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SY0-701 Security+ Exam > Protective Measures > Flashcards

Protective Measures Flashcards

1
Q

A data storage virtualization technology that combines multiple physical data storage components into one or more logical units for the purposes of data redundancy, performance improvement, or both.

A

RAID (Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks)

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2
Q

Splits data across two or more disks, offering improved speed but no redundancy or fault tolerance. Requires at least two drives to strip data across both, improving performance but providing no redundancy. Requires at least two drives to mirror data, ensuring redundancy and fault tolerance.

Example: Files are split into chunks and stored across multiple disks, increasing read and write speeds.

A

RAID 0 (Striping)

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3
Q

Creates an exact copy (mirror) of data on two or more disks, providing redundancy and fault tolerance. Requires at least two drives to mirror data, ensuring redundancy and fault tolerance.

Example: A hard drive failure doesn’t cause data loss, as the data is replicated on a second disk.

A

RAID 1 (Mirroring)

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4
Q

Combines striping (RAID 0) with distributed parity, providing fault tolerance and improved performance using a minimum of three disks. Requires at least three drives, using striping for speed and parity for fault tolerance.

Example: If one disk fails, the data can be rebuilt using parity information from the other disks.

A

RAID 5 (Striping with Parity)

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5
Q

Similar to RAID 5 but with additional parity, allowing for two disks to fail without data loss. Requires at least four drives, providing double parity for fault tolerance, allowing up to two drives to fail.

Example: The system can tolerate the failure of two disks while still maintaining data integrity.

A

RAID 6 (Striping with Double Parity)

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6
Q

Combines RAID 1 and RAID 0, offering both mirroring and striping for speed and redundancy, requiring a minimum of four disks.

Example: Data is mirrored and striped across multiple disks for both high performance and redundancy.

A

RAID 10 (RAID 1+0)

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7
Q

A fully equipped, operational backup site that is ready to take over business operations immediately in the event of a disaster. It is typically a replica of the primary site with real-time data replication.

Example: After a data center failure, employees immediately continue work from a backup location with real-time data and full IT infrastructure.

A

Hot Site

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8
Q

A backup site that is partially equipped with necessary hardware and software but may require additional setup before it can be fully operational. Data may need to be restored.

Example: In case of disaster, a business can access the warm site, but it may take some time to bring all systems fully online.

A

Cold Site

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9
Q

A backup site with minimal equipment and infrastructure, requiring significant setup and data restoration before it becomes functional after a disaster.

Example: After a disaster, a company would need to bring in hardware, install software, and restore data before operations can resume.

A

Warm Site

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10
Q

A portable, temporary disaster recovery site, often in a mobile unit or trailer, designed to quickly provide operations in the event of an emergency.

Example: A company uses a mobile site that can be rapidly deployed to restore operations at a different location if the main site is unavailable.

A

Mobile Site

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11
Q

A strategy for ensuring that critical business functions can continue during and after a disaster or disruptive event. It includes detailed plans for recovery and maintaining operations.

Example: A company develops this to ensure essential services, like customer support and order processing, continue even if the primary data center is unavailable.

A

COOP (Continuity of Operations Plan)

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12
Q

The maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. It defines the point in time to which data must be restored after a disruption.

Example: If the XXX is 4 hours, the company ensures that in the event of a disaster, data can be recovered from no more than 4 hours prior to the incident.

A

RPO (Recovery Point Objective)

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13
Q

The average time taken to repair a system or component after a failure, including diagnosis, repairs, and bringing the system back online. It is a key metric for assessing system reliability and response efficiency.

A

MTTR (Mean Time to Repair)

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14
Q

The maximum acceptable time it takes to restore a system or service after a disruption or disaster. It defines the target time for recovering operations to avoid unacceptable business impacts.

Example: If a system fails, the XXX specifies that it must be restored within 2 hours to prevent significant business disruption.

A

RTO (Recovery Time Objective)

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15
Q

A discussion-based simulation of a disaster or security incident, where team members walk through their roles and responsibilities in a controlled, low-stress environment to test their response plans.

A

Tabletop exercise

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16
Q

A security practice of isolating a program or file in a controlled environment to test its behavior before allowing it to interact with the system. It helps to detect malicious activity and prevent harm.

A

Sandboxing

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17
Q

A process in which system operations automatically switch to a backup component or system in the event of a failure, ensuring continued service availability.

A

Fail over

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18
Q

A method of providing multiple physical paths between a computer and storage devices to increase redundancy and improve performance, ensuring continuous access even if one path fails.

A

Multipath I/O

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19
Q

The process of distributing network or application traffic across multiple servers or resources to optimize performance, prevent overload, and ensure high availability.

A

Load balancing

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20
Q

The simultaneous execution of multiple tasks or processes on different processors or cores to increase computational speed and efficiency.

A

Parallel processing

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21
Q

A more realistic scenario that tests cybersecurity incident response by mimicking actual attacks

A

Simulation

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22
Q

A backup strategy where only data changed since the last backup (either full or incremental) is saved. It reduces storage requirements but requires the last full backup and all previous incremental backups to restore.

Example: After a full backup on Monday, only changes from Tuesday to Wednesday are backed up

A

Incremental backups

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23
Q

A backup method that captures the exact state of a system or data at a specific point in time, often used for virtual machines or databases. It allows quick recovery but may not capture all underlying changes.

Example: This backup captures the current configuration of a virtual machine, enabling quick restoration of its state.

A

Snapshot backups

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24
Q

A traditional backup method that uses magnetic tape to store data, typically used for long-term storage and archiving. Tape backups are slow to restore but offer high capacity and portability.

Example: A company uses these backups to store weekly archives of important data for off-site disaster recovery.

A

Tape backups

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25
Q

A backup method where all changes made since the last full backup are saved. It requires more storage than incremental backups but fewer restore steps.

Example: After a full backup on Monday, this backup on Wednesday includes all changes made since Monday, unlike incremental backups that only capture changes since the last backup.

A

Differential backups

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26
Q

The process of copying data from one system or storage device to another to ensure availability, redundancy, and disaster recovery. It can be synchronous or asynchronous.

A

Replication

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27
Q

A method of recording changes to data in a log (journal) before committing the changes to the database or file system, ensuring consistency and enabling recovery in case of failure.

A

Journaling

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28
Q

A technology that allows a single physical machine to run multiple virtual machines, each with its own operating system and applications, optimizing resource usage and increasing flexibility.

A

Virtualization

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29
Q

A redundancy technique where data is copied exactly from one drive or system to another, ensuring availability and fault tolerance in case of a failure.

A

Mirroring

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30
Q

The component that supplies electrical power to a computer or network device, converting AC power from an outlet into the appropriate DC voltage for internal components.

A

PSU (Power Supply Unit)

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31
Q

A central point in a building or network where all external and internal communication lines are connected and distributed to other network devices or systems.

A

MDF (Main Distribution Frame)

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32
Q

A device used to distribute electrical power to various equipment in a data center or server room, typically offering surge protection and monitoring capabilities.

A

PDU (Power Distribution Unit)

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33
Q

A network equipment closet that connects the MDF to smaller distribution areas (such as individual floors or rooms) and helps manage the distribution of network signals.

A

IDF (Intermediate Distribution Frame)

34
Q

A device used to distribute electrical power to various equipment in a data center or server room, typically offering surge protection and monitoring capabilities.

A

PoE (Power over Ethernet)

35
Q

The practice of dividing a network or system into distinct segments based on logical criteria (such as function, role, or security level) rather than physical components, to enhance security and manage traffic more effectively.

A

Logical segmentation

36
Q

A set of security configurations, standards, and best practices that form a foundation for secure system operations, used to ensure consistency and compliance across systems and networks.

A

Secure baseline

37
Q

Different levels of access permissions or privileges granted to users or systems based on their roles or needs, dictating what actions can be performed within a system.

A

Access control levels

38
Q

A security concept where users, systems, or processes are given the minimum level of access necessary to perform their tasks, reducing the risk of unauthorized actions or breaches.

A

Principle of least privilege

39
Q

The process of gaining full administrative control over an Android device, allowing users to modify system files and settings that are otherwise restricted.

Example: A user roots their phone to install custom ROMs or access system-level features not available through the standard operating system.

A

Rooting

40
Q

The act of installing apps or software on a device from sources other than official app stores, often by transferring the files directly from a computer or another device.

A

Sideloading

41
Q

A process of erasing data from a storage device and resetting it to its original state, often involving the creation of new sectors and the removal of all file system structures.

A

Low-Level Formatting

42
Q

A security feature that allows an administrator or user to remotely erase all data from a device, typically used to protect sensitive information if the device is lost or stolen.

A

Remote Wipe

43
Q

The practice of separating personal and business data on a device or storage system to enhance security and simplify management, often used in bring-your-own-device (BYOD) scenarios.

A

Storage Segmentation

44
Q

A security approach where users or systems are granted temporary access to resources or privileges only when needed and for a limited duration, reducing the attack surface.

A

Just-in-Time Permissions

45
Q

The process of allocating necessary resources (e.g., compute, storage, network) to users, systems, or applications based on demand, ensuring efficiency and scalability.

A

Resource Provisioning

46
Q

A system or software that enables administrators to monitor, manage, and secure mobile devices used within an organization, including smartphones, tablets, and laptops.

A

MDM (Mobile Device Management)

47
Q

The process of assessing a physical location to determine the best placement and configuration of network equipment, such as wireless access points, to optimize coverage and performance.

Example: A technician uses signal strength tools to identify the ideal locations for deploying wireless access points in an office building.

A

Site Survey

48
Q

A visual representation of data showing the strength and distribution of wireless signal coverage in a specific area, often used to optimize network performance.

Example: A network engineer analyzes signal strength across different zones of a building to identify areas with weak connectivity and improve coverage.

A

Heat Map

49
Q

A Windows-based framework that provides a unified interface for managing and configuring system components using administrative tools, called snap-ins.

Example: An administrator uses a centralized tool to manage user accounts and group policies across multiple systems.

A

MMC (Microsoft Management Console)

50
Q

A device that combines multiple functions, such as printing, scanning, copying, and faxing, into a single machine to save space and increase efficiency.

Example: An office uses a single device for all document management tasks instead of separate printers and scanners.

A

MFD (Multi-Function Device)

51
Q

A mobile device policy where the organization provides devices to employees, allowing both business and limited personal use while maintaining control over security and management.

Example: Employees are issued company phones they can use for personal calls while IT enforces encryption and security policies.

A

COPE (Corporate-Owned, Personally Enabled)

52
Q

A policy that allows employees to use their personal devices for work purposes, requiring measures to secure and manage corporate data on those devices.

Example: Employees access work emails and applications on their personal smartphones while adhering to security guidelines.

A

BYOD (Bring Your Own Device)

53
Q

A policy where employees select from a list of company-approved devices for work purposes, providing flexibility while maintaining organizational control over security.

Example: Employees choose from pre-approved smartphones and tablets to ensure compatibility with enterprise systems and security standards.

A

CYOD (Choose Your Own Device)

54
Q

A comprehensive approach to managing and securing all endpoints, such as smartphones, tablets, laptops, desktops, and IoT devices, from a single platform.

Example: Administrators use a unified platform to enforce security policies, update software, and monitor devices across the organization.

A

UEM (Unified Endpoint Management)

55
Q

The process of ensuring that input provided to a system (e.g., user input, data from an API) meets defined criteria before being processed, helping to prevent attacks such as SQL injection or buffer overflows.

A

Input validation

56
Q

The process of evaluating a program’s behavior during execution by monitoring it in real-time, typically used to identify security vulnerabilities and performance issues.

A

Dynamic code analysis

57
Q

A testing technique where random or unexpected inputs are fed into a program to find vulnerabilities such as crashes or unexpected behavior, often used to identify security flaws.

A

Fuzzing

58
Q

The examination of source code without executing it, aimed at identifying vulnerabilities, coding errors, and compliance violations by reviewing the code itself.

A

Static code analysis

59
Q

A type of performance testing that evaluates how a system performs under extreme conditions or heavy load, often used to identify breaking points and ensure system reliability.

A

Stress Testing

60
Q

The process of creating virtual instances of resources (e.g., servers, storage, networks) from a physical system, enabling more efficient use of hardware and easier management of IT environments.

A

Virtualization

61
Q

A security feature that blocks the execution of unauthorized code in certain memory areas, protecting systems from malicious code execution, like exploits targeting vulnerabilities.

A

EPC (Execution Prevention Control)

62
Q

A mechanism in programming languages like C++ that handles runtime errors or exceptions by allowing developers to define custom error-handling routines.

A

SEH (Structured Exception Handling)

63
Q

A programming concept that provides a way to react to exceptional conditions (like errors) in a program’s execution by using structures like try, catch, and finally.

A

EH (Exception Handling)

64
Q

A data structure that stores information about exceptions raised during program execution, helping in debugging and identifying the root cause of errors.

A

EXR (Exception Record)

65
Q

A security technique used to randomize the memory address space of processes to make it harder for attackers to predict the location of specific functions or buffers, thus preventing certain types of exploits.

A

ASLR (Address Space Layout Randomization)

66
Q

The process of rendering data irrecoverable by securely deleting encryption keys, making the encrypted data unreadable without the decryption key.

A

Cryptographic Erasure

67
Q

A data sanitization method where existing data is replaced with random or meaningless data, making it impossible to recover the original information.

A

Data overwriting

68
Q

The process of erasing data from magnetic storage devices by using a strong magnetic field to disrupt the device’s magnetic domains.

A

Degaussing

69
Q

A security measure designed to differentiate between human users and automated bots by presenting challenges that are difficult for machines to solve, such as identifying distorted text or objects in images.

A

CAPTCHA (Completely Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Humans Apart)

70
Q

A system for sharing cyber threat indicators (e.g., IP addresses, URLs) between organizations to improve cybersecurity defense by facilitating faster response to threats.

A

AIS (Automated Indicator Sharing)

71
Q

A standardized language for describing cyber threat intelligence, including tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs), making it easier to exchange and analyze threat data.

A

STIX (Structured Threat Information Expression)

72
Q

A model for describing the behavior or modus operandi of cyber attackers, including their goals (tactics), specific actions (techniques), and how they perform them (procedures).

A

TTP (Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures)

73
Q

A standardized system for rating the severity of vulnerabilities in software, ranging from 0 (low) to 10 (critical), to help organizations prioritize security efforts.

A

CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System)

74
Q

A protocol for exchanging cyber threat intelligence between organizations, enabling automated sharing of threat indicators and reducing the time needed to detect and respond to cyber threats.

A

TAXII (Trusted Automated eXchange of Indicator Information)

75
Q

A type of access control where the owner of a resource determines who can access it and what actions they can perform, typically through permissions.

A

DAC (Discretionary Access Control)

76
Q

An access control model where permissions are assigned to roles rather than individuals. Users are assigned roles, and access is granted based on the user’s role within the organization.

A

RBAC (Role-Based Access Control)

77
Q

A type of access control where access to resources is determined by a central authority based on security labels, and users cannot change the access permissions.

A

MAC (Mandatory Access Control)

78
Q

An access control model where access decisions are based on attributes (such as user roles, resource types, or environmental factors), rather than predefined roles or permissions.

A

ABAC (Attribute-Based Access Control)

79
Q

A security solution that protects users from web-based threats by filtering traffic and enforcing security policies when users access websites, preventing malicious content and data breaches.

A

SWG (Secure Web Gateway)

80
Q

A security policy enforcement solution that sits between users and cloud service providers to monitor and control access to cloud applications, ensuring compliance and protecting data.

A

CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker)

81
Q

A security solution that integrates multiple security products, such as endpoint detection, network monitoring, and threat intelligence, to provide a more comprehensive and automated approach to threat detection and response across an organization’s environment.

A

XDR (Extended Detection and Response)

82
Q

A security practice that controls and monitors access to critical systems and sensitive information by users with elevated privileges, helping prevent unauthorized access and minimize the risk of insider threats.

A

PAM (Privileged Access Management)

SY0-701 Security+ Exam (16 decks)

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