Security Management-Q's

Question 1

From an organizational standpoint the head of security should report to
a Superintendent of buildings
b Manager of buildings and grounds
c Head housekeeper
d A vice president or higher

Answer 1

D A vice president or higher

Question 2

The most conspicuous role of the security department in any organization is that of
a Educational services
b Management services
c Special services
d Protective services

Answer 2

D Protective Services

Question 3

Training sessions consisting of a security awareness program for new employees should be conducted by
a Special training officers
b Security personnel
c Consultants skilled in training
d Member of management

Answer 3

B Security Personnel

Question 4

There are necessary and legitimate exceptions to the principle of unity of command One condition which sometimes allows for shifting in supervision is
a When order is given by the rank of captain or above
b When order is given by the head of a department
c When the order is given by the head of internal affairs
d During emergencies

Answer 4

D During Emergencies

Question 5

Perhaps the most common shortcoming in the security industry is
a Lack of support by top management
b Failure to properly prepare and equip new supervisors with tools to discharge their important responsibilities supervisory training
c Lack of planning
d Lack of monetary resources

Answer 5

B Failure to properly prepare and equip new supervisiors with the tools to discharge their important responsibilities

Question 6

Which of the following is not recommended policy with regard to security manuals
a It must be updated on regular basis
b Employee should not be allowed to have possession of it
c The manual should be put in the hands of all regular security personnel
d It should include procedural instructions for specific incidents

Answer 6

B Employee should not be allowed to have possession of it

Question 7

Which of the following is not an advantage of using in house career personnel
a Career personnel develop a loyalty to the department
b Career personnel tend to be more ambitious
c There is more stability among career personnel
d Career personnel constitute a fixed limited cadre or pool of manpower resources

Answer 7

D Career personnel consitute a fixed limited cadre or pool of manpwer resources

Question 8

Which of the following is known to be one of the disadvantages of contract security services
a Turnover
b Cost
c Manpower resource
d Skills

Answer 8

A Turnover

Question 9

Ideally the person who should conduct the inspection of a security department is
a An outside consultant
b The second ranking person
c The security director or security manager
d The ranking sergeant

Answer 9

C The security Director or Security Manager

Question 10

The process of determining the probability and cost of potential loss is known as
a Probability analysis
b Risk assessment
c Potential loss analysis
d Physical survey

Answer 10

B Risk Assessment

Question 11

The ultimate responsibility for the internal security in a department should rest with
a The president
b Chairman of the board
c Security director
d The line supervisor

Answer 11

D The line supervisor

Question 12

The issuance of weapons to guards is usually not justified
a In a situation where deterrence is needed in handling control of large amounts of cash
b In situations in which terrorism is a real threat
c In a situation where there would be greater danger to life safety without weapons than with them
d In a situation where there is no danger to life safety

Answer 12

D In a situation where there is no danger to life saftey

Question 13

In issuing policy statements regarding the handling of disturbed persons the primary consideration is
a Legal liability to the disturbed
b Reducing the disturbed person to a form of benevolent custody and eliminating the immediate danger
c Legal liability to employees and third persons if restraint not achieved
d Employee community public relations

Answer 13

B Reducing the disturbed person to a form of benevolent custody and eliminating the immediate danger

Question 14

Spotting the individual loss events that might take place is the primary step in dealing with security vulnerability This process is called
a Loss event probability
b Threat assessment process
c Loss event profile
d Actual threat analysis

Answer 14

C Loss event profile

Question 15

The likelihood or probability of risks affecting the assets becoming actual loss events is known as
a Loss event probability
b Loss event profile
c Treat analysis control
d Threat target control

Answer 15

A Loss event probability

Question 16

The impact or effect on the enterprise if the loss occurs is known as
a Loss event profile
b Loss event probability
c Loss event criticality
d Security survey analysis

Answer 16

C Loss event criticality

Question 17

Which of the following is considered to be one of the three basic functions of risk management
a Lock control
b Barrier control
c Disaster management
d Loss control

Answer 17

D Loss Control

Question 18

18 Oscar Newman published a classic in which he presented ideas and applied strategies from the New York public housing project to aid in reducing the risk of being victimized and reducing fear of crime when on the streets What is the name of this book
a Crime Prevention
b Crime Reduction
c Defensible Space
d Crime in Architectural Planning

Answer 18

C Defensible Space

Question 19

From a security perspective what is the first factor to be considered in facility construction
a The identity of experienced consultants
b An effective security plan
c An architect with knowledge of physical security
d The building site itself

Answer 19

D The building itself

Question 20

A critical on site examination and analysis of an industrial plant business home or public or private institution to ascertain the present security status to identify deficiencies or excesses to determine the protection needed and to make recommendations to improve the overall security is the definition of
a Security survey
b Risk analysis
c Full field inspection
d Crime prevention assessment

Answer 20

A Security Survey

Question 21

There are two generally accepted definitions of risk These are most commonly known to risk managers and security officers as
a Potential risk and dynamic risk
b Profit risk and dynamic risk
c Potential risk and pure risk
d Pure risk and dynamic risk

Answer 21

D Pure risk and dynamic risk

Question 22

The most effective deterrent to shoplifting is
a Highly competent and educated security officers
b Widespread use of sensor devices
c Well positioned CCTVs
d Well trained personnel

Answer 22

D Well trained personnel

Question 23

A simplified answer to the question of why employees steal is
a Sickness in family
b To feed drug habit
c To live on a higher level
d The theft triangle

Answer 23

D The theft triangle

Question 24

Many experts agree that the most important deterrent to internal theft is
a Threat of dismissal
b Fear of discovery
c Threat of prosecution
d Conscience pangs

Answer 24

B Fear of Discovery

Question 25

Crime analysis is a key element in focusing the use of police and security resources to address crime problems Data collection and analysis are two specific steps The other two are a Inspection and discovery of facts b Response and feedback c Feedback and corrective action d Dissemination and feedback

Answer 25

D Dissemination and feedback

Question 26

It is generally accepted that insurance rates are dependent upon two primary variables These are a Cost of claims and competitors rates b Competition among insurance companies and frequency of claims c Cost of claims and frequency of claims d Cost of claims and government regulations

Answer 26

C Cost of claims and frequency of claims

Question 27

The basic types of protection which security personnel realize as best can be described by the following a Fidelity Bonds b Surety Bonds c Burglary Robbery Theft Insurance d All of the above

Answer 27

D All of the above

Question 28

Bonds which require that an employee be investigated by the bonding company to limit the risk of dishonesty and if that trust is violated the insurance company must indemnify the employer are called a Surety Bonds b Fidelity Bonds c Insurance Bonds d Blanket Bonds

Answer 28

B Fidelity Bonds

Question 29

Protection for a corporation if there is a failure to perform specified acts within a certain period of time is known as a a Contract Bond b Blanket Bond c Surety Bond d Fiduciary Bond

Answer 29

C Surety Bond

Question 30

The urban planning and design process which integrates crime prevention techniques with neighborhood design is known as a Urban Development Planning b Conceptual Modeling in Architecture c Environmental Design d Environmental Security E S

Answer 30

D Environmental Security E S

Question 31

The ability of design to counteract the perception that the area is isolated and criminally vulnerable is known as a Natural Surveillance Techniques b Image and Milieu c Soft Area Protection d Territoriality Cleansing

Answer 31

B Image and Milieu

Question 32

The greatest ongoing threat to any business is a Shoplifting b Shrinkage c Internal Theft d Pilferage

Answer 32

C Internal Theft

Question 33

Pilferage is defined as stealing in small quantities over a long period of time The taking of property entrusted to someones care is called a Mistake of fact b Misprison of a felony c Uttering d Embezzlement

Answer 33

D Embezzlement

Question 34

The theft triangle consists of the following components a Desire skill and training b Motivation skill and opportunity c Opportunity desire and skill d Motivation opportunity and rationalization

Answer 34

D Motivation opportunity and rationalization

Question 35

A key element in focusing the use of police and security resources to address crime problems is commonly called a Data collection and analysis b Systematic evaluation of data available c Crime analysis d Analysis and feedback

Answer 35

C Crime analysis

Question 36

The practice of preventing unauthorized persons from gaining information by analyzing electromagnetic emanations from electronic equipment is often termed a Tempest b Veiling c Bugging d Hardening

Answer 36

A Tempest

Question 37

Which of the following is not a correct statement with regard to narcotics a The term narcotic in its medical meaning refers to opium and opium derivatives of synthetic substitutes b They are the most effective agents known for the relief of intense pain c They have been used for a long period of time as a remedy for diarrhea d They tend to intensify vision and increase alertness

Answer 37

D They tend to intensify vision and increase alertness

Question 38

Which of the following characteristics does not pertain to morphine a It is the principal constituent of opium b Its legal use is restricted primarily to hospitals c It tastes sweet and is marketed in the form of yellow crystals d Tolerance and dependence develop rapidly

Answer 38

C It tastes sweet and is marketed in the form of yellow crystals

Question 39

Most of this substance is produced from morphine but it is often combined with other products such as aspirin or Tylenol It is often used for relief of coughs and it is by far the most widely used naturally occurring narcotic in medical treatment It is a Barbiturates b Mescaline c Chloral Hydrate d Codeine

Answer 39

D Codeine

Question 40

German scientists synthesized methadone during World War II because of a shortage of morphine Which of the following is not characteristic of methadone and its usage a Although chemically unlike morphine and heroin it produces many of the same effects b It was distributed under such names as amidone dolophine and methadone c It was widely used in the 1960s in the treatment of narcotic addicts d It is only effective when administered by injection

Answer 40

D It is only effective when administered by injection

Question 41

Which of the following characteristics do not pertain to the use or effects of depressants generally a The usual methods of administration are oral or injected b Excessive use results in drunken behavior similar to that of alcohol c There is no danger of tolerance developing d Taken as prescribed they may be beneficial for the relief of anxiety and tension

Answer 41

C Thre is no danger of tolerance development

Question 42

Another widely abused depressant is methaqualone All of the following are factually descriptive of methaqualone except one Identify this exception a It is chemically unrelated to the barbiturates b It was once mistakenly thought to be effective as an aphrodisiac c It is administered orally d It is one of the depressants that does not lead to tolerance and dependence

Answer 42

D It is one of the depressants that does not lead to tolerance and dependance

Question 43

All of the following are controlled substances grouped as stimulants except one Identify the exception a Cocaine b Amphetamines c Phenmetrazine d Mescaline

Answer 43

D Mescaline

Question 44

All of the following are factual statements descriptive of illicit cocaine except one which is a It is distributed on the street as a white to dark brown powder b It is often adulterated to about half its volume by a variety of other ingredients c This substance is only used through the process of injection d It is popularly accepted as a recreational drug

Answer 44

C This substance is only used through the process of injection

Question 45

Which of the following is another name for cocaine a Adipex b Bacarate c Piegine d Snow

Answer 45

D Snow

Question 46

Which of the following statements does not pertain to cocaine a It has a medical use as a sedative b There is a possibility that sustained use could result in physical dependence c There is a high possibility that sustained use could result in psychological dependence d Tolerance is a distinct possibility

Answer 46

A It has a medical use as a sedative

Question 47

The effects of illusions and hallucinations with poor perception of time and distance possibly indicates the use of which of the following substances a Cannabis b Hallucinogen c Stimulants d Depressants

Answer 47

B Hallucinogens

Question 48

All of the following are hallucinogens except a LSD b Marihuana c Mescaline d Phencyclidine

Answer 48

B Marijuana

Question 49

The source of marihuana is the a Peyote cactus b Mushrooms c Coca plant d Cannabis plant

Answer 49

D Cannabis Plant

Question 50

Cannabis products are usually taken a Through sniffing b Injection c Smoking d By rubbing into the skin

Answer 50

C Smoking

Question 51

The condition whereby a user develops an attachment to the use of a substance due to its ability to satisfy some emotional or personality need of the person is known as a Tolerance b Physical dependence c Addiction d Psychological Depend

Answer 51

D Psychological dependance

Question 52

The state of periodic or chronic intoxication produced by the repeated consumption of a substance is known as a Tolerance b Addiction c Habituation d Drug dependence

Answer 52

B Addiction

Question 53

What is SWOT

Answer 53

Strengths Weaknesses Opportunties and Threats in business venture

Question 54

What is SMART

Answer 54

Specific Measurable Attainable Relavent and Time bound

Question 55

What is the Primary resource of a business

Answer 55

its people

Question 56

Second most valuable resource to a company

Answer 56

corporate knowledge

Question 57

What are current accounts

Answer 57

assets and liabilities that can be converted quickly

Question 58

Borrowing Capital to purchase assets that can increase revenue

Answer 58

Leveraging

Question 59

What are the 9 main types of standards

Answer 59

basic product design process specification code management systems conformity assessment and personnel certification

Question 60

What is a comprehensive assessment

Answer 60

predetermined threshold has been reached additional information is gathered and implementation of a non immediate emergency resolution plan

Question 61

What is a threshold assessment

Answer 61

Determines whether an assessment should continue or only requires monitoring

Question 62

First level of assessing workplace violence

Answer 62

Initial Assessment determine whether there is an immediate risk of harm

Question 63

Depressants

Answer 63

Alcohol valium Librium Quaaludes

Question 64

Schedule IV Drugs

Answer 64

Darvon Darvocet phenobarbital and valium low dependency

Question 65

Schedule I drugs

Answer 65

Hash MJ Heroin LSD No medical use

Question 66

Schedule II Drugs

Answer 66

Cocaine morphine amphetamine and PCP accepted medical use with severe restrictions

Question 67

Schedule III Drugs

Answer 67

Codeine Tylenol with Codeine Vicodin potential for abuse but accepted medically

Question 68

what are the three principles of asset protection

Answer 68

five avenues to address risk balancing security and legal considerations and the five ds

Question 69

what are the five avenues to address risk

Answer 69

risk avoidance risk transfer risk spreading risk reduction amd risk acceptance

Question 70

what are the five D s

Answer 70

deter deny detect delay and destroy

Question 71

what are the four major areas of asset protection in telecom

Answer 71

information security network security fraud prevention and physical security

Question 72

What are the five forces shaping asset protection

Answer 72

technology and touch globalization in business standards and regulations convergence of security solutions and homeland security and the international security environment

Question 73

what is NISPOM

Answer 73

National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual

Question 74

what three things are needed for success in managing asset protection

Answer 74

technical expertise management ability ability to deal with people

Question 75

five basic functions of managing

Answer 75

planning organizing directing coordinating controlling

Question 76

maslows hierarchy of needs

Answer 76

self actualization esteem affiliation security physiological

Question 77

When buying insurance what should you look for

Answer 77

Perils property losses people locations time period covered and what hazards are excluded

Question 78

a loss that occurred during the period the policy was in force would be covered no matter when the occurenct was discovered even after the policy expired

Answer 78

Occurrence loss

Question 79

a physical loss of or damage to the object concerned

Answer 79

Direct loss

Question 80

reduction of net income due to loss of the use of the damaged or destroyed object

Answer 80

loss of use

Question 81

the cost of defending a liability suit and paying judgment or hospital and medical expenses following a personal accident

Answer 81

extra expense loss

Question 82

what is WAECUP

Answer 82

waste accidents error crime unethical practices

Question 83

what is SWOT

Answer 83

strengths weaknesses opportunities and threats

Question 84

what is thr STEP

Answer 84

social technological environmental and political

Question 85

common law definition of theft

Answer 85

the dishonest appropriation of property belonging to another with the intention of permanently depriving the owner of rightful possession or use of it

Question 86

definition of fraud

Answer 86

intentional deception perpetrated for the purpose of unlawfully taking anothers property theft by deception

Question 87

define employee theft

Answer 87

the unauthorized taking control or transfer of money and or property of the formal work organization that is perpetrated by an employee during the course of occupational activity

Question 88

what are the four characteristics involved in internal theft scams

Answer 88

diversion conversion disguise divergence

Question 89

the logical examination of crimes which have penetrated preventative measures including the frequency of specific crimes each incidents temporal details time and day and the risk posed to a propertys inhabitants as well as the application of revised security standards and preventive measure that if adhered to and monitored can be the panacea for a given crime dilemma

Answer 89

Crime analysis

Question 90

six principles of Executive protection

Answer 90

to achieve notoriety or fame bring attention to a personal or public problem avenge a perceived wrong end personal pain be removed from society or be killed save the country or the world develop a special relationship with the target mae money bring political change

Question 91

What are assassins motives

Answer 91

prevent and avoid danger realize that anyone can protect anyone dont stop to think keep clients out of trouble understand the security vs convenience continuum rely on brains not technology