
P: Para
L:Number of LIVING children
A: Abortus
M: Multiple births
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9
Q

Definition of Arrhythmia

A

Irregularly or absence of a heartbeat

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10
Q

Cipro, Bactrin, flagyl, amoxil, ampiciliian are examples of what?

A

Antibiotics

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11
Q

What does osteblasts and class respond to?

A

Estrogen

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12
Q

What are the 4 types of connectors most often seen in iv admin sets?

A

1-slip type
2-Luer lock
3-slip Liebr

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13
Q

4 general causes of anemia?

A

1-impaired RBC production
2-increased RBC production
3-blood loss
4-combination of the above

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14
Q

What is the skin like in neuro shock?

A

Pink, warm, dry

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15
Q

Diphenhydramine is example of what?

A

Antihistamines

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16
Q

Neo Nate rec triangle

A 
Dry
Warm
Position
Suction
Stimulate
02
BVM
ETT
Chest compressions
Medications
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17
Q

Metoprolol, atenolol, sotalol (beta blockers)

Amlodipine, adalat (calcium channel blockers) are examples of what drug?

A

Antiarrythmias

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18
Q

Varices is caused by what?

A

Cirrhosis of the liver which increae hepatoportal pressure

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19
Q

The condition after a seizure is called?

A

Todds paralysis

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20
Q

Valium goes in what site?

A

Rectal

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21
Q

What is polycythemia?

A

An increase in the amount of circulation RBC’s

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22
Q

What is super Hep?

A

D

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23
Q

Gallstones is called?

A

Biliary Colic

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24
Q

If apgar score is _____ must start CPR

A

-6

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25
Q
  1. Lassifications of drugs are what?
    1: tricyclics: Amitryptaline, desipramine, doexpin, imipramine
    2 MAOi’s: Maryland, nardil, parnate
    3: SSRI proxac, fluxetine, Paxil, Zoloft
    4-atypical: Wellbutrin, Effexor
A

Antidepressants

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26
Q

What is Idiojunctional RYTHM

A

Relatively slow, independent RYTHM that arises in the av junction and controls the ventricles.

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27
Q

90% of diabetes are..?

A

Type 2, NIDDM

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28
Q

Coumadin (warfarin), heparin are examples of what?

A

Anticoagulants/ antiplatelet

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29
Q

What is Empyema?

A

Collection of puss/exudates in pleural space

-generally from previous lung infection that has spread

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30
Q

What are the 3 basic types of iv catheters?

A

1-plastic catehtorers inserted over hollow needles
2-palastic catheters unserted through hollow needle or over a guide wire
3-hollow need (butterfly type)

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31
Q

3 major vessels most frequently injured in vascular structure injury are?

A

1-aorta
2-inferior vena cava
3-renal, messenteric, and iliac arteries and veins

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32
Q

3 cirrhosis causes

A

1-alcohol abuse
2-hep b and c
3-autoimmune dieseae

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33
Q

Small punches in the colons that bulge outward through weak spots.

A

Diverculosis

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34
Q

Furosemide (lasix) aldactone, hyrocholothiazide, diuril examples of what?

A

Diuretics

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35
Q

APGAR means

A 
Appearance
Pulse
Grimace
Activity
Respiration’s
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36
Q

What are the 4 types of hemophilia?

A

1-A
2-B (Christmas)
3-C
4-Von Willebrand disease

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37
Q

What kind of hypertension has strongest link to atherosclerosis as main cause?

A

Primary

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38
Q

For CVA what is the timeline for when we pick up to delivery to CT?

A

4.5 hrs

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39
Q

What is Virchows Triad? Hint, for DVT

A

1-hypercoagulabliity
2-blood stasis
3-vessel damascene

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40
Q

Esophageal varices is often caused by what?

A

Liver cirrhosis

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41
Q

stages of acute renal failure

A

1-prerenal
2-renal
3-postrenal

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42
Q

How many bones in appendicular and axial?

A

Appen: 126
Axial: 80

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43
Q

What seizure consists ofbehavioural change and altered LOC?

A

Complex partial

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44
Q

2 major types of biliary colic?

A

1-cholesterol gallstones( too much fatty foods)

2-pigment gallstones (bilirubin)

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45
Q

What abd issue has kussmauls resps?

A

Chronic renal failure

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46
Q

What is renal colic?

A

Kidney stones

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47
Q

What inch needle for IM

A

1-1.5 inch

19-23 gauge

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48
Q

Glucagon is produced by..?

A

Alpha cells

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49
Q

What are the 9 fracture types?

A 
1- open
2-closed
3-compression
4-colles 
5-greenstick
6-transverse
7-oblique
8-simple
9-comminuted
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50
Q

What chronic disorder is muscular dystrophy caused by degeneration of motor neurons of the spinal cord?

A

ALS/ Lou Gehrigs

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51
Q

What tunica has semilunar valves designed to prevent backflow and ensure the flow of blood toward the heart?

A

-tunics intima (inner)

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52
Q

What 2 organs are primary sources of exsanguinations?

A

Liver and spleen

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53
Q

3 types of angina pain?

A

1-stable
2-variant (prinzmetal)
3-unstable

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54
Q

What infection can be life threatening?

A

Infectious

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55
Q

What is epiglottitis?

A

Bacterial infection of epiglottis

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56
Q

What seizure is a form of epilepsy involving buried alteration in movement, sensation or nerve function caused by abnormal electirucal activity in localized area of the brain?

A

Jacksonian

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57
Q

What is a bundle branch block

A

An abnormality in cardiac impulse conduction through the fibres of the bundle of his

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58
Q

What is the time of flow rate equation?

A

Volume x gtt/ml
——————-
Gtt/min

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59
Q

What headaches are typically more intense at night?

A

Cluster

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60
Q

____ poisoning exhibits a similar clinical picture or organophosphate posioning

A

Carbamate

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61
Q

What disorder is a infection of the brain tissue by a bacteria or virus which usually occurs first in another area of the body and migrates to the brain?

A

Encephalitis

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62
Q

3 classifications of connections at joints?

A

1-immovable
2-slightly moveable
3-highly moveable

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63
Q

What are the 4 dorms of Artherosclerosis?

A

1-PVD
2-Aortic problems
3-CVA
4-CAD

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64
Q

2 main types of dialysis

A

1-hemodialysis

2-peritoneal dialysis

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65
Q

When is paraplegic?

A

Thoracic

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66
Q

When is quadriplegia?

A

Cervical

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67
Q

What is AV dissociation

A

The independent beating of the atria and ventricles

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68
Q

What is potentiation?

A

A synergistic action in which the effect of 2 drudge given simultaneously is greater than the effect of the drugs given separertly

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69
Q

What 4 types does IV solutions come in?

A

1-Crystaloids
2-Colloids
3-Blood
4-Oxygen carrying fluids

“COBB” salad

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70
Q

When seizure last more than 30 mins it is called?

A

Status epilepticus

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71
Q

What is Bigeminy?

A

A normal beat alternating with a premature beat

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72
Q

Lidocaine, Epi, atropine and narcan are examples of what?

A

ET meds

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73
Q

What kind of needle should be used for patients in shock, cardiac arrest, or other life threatening emergencies

A

Large bore

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74
Q

Indications and contra for traction splints

A

Indi:

  • mid shaft demure fracture
  • closed
  • no pelvic or lower extremiyy injury

Contra:

  • open fractures
  • gross angulations
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75
Q

What is a example of hyper and hypo tonic solutions?

A

Hypo
-.3 % normal saline

Hyper:

  • Mannitol (head injury pts)
  • 3.0% normal saline
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76
Q

What disease is resulting in spotty destruction of myelin?

A

Multiple sclerosis

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77
Q

A lethal dose of TCA is only ___x the prescribed dose

A

8x

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78
Q

3 main causes of peptic ulcers?

A

1-helicobacter pylori infection
2-increae gastric secreations
3-decreased mucosal secreations (NSAID abuse)

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79
Q

The ___ and ____ may be injured by compression forces in high speed motor vehicle crashed and deceleration injurties with people wearing seat belts

A

Large and small bowel

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80
Q

Inflammation of the gall bladder is called?

A

Choleycstis

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81
Q

What is Mobitz type 2 block?

A

A second degree or partial av block characterized by the sudden nonconduction of a atrial impulse and a periodic nonconducted beat that occurs without warning-without previous lengthening of the PR interval,

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82
Q

Wha temp does crack melt at?

A

98 Deg c

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83
Q

10 % of diabetics are?

A

Type 1, IDDM

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84
Q

Osteoblasts vs Osteoclasts

A

Blasts: build bone
Clasts: break down bone

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85
Q

Lorazopam, ,idazolam (versed), diazepam (Valium) are examples of what?

A

Benzo

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86
Q

Definition of Aberrant

A

Abnormal

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87
Q

3 stages of chronic renal failure?

A

1-early stage (60% nephron loss)
2-second stage (75% nephron loss)
3-end stage (uremia) (90% nephron loss)

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88
Q

True or false?

The brain has no pain receptors?

A

True!

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89
Q

What are some examples of Isotonic Solutions?

A

1-.9% normal saline
2- Ringers Lactate
3-D5W (relatively isotonic)

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90
Q

What is placenta Previa? Pain?

A

Abnormal posistion of the placenta within the uterus

Painless, bright red blood

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91
Q

What is Croup?

A

Viral infection. Upper airway becomes inflamed and minor swelling

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92
Q

1: ACE inhibitors: accupril, captopril, lisinopril, enalapril
2: angiotensin 2 blockers:losartan

A

Antihypertensives “ils”

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93
Q

What hep is transferred via std?

A

C

94
Q

SQ is what needle?

A

5.8

95
Q

Adult abd cavity can hold up to how many litres of fluid before showing signs of distension?

A

1.5L

96
Q

What is synergism?

A

The interaction of 2 or more drudge to produce a certain effect

97
Q

What is electromechanical disssociation?

A

Electrical activity without evident of myocardial contraction

98
Q

What are some causes of a PE

A
  • thrombi
  • fatty emboli
  • air emboli
  • amniotic fluid
  • tumour cells
99
Q

How many phases in cardiac actionable potentials?

A

0-4 (5)

100
Q

What is dimenhydrinate and metoclopramide examples of?

A

Antiemtics

101
Q

What is ulcerative colitis?

A

Inflammation in the ulcerative colitis is limited to the inner lining of the colon

  • urge to defecate
  • loss of electrolytes (see cardiac dysthymia )
102
Q

Variant (prinzmetal) is usually caused by what?

A

VASOSPAMS

103
Q

2 ways cholesterol gallstones are formed?

A

1-liver secretary too much LDL and bile cant dissolve all

2-liver does not produce enough bile to dissolve the CHL

104
Q

Naloxone is example of what?

A

Opioid antagonists

105
Q

Benadryl goes in what route?

A

IM

106
Q

What 2 culprits are at fault for chronic renal failure?

A

HTn and diabetes

107
Q

Renal failure uses what acronym for creating levels?

A

B: blood
U: uraemia
N: nitrogen

108
Q

What hep has flu like symptoms?

A

B

109
Q

Pantoloc, Zantac, Pepcid are examples of what?

A

Antacids

110
Q

2 main types of seizures

A

1-generalized (both hemispheres)

2-partial (one hemisphere)

111
Q

As pressure increases in the Bowman’s capsule, glomerulus filtration rate ____

A

Falls

112
Q

2 general causes of chronic renal disease?

A

1-bacteria infection

2-renal failure from multiple causes

113
Q

What are the 4 routes of entry for drugs?

A

1-inhalation
2-absorption
3-injection
4-ingestion

114
Q

Anura must be less than…..

A

50 mL/day

115
Q

What solution is isotonic in the container but hypotonic in the circulatory system?

A

D5W

116
Q

In drownings, what is the max number of mins a patient can be under for us to work it?

A

90 mins

117
Q

What 3 functions occurs during respiration?

A

1-o2 exchange
2-carbon dioxide/ waste exchange
3-alterations in thoracic pressure

118
Q

Cerebral aneurysms present like what?

A

Stroke and or headache

119
Q

What is a Mobitz type 1 (wenckeback) block?

A

A second degree or partial av block in whic the PR interveral increases progressively until the atrial impulse arrives during the Absolute refractory period and the corresponding ventricular beat is not conducted.

120
Q

What are the times for the 3 I’s?

A

Ischemia (10 sec)

Injury (-20)

Infarct (+20)

121
Q

What is junctional dysthymia?

A

The irregular heartbeat that results when the av node assumes the SA nodes roles as the hearts primary pacemaker.

122
Q

Thrombolyic and emboltitc make up ___ % of stoke pts

A

25

123
Q

Injury to what organ should be suspected in MVCs, falls and sports injuries? Where would pt complain of pain?

A

Spleen

  • lower left chest
  • flank
  • upper left abd
124
Q

What is extrasystole?

A

An ectopic beat, occuring before the next dominant beat, that depends on and couples with the preeeding beat, contraction of the heart that occurs prematurely and interrupts the normal cardiac cycle

125
Q

Arterio vs Arthur?

A

Arterio:
Hardening of vessel walls

Arthur:
Hardening of vessel walls from fat deposits

126
Q

What kind of hypertension can happen in 1 day?

A

Malignant/hypertensive

127
Q

Lethal doses for ASA

A

Mild-moderate toxicity: 150-300 mg:kg
Serious: 301-500 mg/kg
Lethal: 500 Mg/kg

128
Q

Dilantin, carbamazepine, phenobarbital are examples of what?

A

Anticonvulsants/ anbtipileptic

129
Q

What seizure was formally called petit mall or behavioural, they are buried periods of abronoaml purposelsss behaviour

A

Absence

130
Q

3 primary types of hypertension?

A

1-primary
2-secondary
3-malignant/hypertensive crisis

131
Q

Is there tachycardia or not in Neuro shock?

A

Not!

132
Q

What 3 things do skeletal and muscular systems work in conjunction to?

A

1-move
2-protect
3-regulate (thermal and chemically)

133
Q

What infectious disease is preceded by a viral infection, it has unknown ethology and presents as progressive weakness dismally moving inwards towards the trunk?

A

Guilin barre syndrome

134
Q

What are the 2 problems with hemorrhagic stroke?

A

1-ischemia

2- intracranial pressure

135
Q

Hypertension are what numbers?

A

Systolic: 140-160
Diastolic: +90

136
Q

What is compensatory pause?

A

The period following premature contraction during which the heart regulates itself allowing the SA node to resume normal conduction

137
Q

What is a clonally malignant disorder of the flood forming organs causing an accumulation of dysfunctional cells and a loss of division regulation

A

Leukaemia

138
Q

Bright Red blood is above or below the stomach?

A

Above

139
Q

What is high permeability pulmonary edema and inability to adequately oxygenate despite 100% o2?

A

ARDS (adult resp distress syndrome)

140
Q

In pregnancy does BP go up or down?

A

Down (should)

141
Q

______ time is the interval between the origination of a impulse at the SA node and the stimulation of a ventricular contraction

A

Conduction

142
Q

What 2 organs are the most frequently involved in blunt trauma?

A

Liver and spleen

143
Q

What are the order of straps for the KED?

A
  • Middle (yellow)
  • Bottom (red)
  • Legs (white)
  • Head
  • Top strap (green)

*My, Baby, Looks,Hot, Tonight

144
Q

2 types of ABD pain

A

1-Parietal

2-Visceral

145
Q

What is a atrioventricular block

A

A cardiac impulse conduction disturbance in the AC node, bundle of his or its brances.

146
Q

Oral: diabenase, diabeta
Insulin: regular (Toronto) , NPH, Lente, semilente, ultralente

A

Hypoglycemics

147
Q

______ contain large molecules such as protein that do not readily passs through the capillary membrane

A

Colloids

148
Q

What is passed on by droplets in a cough?

A

Tuberculosis

149
Q

_____ is quivering or oncoordinated muscular contraction

A

Fibrillation

150
Q

Digoxin, lanpxin, diitalis are examples of?

A

Cardiac glycosides

151
Q

What are the 4 seizure meds and 2 pre hospital meds?

A

1-Dilantin (phenytoin)
2- Tegretol (carbamazepine)
3-Phenobarbital
4- Depakene (vaporizer acid)

1-Valium (diazepam)
2-versed (midaszolam)

152
Q

What q’s are important when taking HX for OD’s?

A

-what was taken?
-time?
-route?
How much?
-why?
-Any vomitting
-any samples?

153
Q

What disease involves arteries of extremities and ABD organs?

A

Peripheral Vascular Diease (PVD)

ABD and extremities

154
Q

What headache is caused by dilation of cerebral blood vessels?

A

Vascular ( migraine)

155
Q

When do you hear crackles, Stridor and wheezes?

A

Crackles: fluid
Stridor: FBAO
Wheezing: bronchospasms

156
Q

What are the 3 stages of renal failure?

A

1-renal insufficiency
2-end stage renal failure
3-renal failure

157
Q

What is the MTWHF acronym for organo positing?

A 
M-mydriasis (pupil dilation)
T-tachycardia
W-weakness
H-hypertension, Hyperglycemia 
F-fasciculations (twitching)
158
Q

Crystallizes 1 L of normal saline contains what?

A
  • 154 mEq sodium ions (Na +)

- 154 mEq of chloride ions (Cl-)

159
Q

What kind of needle should be used in pts requiring blood?

A

-min 18 gauge

160
Q

Other name for RHF

A

For pulmonale

161
Q

What is “direct lateral force on spinal column, typically shearing one level of cord from another”?

A

Lateral stress

162
Q

Varicose vein

A

Distended, tortuous, palpable vein

163
Q

What is Fusion Beat

A

Simultaneous activation of one chamber of the hear by two foci

164
Q

What is frank starlings law?

A

The more the ventricle is filled with blood during diastole, the greater the volume of ejected blood will be during the resulting systolic contraction

165
Q

What are the 7 types of respiratory patterns?

A 
1-tachypnea
2-bradypnea
3-apnea
4-kussmal
5-biots
6-Cheyenne stokes
7- atonal
166
Q

What is a ectopic beat?

A

A beat originating from a source of cardiac stimulus other than the SA node, usually caused by some irritation of the myocardium

167
Q

What is Escape Beat

A

An automatic beat that occurs after a interval longer than the dominant cycle.

168
Q

What are analgesics? Examples

A

Relive pain

Narcotics: fentanyl. Demerol, darvon, o you
Non Narcotics/ Asa, Tylenol, ibu, buscopan
Mixed: t3, Percocet

169
Q

What hep is most common in Asia and Africa?

A

D

170
Q

Nitro patches, analgesics, nicotine patches go in what site?

A

Transdermal j

171
Q

What is the other name for malignant/ hypertensive crisis?

A

Complicated hypertension

172
Q

What seizure is characterized by a sudden onset of loss of coordination and consciousness? Typically last 3-5 mins

A

Tonic clinic (grand mal)

173
Q

What is a automatic beat

A

A impulse arising in a automatic focus, independent of the dominant RYTHM.

174
Q

What is the most common cause of trauma during pregnancy?

A

MVC’s

175
Q

What is the fastest med route?

A

Inhalation (NEB or MDI)

176
Q

What are the 3 primary determinants of BP?

A

1-blood volume
2-cardiac output
3-peripheral resistance

177
Q

What is idioventricular rhythm?

A

Relativel slow rhythm that originates from and controls the ventricles.

178
Q

How many mL can be admin in deltoid muscle?

A

3ML

179
Q

First stage of labour

A

Begins with first true contraction and ends with full dilation of the cervix

180
Q

Docusate, sennokot examples of what?

A

Laxatives and stool softeners

181
Q

3 major functions of muscles in the body

A

1-motion
2-stabalize
3-thermogenesis

182
Q

6 rules of splinting

A

1-if no cms, have ONE attempt to realign to anatomical position
2-if intact cms, splint in posistion found
3-remove all constrictive clothing and material around injured site
4-immobilize joint above and below
5-pad splint
6-joints are splinting in posistion found unless….
*extreme distal cyanosis
*extremiyy lacks distal perfusion
*NO REDUCING DISLOCATIONS

183
Q

What is dysuria?

A

Pain with urination

184
Q

Difference between extrinsic and intrinsic?

A

E:

  • pollen pollution
  • dust
  • fires
  • animals

I:

  • exercise
  • emotions
185
Q

What is the gtt/min equation?

A

Volume x ggt/ml
——————
Time

186
Q

7 functions of the liver

A 
My Little Pony Does Eighty Boys Passionately is 
1-Maintanece of blood glucose levels
2-lipid metabolism
3-protein metabolism
4-detoxify of drugs and hormones
5-excretion of bilirubin
6-bile production
7-phagocytosis
187
Q

______ solutions move quickly across cell membranes

A

Crystalloid

188
Q

Key factor separating MI from angina?

A

Tissue death

189
Q

Atrovent and atropine are examples of what?

A

Anti cholinergic

190
Q

Difference between bronchitis and Emphysema?

A

Bronchitis:

  • productive cough
  • produces mucous (yellow and thick)

Emp

  • destruction of alveoli
  • non productive cough
  • frequent lung infections
191
Q

at is abruptio placenta?

A

Premature detachment of a normal situated placenta

Severe pain and dark vaginal bleeding

192
Q

Gastroenteritis causes (same as peptic ulcers)

A

1-virus’s/ bacteria
2-increased gastric secreations
3-decreased mucosal barrier

193
Q

When is apgar done?

A

1 and 5 min post delivery

194
Q

What is characterized by a fever, respiratory symptoms such as cough and SOB and possiblyare throats, headache, diarrhea and myalgia

A

SARS (severe acute resp syndrome)

195
Q

What is the TKVO rate?

A

Approx 150 ml/hr

196
Q

hemophilia is xlinked to which gender?

A

Males

197
Q

What form of hypertension is easily identifiable?

A

Secondary

198
Q

4 M’s

A

Multiple passengers
Maturity
Medication
Meconium

199
Q

What are the 3 pacemakers rate?

A

SA: 60-100
AV: 40-60
Perjinkie: 20-40

200
Q

What ecg changes will you notice with the following?
Ischemia
Injury
Infarction

A

Ischemia: st depression/tall t waves
Injury: ST elevation
Infarction: normal st with pathological q waves and irregular qrs/t waves

201
Q

3 major functions of the kidney?

A

1-regulation of blood volume and composition
2-regulation of blood pH
3-regulation of BP

202
Q

What is pre eclampsia?

A

Abnormal state during pregnancy with hypertension and fluid retention

203
Q

4 potential complications for neonates

A

1-Resp depression
2-cardiovascular system compromise
3-thermo reg
4-meconium aspiration

204
Q

What are the 4 characteristics special to cardiac cells?

A

1-automaticity
2-excitability
3-conductivity
4-contractility

205
Q

2 types of strokes?

A

(1) occlusive

2) hemorrhagic

206
Q

What hep is fecal oral?

A

A

207
Q

Second stage of labour

A

Begins with full dilation of the crevices and needs with the delivery of the baby

208
Q

The longer the catheter the ______ the flow rate

A

Slower

209
Q

What is Guillian Barre Syndrome?

A

Progressive muscle shutdown

210
Q

Hyperglycaemia is blood sugar above?

A

11

211
Q

What is coupling?

A

The relationship of a premature beat and the preceding beat

212
Q

All ECG reads ____ to _____

A

Negative to positive

213
Q

You should place a pregnant pt on their ____ side after trauma to take pressure of the ______?

A

Left

Inferior vena cava

214
Q

What is paroxysmal?

A

Recurring suddenly and abruptly

215
Q

S/S of L-CHF vs R-CHF

A

L-CHF

  • pink frothy sputum
  • pulmonary Edema
  • dyspnea

R-CHF

  • pedal edema
  • Sacral edema
  • JVD
216
Q

What ml can be admin gluteus or quadriceps muscles?

A

5mL

217
Q

What disorder is caused by a congenital defect or lesion?

A

Cerebral palsy

218
Q

What is Huntington’s Disease

A

-disruption of muscle coordination

219
Q

What 3 P’s are involved with DKA?

A

Polyphagia
Polyuria
Polydipsia

220
Q

Small pouches become obstructed then infected?

A

Diverticulitis

221
Q

Pulmicort, Ventolin, theophylline examples of what?

A

Bronchodilators

222
Q

What are the 3 causes of ABD pain?

A

1-mechanical (distension, pulling)
2- Inflammatory (swelling)
3-Ischemic (obstruction of blood flow)

223
Q

What headache is generalized caused by contraction of the muscles of the scalp and neck?

A

Tension

224
Q

What is a agonist?

A

Chemical substance capable of combing with a receptor on a cell and initiating a reaction or activity

225
Q

What are common colloids solutions?

A
  • Blood derivatives

- artificial colloids

226
Q

Amphetamines prodcuce ___ and ___ stimulation

A

CNS and PNS

227
Q

What is a antagonist?

A

Opposition between two or more medications

228
Q

What organ is typically protected during blunt mechanisms?

A

Stomach

229
Q

Their stage of labour

A

Begins at the end of the delivery of the baby and ends at delivery of the placenta

230
Q

What are the severities of A and B hemophilia?

A

Severe: spontaneous bleeding
Moderate: bleeding after trauma
Mild: bleeding after severe trauma or surgery

231
Q

What is the fever or progenic reaction to iv?

A

100-105 degress F

PCP-1902 (3 decks)

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