Security Posture Flashcards

1
Q

The process of identifying the difference between current security measures and desired standards or compliance requirements. It highlights weaknesses and areas for improvement.

A

Gap Analysis

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2
Q

Educates employees about cybersecurity risks, best practices, and how to recognize and respond to threats such as phishing, malware, and social engineering.

A

Security Awareness Training

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3
Q

Involves identifying, analyzing, and evaluating risks to an organization’s assets, systems, or data. It determines potential threats, their likelihood, and their impact, guiding decisions to mitigate those risks.

A

Risk Assessment

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4
Q

A discussion-based simulation where participants review and practice their response to hypothetical security incidents or emergencies. It is conducted in a low-stress environment to identify weaknesses in procedures.

A

Tabletop Exercise

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5
Q

A security framework that assumes no user, device, or system should be trusted by default, even if they are inside the network perimeter. Verification is required for every access request.

A

Zero Trust Model

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6
Q

Implement Least Privilege
Never Trust, Always Verify
Assume Breach

A

Zero Trust Model

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7
Q

The implementation of the Zero Trust Model in an organization’s network and systems. It integrates technologies like identity management, multi-factor authentication, and micro-segmentation to enforce the “never trust, always verify” principle.

A

Zero Trust Architecture

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8
Q

The operational practice of implementing the Zero Trust Model by enforcing strict identity verification and least privilege access across all systems, users, and devices.

A

Zero Trust Security

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9
Q

The outdated security assumption that everything inside an organization’s network is secure and trustworthy. It contrasts with the Zero Trust Model, which assumes that no user, device, or system should be trusted without verification.

A

Implicit Trust

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10
Q

Continuously tracking and recording activity on networks, systems, and applications. Logs capture events like user access, file changes, or system errors for analysis.

A

Monitoring and Logging

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11
Q

A dynamic security approach that adjusts access controls based on the context of a user’s behavior, location, device, or other factors. It is often used in conjunction with multi-factor authentication (MFA).

A

Adaptive Identity

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12
Q

A network security strategy that divides a network into smaller segments and applies security policies to each one. This limits lateral movement by attackers and isolates potential breaches.

A

Microsegmentation

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13
Q

The decision-making component in an access control system. It evaluates access requests against policies to determine if access should be granted or denied.

A

Policy Engine (PE)

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14
Q

The component that enforces access control decisions made by the Policy Engine. It allows or blocks access to resources based on those decisions.

A

Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

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15
Q

The intermediary component that communicates between the Policy Engine and the Policy Enforcement Point. It pushes configuration changes and enforces policies at the enforcement point.

A

Policy Administrator (PA)

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16
Q

The component within an access control system responsible for evaluating access requests against policies and making the “allow” or “deny” decision.

Receives access requests from the Policy Engine (PE) and the Policy Enforcement Point (PEP).

A

Policy Decision Point (PDP)

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17
Q

A physical security measure consisting of a small, enclosed area with two sets of interlocking doors. Only one door can open at a time, ensuring controlled entry and exit.

Used to prevent unauthorized access by verifying credentials before allowing entry.

A

Access Control Vestibule

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18
Q

A decoy system or resource set up to attract attackers, detect their activities, and analyze their methods. It mimics a legitimate target without providing real value to the attacker.

A

Honeypot

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19
Q

A network of honeypots designed to simulate a larger environment, such as an enterprise network. It provides a more realistic target for attackers, making it easier to study complex threats.

A

Honeynet

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20
Q

A piece of data, such as a fake document, file, or database entry, designed to lure attackers. Accessing or using this could trigger an alert, indicating unauthorized activity.

A

Honeytoken

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21
Q

A decoy file intentionally placed in a system or network to detect unauthorized access or insider threats. It is designed to appear valuable or interesting to an attacker, such as a document labeled “Passwords” or “Confidential Plans.”

A

Honeyfile

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22
Q

A security tool that monitors network traffic or system activity for malicious behavior and sends alerts to administrators when suspicious activity is detected.

Examples: Network-Based IDS & Host-based IDS.

A

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

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23
Q

A security tool that monitors network traffic or system activity, detects malicious behavior, and takes proactive actions (e.g., blocking traffic) to stop threats in real time.

A

Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

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24
Q

A formal agreement between two or more organizations that outlines the roles, responsibilities, and expectations for a business partnership.

A

Business Partnership Agreement (BPA)

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25
Q

A process used to identify critical business functions, assess the impact of disruptions, and prioritize resources for recovery.

A

Business Impact Analysis (BIA)

26
Q

A calculation used in risk management to estimate the monetary loss from a single security incident. It quantifies the potential financial impact for planning and mitigation.

Calculation: Asset Value (AV) x Exposure Factor (EF) = ???

A

Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)

27
Q

A documented strategy to ensure critical business operations continue during and after a disaster or disruption.

A

Business Continuity Plan (BCP)

28
Q

A framework for managing digital keys and certificates used for encryption and authentication. This enables secure communication by providing a way to exchange encryption keys and verify identities.

Key Components include Public and private keys, digital certificates, and certificate authorities (CA).

A

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)

29
Q

A part of a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) that acts as an intermediary between users and the Certificate Authority (CA). It verifies the identity of users or entities requesting digital certificates.

A

Registration Authority (RA)

30
Q

A set of standards developed to promote the use of public key cryptography. It defines formats for cryptographic messages, certificates, and private keys.

A

Public Key Cryptography Standards (PKCS)

31
Q

What PKCS Standard Number represents Cryptographic Message Syntax?

A

PKCS #7

32
Q

What is PKCS Standard Number represents Personal Information Exchange Format?

A

PKCS #12

33
Q

What is PKCS Standard Number represents Certification Request Format?

A

PKCS #10

34
Q

An entity that issues digital certificates used to verify the identity of entities in a network. This entity is responsible for signing and validating certificates, ensuring secure communications.

A

Certificate Authority (CA)

35
Q

A pair of cryptographic keys used in asymmetric encryption systems. These keys are mathematically linked, where one key (the public key) is used to encrypt data, and the other key (the private key) is used to decrypt it.

A

Public-Private Key

36
Q

A key that is shared openly and used to encrypt data or verify a signature.

A

Public Key

37
Q

A key that is kept secret and used to decrypt data or create a digital signature.

A

Private Key

38
Q

A type of encryption where the same key is used for both encrypting and decrypting data. Both the sender and receiver must have access to the shared secret key.

Examples: AES, DES, 3DES

A

Symmetric Encryption

39
Q

A type of encryption that uses a pair of keys: a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption. Only the private key can decrypt data encrypted with the corresponding public key.

Example: RSA, ECC, DSA, & EFS

A

Asymmetric Encryption

40
Q

A security arrangement where the cryptographic keys used for encryption are stored by a trusted third party. In case the original key is lost or the entity responsible for the key is unable to access encrypted data, the escrowed key can be retrieved by the third party.

A

Key Escrow

41
Q

A physical device used to generate, store, and manage cryptographic keys securely. It provides high levels of protection for sensitive data and ensures secure encryption and decryption operations.

A

(Hardware Security Module) HSM

42
Q

A specialized hardware component designed to securely store cryptographic keys, passwords, and certificates within a computer or device. It ensures that data and devices are protected from unauthorized access and tampering.

A

Trusted Platform Module (TPM)

43
Q

A built-in feature of Microsoft Windows that allows users to encrypt files and folders on a local computer. This uses asymmetric encryption to secure data and protect it from unauthorized access.

A

Encrypting File System (EFS)

44
Q

A hardware-based solution where the drive itself automatically encrypts and decrypts data. It uses a built-in cryptographic engine, meaning no software is required for encryption.

A

Self-Encrypting Drive (SED)

45
Q

A security measure that encrypts the entire storage drive of a computer or device, protecting all data stored on it, including the operating system, applications, and files.

Example: MS Windows Bitlocker

A

Full Disk Encryption (FDE)

46
Q

A secure connection over the internet that allows users to send and receive data as if they were directly connected to a private network. It encrypts internet traffic, ensuring privacy and security.

A

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

47
Q

A free, open-source tool used for encrypting data and creating digital signatures. It implements the OpenPGP standard for public key cryptography.

A

GNU Privacy Guard (GPG)

48
Q

A cryptographic network protocol used to securely access and manage network devices and servers remotely.

A

Secure Shell (SSH)

49
Q

A suite of protocols used to secure internet protocol (IP) communications by authenticating and encrypting each IP packet in a communication session.

Examples: Authentication Header (AH) & ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload)

A

Internet Protocol Security (IPsec)

50
Q

A data encryption and decryption program used for securing emails and files. It uses both symmetric encryption for the message and asymmetric encryption for key management.

A

Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)

51
Q

A free software operating system that aims to provide a Unix-like environment composed entirely of free software.

A

GNU (“GNU” not Unix)

52
Q

A network protocol used to securely transfer files over a secure SSH connection. Unlike FTP, it encrypts both the commands and the data to protect it from eavesdropping or tampering.

A

Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP)

53
Q

An extension of HTTP that uses SSL/TLS encryption to secure communications between a client (e.g., browser) and a web server, ensuring confidentiality and integrity.

A

HyperText Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

54
Q

An extension of FTP that adds security features through the use of SSL/TLS to encrypt the control and/or data channels during file transfer.

A

File Transfer Protocol Secure (FTPS)

55
Q

A protocol used for managing and monitoring network devices (e.g., routers, switches, servers) by gathering information about their performance and operational status.

A

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

56
Q

A protocol used for sending digitally signed and encrypted email messages. It adds security features such as authentication, message integrity, and confidentiality to email communication.

A

Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (S/MIME)

57
Q

A command used to upgrade an existing insecure connection (typically on ports like 25, 110, or 143) to a secure connection using TLS/SSL encryption. It is often used in email protocols such as SMTP, IMAP, and POP3.

A

startTLS

58
Q

An email authentication method that uses public-key cryptography to verify that the email message was sent from the domain it claims to be from and that its content has not been altered in transit.

A

DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM)

59
Q

The version of SMTP that uses SSL/TLS encryption to secure email communication. Unlike STARTTLS, which upgrades an existing connection, this version requires encryption from the beginning of the session.

A

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol Secure (SMTPS)

60
Q

A protocol designed to provide encryption, message authentication, and integrity for real-time communications, such as voice and video calls, over IP networks.

A

Secure Real-Time Transport Protocol (SRTP)