Security Management Flashcards

1
Q
"From an organizational standpoint  the head of security should report to 
a  Superintendent of buildings
b  Manager of buildings and grounds
c  Head housekeeper
d  A vice president or higher"
A

D A vice president or higher

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2
Q
"The most conspicuous role of the security department in any organization is that of 
a  Educational services
b  Management services
c  Special services
d  Protective services"
A

D Protective Services

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3
Q

From an organizational standpoint the head of security should report to
a Superintendent of buildings
b Manager of buildings and grounds
c Head housekeeper
d A vice president or higher

A

D A vice president or higher

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4
Q

The most conspicuous role of the security department in any organization is that of
a Educational services
b Management services
c Special services
d Protective services

A

D Protective Services

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5
Q

Training sessions consisting of a security awareness program for new employees should be conducted by
a Special training officers
b Security personnel
c Consultants skilled in training
d Member of management

A

B Security Personnel

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6
Q

There are necessary and legitimate exceptions to the principle of unity of command One condition which sometimes allows for shifting in supervision is
a When order is given by the rank of captain or above
b When order is given by the head of a department
c When the order is given by the head of internal affairs
d During emergencies

A

D During Emergencies

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7
Q

Perhaps the most common shortcoming in the security industry is
a Lack of support by top management
b Failure to properly prepare and equip new supervisors with tools to discharge their important responsibilities supervisory training
c Lack of planning
d Lack of monetary resources

A

B Failure to properly prepare and equip new supervisiors with the tools to discharge their important responsibilities

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8
Q

Which of the following is not recommended policy with regard to security manuals
a It must be updated on regular basis
b Employee should not be allowed to have possession of it
c The manual should be put in the hands of all regular security personnel
d It should include procedural instructions for specific incidents

A

B Employee should not be allowed to have possession of it

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9
Q

Which of the following is not an advantage of using in house career personnel
a Career personnel develop a loyalty to the department
b Career personnel tend to be more ambitious
c There is more stability among career personnel
d Career personnel constitute a fixed limited cadre or pool of manpower resources

A

D Career personnel consitute a fixed limited cadre or pool of manpwer resources

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10
Q

Which of the following is known to be one of the disadvantages of contract security services
a Turnover
b Cost
c Manpower resource
d Skills

A

A Turnover

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11
Q

Ideally the person who should conduct the inspection of a security department is
a An outside consultant
b The second ranking person
c The security director or security manager
d The ranking sergeant

A

C The security Director or Security Manager

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12
Q

The process of determining the probability and cost of potential loss is known as
a Probability analysis
b Risk assessment
c Potential loss analysis
d Physical survey

A

B Risk Assessment

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13
Q

The ultimate responsibility for the internal security in a department should rest with
a The president
b Chairman of the board
c Security director
d The line supervisor

A

D The line supervisor

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14
Q

The issuance of weapons to guards is usually not justified
a In a situation where deterrence is needed in handling control of large amounts of cash
b In situations in which terrorism is a real threat
c In a situation where there would be greater danger to life safety without weapons than with them
d In a situation where there is no danger to life safety

A

D In a situation where there is no danger to life saftey

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15
Q

In issuing policy statements regarding the handling of disturbed persons the primary consideration is
a Legal liability to the disturbed
b Reducing the disturbed person to a form of benevolent custody and eliminating the immediate danger
c Legal liability to employees and third persons if restraint not achieved
d Employee community public relations

A

B Reducing the disturbed person to a form of benevolent custody and eliminating the immediate danger

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16
Q

Spotting the individual loss events that might take place is the primary step in dealing with security vulnerability This process is called
a Loss event probability
b Threat assessment process
c Loss event profile
d Actual threat analysis

A

C Loss event profile

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17
Q

The likelihood or probability of risks affecting the assets becoming actual loss events is known as
a Loss event probability
b Loss event profile
c Treat analysis control
d Threat target control

A

A Loss event probability

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18
Q

The impact or effect on the enterprise if the loss occurs is known as
a Loss event profile
b Loss event probability
c Loss event criticality
d Security survey analysis

A

C Loss event criticality

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19
Q

Which of the following is considered to be one of the three basic functions of risk management
a Lock control
b Barrier control
c Disaster management
d Loss control

A

D Loss Control

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20
Q

18 Oscar Newman published a classic in which he presented ideas and applied strategies from the New York public housing project to aid in reducing the risk of being victimized and reducing fear of crime when on the streets What is the name of this book
a Crime Prevention
b Crime Reduction
c Defensible Space
d Crime in Architectural Planning

A

C Defensible Space

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21
Q

From a security perspective what is the first factor to be considered in facility construction
a The identity of experienced consultants
b An effective security plan
c An architect with knowledge of physical security
d The building site itself

A

D The building itself

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22
Q

A critical on site examination and analysis of an industrial plant business home or public or private institution to ascertain the present security status to identify deficiencies or excesses to determine the protection needed and to make recommendations to improve the overall security is the definition of
a Security survey
b Risk analysis
c Full field inspection
d Crime prevention assessment

A

A Security Survey

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23
Q

There are two generally accepted definitions of risk These are most commonly known to risk managers and security officers as
a Potential risk and dynamic risk
b Profit risk and dynamic risk
c Potential risk and pure risk
d Pure risk and dynamic risk

A

D Pure risk and dynamic risk

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24
Q

The most effective deterrent to shoplifting is
a Highly competent and educated security officers
b Widespread use of sensor devices
c Well positioned CCTVs
d Well trained personnel

A

D Well trained personnel

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25
Q

A simplified answer to the question of why employees steal is
a Sickness in family
b To feed drug habit
c To live on a higher level
d The theft triangle

A

D The theft triangle

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26
Q

Many experts agree that the most important deterrent to internal theft is
a Threat of dismissal
b Fear of discovery
c Threat of prosecution
d Conscience pangs

A

B Fear of Discovery

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27
Q

Crime analysis is a key element in focusing the use of police and security resources to address crime problems Data collection and analysis are two specific steps The other two are
a Inspection and discovery of facts
b Response and feedback
c Feedback and corrective action
d Dissemination and feedback

A

D Dissemination and feedback

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28
Q

It is generally accepted that insurance rates are dependent upon two primary variables These are
a Cost of claims and competitors rates
b Competition among insurance companies and frequency of claims
c Cost of claims and frequency of claims
d Cost of claims and government regulations

A

C Cost of claims and frequency of claims

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29
Q

The basic types of protection which security personnel realize as best can be described by the following
a Fidelity Bonds
b Surety Bonds
c Burglary Robbery Theft Insurance
d All of the above

A

D All of the above

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30
Q

Bonds which require that an employee be investigated by the bonding company to limit the risk of dishonesty and if that trust is violated the insurance company must indemnify the employer are called
a Surety Bonds
b Fidelity Bonds
c Insurance Bonds
d Blanket Bonds

A

B Fidelity Bonds

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31
Q

Protection for a corporation if there is a failure to perform specified acts within a certain period of time is known as a
a Contract Bond
b Blanket Bond
c Surety Bond
d Fiduciary Bond

A

C Surety Bond

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32
Q

The urban planning and design process which integrates crime prevention techniques with neighborhood design is known as
a Urban Development Planning
b Conceptual Modeling in Architecture
c Environmental Design
d Environmental Security E S

A

D Environmental Security E S

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33
Q

The ability of design to counteract the perception that the area is isolated and criminally vulnerable is known as
a Natural Surveillance Techniques
b Image and Milieu
c Soft Area Protection
d Territoriality Cleansing

A

B Image and Milieu

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34
Q

The greatest ongoing threat to any business is
a Shoplifting
b Shrinkage
c Internal Theft
d Pilferage

A

C Internal Theft

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35
Q

Pilferage is defined as stealing in small quantities over a long period of time The taking of property entrusted to someones care is called
a Mistake of fact
b Misprison of a felony
c Uttering
d Embezzlement

A

D Embezzlement

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36
Q

The theft triangle consists of the following components
a Desire skill and training
b Motivation skill and opportunity
c Opportunity desire and skill
d Motivation opportunity and rationalization

A

D Motivation opportunity and rationalization

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37
Q

A key element in focusing the use of police and security resources to address crime problems is commonly called
a Data collection and analysis
b Systematic evaluation of data available
c Crime analysis
d Analysis and feedback

A

C Crime analysis

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38
Q

The practice of preventing unauthorized persons from gaining information by analyzing electromagnetic emanations from electronic equipment is often termed
a Tempest
b Veiling
c Bugging
d Hardening

A

A Tempest

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39
Q

Which of the following is not a correct statement with regard to narcotics
a The term narcotic in its medical meaning refers to opium and opium derivatives of synthetic substitutes
b They are the most effective agents known for the relief of intense pain
c They have been used for a long period of time as a remedy for diarrhea
d They tend to intensify vision and increase alertness

A

D They tend to intensify vision and increase alertness

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40
Q

Which of the following characteristics does not pertain to morphine
a It is the principal constituent of opium
b Its legal use is restricted primarily to hospitals
c It tastes sweet and is marketed in the form of yellow crystals
d Tolerance and dependence develop rapidly

A

C It tastes sweet and is marketed in the form of yellow crystals

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41
Q

Most of this substance is produced from morphine but it is often combined with other products such as aspirin or Tylenol It is often used for relief of coughs and it is by far the most widely used naturally occurring narcotic in medical treatment It is
a Barbiturates
b Mescaline
c Chloral Hydrate
d Codeine

A

D Codeine

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42
Q

German scientists synthesized methadone during World War II because of a shortage of morphine Which of the following is not characteristic of methadone and its usage
a Although chemically unlike morphine and heroin it produces many of the same effects
b It was distributed under such names as amidone dolophine and methadone
c It was widely used in the 1960s in the treatment of narcotic addicts
d It is only effective when administered by injection

A

D It is only effective when administered by injection

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43
Q

Which of the following characteristics do not pertain to the use or effects of depressants generally
a The usual methods of administration are oral or injected
b Excessive use results in drunken behavior similar to that of alcohol
c There is no danger of tolerance developing
d Taken as prescribed they may be beneficial for the relief of anxiety and tension

A

C Thre is no danger of tolerance development

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44
Q

Another widely abused depressant is methaqualone All of the following are factually descriptive of methaqualone except one Identify this exception
a It is chemically unrelated to the barbiturates
b It was once mistakenly thought to be effective as an aphrodisiac
c It is administered orally
d It is one of the depressants that does not lead to tolerance and dependence

A

D It is one of the depressants that does not lead to tolerance and dependance

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45
Q

All of the following are controlled substances grouped as stimulants except one Identify the exception
a Cocaine
b Amphetamines
c Phenmetrazine
d Mescaline

A

D Mescaline

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46
Q

All of the following are factual statements descriptive of illicit cocaine except one which is
a It is distributed on the street as a white to dark brown powder
b It is often adulterated to about half its volume by a variety of other ingredients
c This substance is only used through the process of injection
d It is popularly accepted as a recreational drug

A

C This substance is only used through the process of injection

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47
Q

Which of the following is another name for cocaine
a Adipex
b Bacarate
c Piegine
d Snow

A

D Snow

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48
Q

Which of the following statements does not pertain to cocaine
a It has a medical use as a sedative
b There is a possibility that sustained use could result in physical dependence
c There is a high possibility that sustained use could result in psychological dependence
d Tolerance is a distinct possibility

A

A It has a medical use as a sedative

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49
Q

The effects of illusions and hallucinations with poor perception of time and distance possibly indicates the use of which of the following substances
a Cannabis
b Hallucinogen
c Stimulants
d Depressants

A

B Hallucinogens

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50
Q

All of the following are hallucinogens except
a LSD
b Marihuana
c Mescaline
d Phencyclidine

A

B Marijuana

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51
Q

The source of marihuana is the
a Peyote cactus
b Mushrooms
c Coca plant
d Cannabis plant

A

D Cannabis Plant

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52
Q

Cannabis products are usually taken
a Through sniffing
b Injection
c Smoking
d By rubbing into the skin

A

C Smoking

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53
Q

The condition whereby a user develops an attachment to the use of a substance due to its ability to satisfy some emotional or personality need of the person is known as
a Tolerance
b Physical dependence
c Addiction
d Psychological Depend

A

D Psychological dependance

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54
Q

The state of periodic or chronic intoxication produced by the repeated consumption of a substance is known as
a Tolerance
b Addiction
c Habituation
d Drug dependence

A

B Addiction

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55
Q

What is SWOT

A

Strengths Weaknesses Opportunties and Threats in business venture

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56
Q

What is SMART

A

Specific Measurable Attainable Relavent and Time bound

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57
Q

What is the Primary resource of a business

A

its people

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58
Q

Second most valuable resource to a company

A

corporate knowledge

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59
Q

What are current accounts

A

assets and liabilities that can be converted quickly

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60
Q

Borrowing Capital to purchase assets that can increase revenue

A

Leveraging

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61
Q

What are the 9 main types of standards

A

basic product design process specification code management systems conformity assessment and personnel certification

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62
Q

What is a comprehensive assessment

A

predetermined threshold has been reached additional information is gathered and implementation of a non immediate emergency resolution plan

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63
Q

What is a threshold assessment

A

Determines whether an assessment should continue or only requires monitoring

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64
Q

First level of assessing workplace violence

A

Initial Assessment determine whether there is an immediate risk of harm

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65
Q

Depressants

A

Alcohol valium Librium Quaaludes

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66
Q

Schedule IV Drugs

A

Darvon Darvocet phenobarbital and valium low dependency

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67
Q

Schedule I drugs

A

Hash MJ Heroin LSD No medical use

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68
Q

Schedule II Drugs

A

Cocaine morphine amphetamine and PCP accepted medical use with severe restrictions

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69
Q

Schedule III Drugs

A

Codeine Tylenol with Codeine Vicodin potential for abuse but accepted medically

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70
Q

what are the three principles of asset protection

A

five avenues to address risk balancing security and legal considerations and the five ds

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71
Q

what are the five avenues to address risk

A

risk avoidance risk transfer risk spreading risk reduction amd risk acceptance

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72
Q

what are the five D s

A

deter deny detect delay and destroy

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73
Q

what are the four major areas of asset protection in telecom

A

information security network security fraud prevention and physical security

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74
Q

What are the five forces shaping asset protection

A

technology and touch globalization in business standards and regulations convergence of security solutions and homeland security and the international security environment

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75
Q

what is NISPOM

A

National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual

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76
Q

what three things are needed for success in managing asset protection

A

technical expertise management ability ability to deal with people

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77
Q

five basic functions of managing

A

planning organizing directing coordinating controlling

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78
Q

maslows hierarchy of needs

A

self actualization esteem affiliation security physiological

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79
Q

When buying insurance what should you look for

A

Perils property losses people locations time period covered and what hazards are excluded

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80
Q

a loss that occurred during the period the policy was in force would be covered no matter when the occurenct was discovered even after the policy expired

A

Occurrence loss

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81
Q

a physical loss of or damage to the object concerned

A

Direct loss

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82
Q

reduction of net income due to loss of the use of the damaged or destroyed object

A

loss of use

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83
Q

the cost of defending a liability suit and paying judgment or hospital and medical expenses following a personal accident

A

extra expense loss

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84
Q

what is WAECUP

A

waste accidents error crime unethical practices

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85
Q

what is SWOT

A

strengths weaknesses opportunities and threats

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86
Q

what is thr STEP

A

social technological environmental and political

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87
Q

common law definition of theft

A

the dishonest appropriation of property belonging to another with the intention of permanently depriving the owner of rightful possession or use of it

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88
Q

definition of fraud

A

intentional deception perpetrated for the purpose of unlawfully taking anothers property theft by deception

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89
Q

define employee theft

A

the unauthorized taking control or transfer of money and or property of the formal work organization that is perpetrated by an employee during the course of occupational activity

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90
Q

what are the four characteristics involved in internal theft scams

A

diversion conversion disguise divergence

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91
Q

the logical examination of crimes which have penetrated preventative measures including the frequency of specific crimes each incidents temporal details time and day and the risk posed to a propertys inhabitants as well as the application of revised security standards and preventive measure that if adhered to and monitored can be the panacea for a given crime dilemma

A

Crime analysis

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92
Q

six principles of Executive protection

A

to achieve notoriety or fame bring attention to a personal or public problem avenge a perceived wrong end personal pain be removed from society or be killed save the country or the world develop a special relationship with the target mae money bring political change

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93
Q

What are assassins motives

A

prevent and avoid danger realize that anyone can protect anyone dont stop to think keep clients out of trouble understand the security vs convenience continuum rely on brains not technology

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4
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94
Q

From an organizational standpoint the head of security should report to
a Superintendent of buildings
b Manager of buildings and grounds
c Head housekeeper
d A vice president or higher

A

D A vice president or higher

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95
Q

The most conspicuous role of the security department in any organization is that of
a Educational services
b Management services
c Special services
d Protective services

A

D Protective Services

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96
Q

Training sessions consisting of a security awareness program for new employees should be conducted by
a Special training officers
b Security personnel
c Consultants skilled in training
d Member of management

A

B Security Personnel

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97
Q

There are necessary and legitimate exceptions to the principle of unity of command One condition which sometimes allows for shifting in supervision is
a When order is given by the rank of captain or above
b When order is given by the head of a department
c When the order is given by the head of internal affairs
d During emergencies

A

D During Emergencies

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98
Q

Perhaps the most common shortcoming in the security industry is
a Lack of support by top management
b Failure to properly prepare and equip new supervisors with tools to discharge their important responsibilities supervisory training
c Lack of planning
d Lack of monetary resources

A

B Failure to properly prepare and equip new supervisiors with the tools to discharge their important responsibilities

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99
Q

Which of the following is not recommended policy with regard to security manuals
a It must be updated on regular basis
b Employee should not be allowed to have possession of it
c The manual should be put in the hands of all regular security personnel
d It should include procedural instructions for specific incidents

A

B Employee should not be allowed to have possession of it

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100
Q

Which of the following is not an advantage of using in house career personnel
a Career personnel develop a loyalty to the department
b Career personnel tend to be more ambitious
c There is more stability among career personnel
d Career personnel constitute a fixed limited cadre or pool of manpower resources

A

D Career personnel consitute a fixed limited cadre or pool of manpwer resources

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101
Q

Which of the following is known to be one of the disadvantages of contract security services
a Turnover
b Cost
c Manpower resource
d Skills

A

A Turnover

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102
Q

Ideally the person who should conduct the inspection of a security department is
a An outside consultant
b The second ranking person
c The security director or security manager
d The ranking sergeant

A

C The security Director or Security Manager

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103
Q

The process of determining the probability and cost of potential loss is known as
a Probability analysis
b Risk assessment
c Potential loss analysis
d Physical survey

A

B Risk Assessment

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104
Q

The ultimate responsibility for the internal security in a department should rest with
a The president
b Chairman of the board
c Security director
d The line supervisor

A

D The line supervisor

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105
Q

The issuance of weapons to guards is usually not justified
a In a situation where deterrence is needed in handling control of large amounts of cash
b In situations in which terrorism is a real threat
c In a situation where there would be greater danger to life safety without weapons than with them
d In a situation where there is no danger to life safety

A

D In a situation where there is no danger to life saftey

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106
Q

In issuing policy statements regarding the handling of disturbed persons the primary consideration is
a Legal liability to the disturbed
b Reducing the disturbed person to a form of benevolent custody and eliminating the immediate danger
c Legal liability to employees and third persons if restraint not achieved
d Employee community public relations

A

B Reducing the disturbed person to a form of benevolent custody and eliminating the immediate danger

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107
Q

Spotting the individual loss events that might take place is the primary step in dealing with security vulnerability This process is called
a Loss event probability
b Threat assessment process
c Loss event profile
d Actual threat analysis

A

C Loss event profile

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108
Q

The likelihood or probability of risks affecting the assets becoming actual loss events is known as
a Loss event probability
b Loss event profile
c Treat analysis control
d Threat target control

A

A Loss event probability

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109
Q

The impact or effect on the enterprise if the loss occurs is known as
a Loss event profile
b Loss event probability
c Loss event criticality
d Security survey analysis

A

C Loss event criticality

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110
Q

Which of the following is considered to be one of the three basic functions of risk management
a Lock control
b Barrier control
c Disaster management
d Loss control

A

D Loss Control

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111
Q

18 Oscar Newman published a classic in which he presented ideas and applied strategies from the New York public housing project to aid in reducing the risk of being victimized and reducing fear of crime when on the streets What is the name of this book
a Crime Prevention
b Crime Reduction
c Defensible Space
d Crime in Architectural Planning

A

C Defensible Space

112
Q

From a security perspective what is the first factor to be considered in facility construction
a The identity of experienced consultants
b An effective security plan
c An architect with knowledge of physical security
d The building site itself

A

D The building itself

113
Q

A critical on site examination and analysis of an industrial plant business home or public or private institution to ascertain the present security status to identify deficiencies or excesses to determine the protection needed and to make recommendations to improve the overall security is the definition of
a Security survey
b Risk analysis
c Full field inspection
d Crime prevention assessment

A

A Security Survey

114
Q

There are two generally accepted definitions of risk These are most commonly known to risk managers and security officers as
a Potential risk and dynamic risk
b Profit risk and dynamic risk
c Potential risk and pure risk
d Pure risk and dynamic risk

A

D Pure risk and dynamic risk

115
Q

The most effective deterrent to shoplifting is
a Highly competent and educated security officers
b Widespread use of sensor devices
c Well positioned CCTVs
d Well trained personnel

A

D Well trained personnel

116
Q

A simplified answer to the question of why employees steal is
a Sickness in family
b To feed drug habit
c To live on a higher level
d The theft triangle

A

D The theft triangle

117
Q

Many experts agree that the most important deterrent to internal theft is
a Threat of dismissal
b Fear of discovery
c Threat of prosecution
d Conscience pangs

A

B Fear of Discovery

118
Q

Crime analysis is a key element in focusing the use of police and security resources to address crime problems Data collection and analysis are two specific steps The other two are
a Inspection and discovery of facts
b Response and feedback
c Feedback and corrective action
d Dissemination and feedback

A

D Dissemination and feedback

119
Q

It is generally accepted that insurance rates are dependent upon two primary variables These are
a Cost of claims and competitors rates
b Competition among insurance companies and frequency of claims
c Cost of claims and frequency of claims
d Cost of claims and government regulations

A

C Cost of claims and frequency of claims

120
Q

The basic types of protection which security personnel realize as best can be described by the following
a Fidelity Bonds
b Surety Bonds
c Burglary Robbery Theft Insurance
d All of the above

A

D All of the above

121
Q

Bonds which require that an employee be investigated by the bonding company to limit the risk of dishonesty and if that trust is violated the insurance company must indemnify the employer are called
a Surety Bonds
b Fidelity Bonds
c Insurance Bonds
d Blanket Bonds

A

B Fidelity Bonds

122
Q

Protection for a corporation if there is a failure to perform specified acts within a certain period of time is known as a
a Contract Bond
b Blanket Bond
c Surety Bond
d Fiduciary Bond

A

C Surety Bond

123
Q

The urban planning and design process which integrates crime prevention techniques with neighborhood design is known as
a Urban Development Planning
b Conceptual Modeling in Architecture
c Environmental Design
d Environmental Security E S

A

D Environmental Security E S

124
Q

The ability of design to counteract the perception that the area is isolated and criminally vulnerable is known as
a Natural Surveillance Techniques
b Image and Milieu
c Soft Area Protection
d Territoriality Cleansing

A

B Image and Milieu

125
Q

The greatest ongoing threat to any business is
a Shoplifting
b Shrinkage
c Internal Theft
d Pilferage

A

C Internal Theft

126
Q

Pilferage is defined as stealing in small quantities over a long period of time The taking of property entrusted to someones care is called
a Mistake of fact
b Misprison of a felony
c Uttering
d Embezzlement

A

D Embezzlement

127
Q

The theft triangle consists of the following components
a Desire skill and training
b Motivation skill and opportunity
c Opportunity desire and skill
d Motivation opportunity and rationalization

A

D Motivation opportunity and rationalization

128
Q

A key element in focusing the use of police and security resources to address crime problems is commonly called
a Data collection and analysis
b Systematic evaluation of data available
c Crime analysis
d Analysis and feedback

A

C Crime analysis

129
Q

The practice of preventing unauthorized persons from gaining information by analyzing electromagnetic emanations from electronic equipment is often termed
a Tempest
b Veiling
c Bugging
d Hardening

A

A Tempest

130
Q

Which of the following is not a correct statement with regard to narcotics
a The term narcotic in its medical meaning refers to opium and opium derivatives of synthetic substitutes
b They are the most effective agents known for the relief of intense pain
c They have been used for a long period of time as a remedy for diarrhea
d They tend to intensify vision and increase alertness

A

D They tend to intensify vision and increase alertness

131
Q

Which of the following characteristics does not pertain to morphine
a It is the principal constituent of opium
b Its legal use is restricted primarily to hospitals
c It tastes sweet and is marketed in the form of yellow crystals
d Tolerance and dependence develop rapidly

A

C It tastes sweet and is marketed in the form of yellow crystals

132
Q

Most of this substance is produced from morphine but it is often combined with other products such as aspirin or Tylenol It is often used for relief of coughs and it is by far the most widely used naturally occurring narcotic in medical treatment It is
a Barbiturates
b Mescaline
c Chloral Hydrate
d Codeine

A

D Codeine

133
Q

German scientists synthesized methadone during World War II because of a shortage of morphine Which of the following is not characteristic of methadone and its usage
a Although chemically unlike morphine and heroin it produces many of the same effects
b It was distributed under such names as amidone dolophine and methadone
c It was widely used in the 1960s in the treatment of narcotic addicts
d It is only effective when administered by injection

A

D It is only effective when administered by injection

134
Q

Which of the following characteristics do not pertain to the use or effects of depressants generally
a The usual methods of administration are oral or injected
b Excessive use results in drunken behavior similar to that of alcohol
c There is no danger of tolerance developing
d Taken as prescribed they may be beneficial for the relief of anxiety and tension

A

C Thre is no danger of tolerance development

135
Q

Another widely abused depressant is methaqualone All of the following are factually descriptive of methaqualone except one Identify this exception
a It is chemically unrelated to the barbiturates
b It was once mistakenly thought to be effective as an aphrodisiac
c It is administered orally
d It is one of the depressants that does not lead to tolerance and dependence

A

D It is one of the depressants that does not lead to tolerance and dependance

136
Q

All of the following are controlled substances grouped as stimulants except one Identify the exception
a Cocaine
b Amphetamines
c Phenmetrazine
d Mescaline

A

D Mescaline

137
Q

All of the following are factual statements descriptive of illicit cocaine except one which is
a It is distributed on the street as a white to dark brown powder
b It is often adulterated to about half its volume by a variety of other ingredients
c This substance is only used through the process of injection
d It is popularly accepted as a recreational drug

A

C This substance is only used through the process of injection

138
Q

Which of the following is another name for cocaine
a Adipex
b Bacarate
c Piegine
d Snow

A

D Snow

139
Q

Which of the following statements does not pertain to cocaine
a It has a medical use as a sedative
b There is a possibility that sustained use could result in physical dependence
c There is a high possibility that sustained use could result in psychological dependence
d Tolerance is a distinct possibility

A

A It has a medical use as a sedative

140
Q

The effects of illusions and hallucinations with poor perception of time and distance possibly indicates the use of which of the following substances
a Cannabis
b Hallucinogen
c Stimulants
d Depressants

A

B Hallucinogens

141
Q

All of the following are hallucinogens except
a LSD
b Marihuana
c Mescaline
d Phencyclidine

A

B Marijuana

142
Q

The source of marihuana is the
a Peyote cactus
b Mushrooms
c Coca plant
d Cannabis plant

A

D Cannabis Plant

143
Q

Cannabis products are usually taken
a Through sniffing
b Injection
c Smoking
d By rubbing into the skin

A

C Smoking

144
Q

The condition whereby a user develops an attachment to the use of a substance due to its ability to satisfy some emotional or personality need of the person is known as
a Tolerance
b Physical dependence
c Addiction
d Psychological Depend

A

D Psychological dependance

145
Q

The state of periodic or chronic intoxication produced by the repeated consumption of a substance is known as
a Tolerance
b Addiction
c Habituation
d Drug dependence

A

B Addiction

146
Q

What is SWOT

A

Strengths Weaknesses Opportunties and Threats in business venture

147
Q

What is SMART

A

Specific Measurable Attainable Relavent and Time bound

148
Q

What is the Primary resource of a business

A

its people

149
Q

Second most valuable resource to a company

A

corporate knowledge

150
Q

What are current accounts

A

assets and liabilities that can be converted quickly

151
Q

Borrowing Capital to purchase assets that can increase revenue

A

Leveraging

152
Q

What are the 9 main types of standards

A

basic product design process specification code management systems conformity assessment and personnel certification

153
Q

What is a comprehensive assessment

A

predetermined threshold has been reached additional information is gathered and implementation of a non immediate emergency resolution plan

154
Q

What is a threshold assessment

A

Determines whether an assessment should continue or only requires monitoring

155
Q

First level of assessing workplace violence

A

Initial Assessment determine whether there is an immediate risk of harm

156
Q

Depressants

A

Alcohol valium Librium Quaaludes

157
Q

Schedule IV Drugs

A

Darvon Darvocet phenobarbital and valium low dependency

158
Q

Schedule I drugs

A

Hash MJ Heroin LSD No medical use

159
Q

Schedule II Drugs

A

Cocaine morphine amphetamine and PCP accepted medical use with severe restrictions

160
Q

Schedule III Drugs

A

Codeine Tylenol with Codeine Vicodin potential for abuse but accepted medically

161
Q

what are the three principles of asset protection

A

five avenues to address risk balancing security and legal considerations and the five ds

162
Q

what are the five avenues to address risk

A

risk avoidance risk transfer risk spreading risk reduction amd risk acceptance

163
Q

what are the five D s

A

deter deny detect delay and destroy

164
Q

what are the four major areas of asset protection in telecom

A

information security network security fraud prevention and physical security

165
Q

What are the five forces shaping asset protection

A

technology and touch globalization in business standards and regulations convergence of security solutions and homeland security and the international security environment

166
Q

what is NISPOM

A

National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual

167
Q

what three things are needed for success in managing asset protection

A

technical expertise management ability ability to deal with people

168
Q

five basic functions of managing

A

planning organizing directing coordinating controlling

169
Q

maslows hierarchy of needs

A

self actualization esteem affiliation security physiological

170
Q

When buying insurance what should you look for

A

Perils property losses people locations time period covered and what hazards are excluded

171
Q

a loss that occurred during the period the policy was in force would be covered no matter when the occurenct was discovered even after the policy expired

A

Occurrence loss

172
Q

a physical loss of or damage to the object concerned

A

Direct loss

173
Q

reduction of net income due to loss of the use of the damaged or destroyed object

A

loss of use

174
Q

the cost of defending a liability suit and paying judgment or hospital and medical expenses following a personal accident

A

extra expense loss

175
Q

what is WAECUP

A

waste accidents error crime unethical practices

176
Q

what is SWOT

A

strengths weaknesses opportunities and threats

177
Q

what is thr STEP

A

social technological environmental and political

178
Q

common law definition of theft

A

the dishonest appropriation of property belonging to another with the intention of permanently depriving the owner of rightful possession or use of it

179
Q

definition of fraud

A

intentional deception perpetrated for the purpose of unlawfully taking anothers property theft by deception

180
Q

define employee theft

A

the unauthorized taking control or transfer of money and or property of the formal work organization that is perpetrated by an employee during the course of occupational activity

181
Q

what are the four characteristics involved in internal theft scams

A

diversion conversion disguise divergence

182
Q

the logical examination of crimes which have penetrated preventative measures including the frequency of specific crimes each incidents temporal details time and day and the risk posed to a propertys inhabitants as well as the application of revised security standards and preventive measure that if adhered to and monitored can be the panacea for a given crime dilemma

A

Crime analysis

183
Q

six principles of Executive protection

A

to achieve notoriety or fame bring attention to a personal or public problem avenge a perceived wrong end personal pain be removed from society or be killed save the country or the world develop a special relationship with the target mae money bring political change

184
Q

What are assassins motives

A

prevent and avoid danger realize that anyone can protect anyone dont stop to think keep clients out of trouble understand the security vs convenience continuum rely on brains not technology

185
Q

From an organizational standpoint the head of security should report to
a Superintendent of buildings
b Manager of buildings and grounds
c Head housekeeper
d A vice president or higher

A

D A vice president or higher

186
Q

The most conspicuous role of the security department in any organization is that of
a Educational services
b Management services
c Special services
d Protective services

A

D Protective Services

187
Q

Training sessions consisting of a security awareness program for new employees should be conducted by
a Special training officers
b Security personnel
c Consultants skilled in training
d Member of management

A

B Security Personnel

188
Q

There are necessary and legitimate exceptions to the principle of unity of command One condition which sometimes allows for shifting in supervision is
a When order is given by the rank of captain or above
b When order is given by the head of a department
c When the order is given by the head of internal affairs
d During emergencies

A

D During Emergencies

189
Q

Perhaps the most common shortcoming in the security industry is
a Lack of support by top management
b Failure to properly prepare and equip new supervisors with tools to discharge their important responsibilities supervisory training
c Lack of planning
d Lack of monetary resources

A

B Failure to properly prepare and equip new supervisiors with the tools to discharge their important responsibilities

190
Q

Which of the following is not recommended policy with regard to security manuals
a It must be updated on regular basis
b Employee should not be allowed to have possession of it
c The manual should be put in the hands of all regular security personnel
d It should include procedural instructions for specific incidents

A

B Employee should not be allowed to have possession of it

191
Q

Which of the following is not an advantage of using in house career personnel
a Career personnel develop a loyalty to the department
b Career personnel tend to be more ambitious
c There is more stability among career personnel
d Career personnel constitute a fixed limited cadre or pool of manpower resources

A

D Career personnel consitute a fixed limited cadre or pool of manpwer resources

192
Q

Which of the following is known to be one of the disadvantages of contract security services
a Turnover
b Cost
c Manpower resource
d Skills

A

A Turnover

193
Q

Ideally the person who should conduct the inspection of a security department is
a An outside consultant
b The second ranking person
c The security director or security manager
d The ranking sergeant

A

C The security Director or Security Manager

194
Q

The process of determining the probability and cost of potential loss is known as
a Probability analysis
b Risk assessment
c Potential loss analysis
d Physical survey

A

B Risk Assessment

195
Q

The ultimate responsibility for the internal security in a department should rest with
a The president
b Chairman of the board
c Security director
d The line supervisor

A

D The line supervisor

196
Q

The issuance of weapons to guards is usually not justified
a In a situation where deterrence is needed in handling control of large amounts of cash
b In situations in which terrorism is a real threat
c In a situation where there would be greater danger to life safety without weapons than with them
d In a situation where there is no danger to life safety

A

D In a situation where there is no danger to life saftey

197
Q

In issuing policy statements regarding the handling of disturbed persons the primary consideration is
a Legal liability to the disturbed
b Reducing the disturbed person to a form of benevolent custody and eliminating the immediate danger
c Legal liability to employees and third persons if restraint not achieved
d Employee community public relations

A

B Reducing the disturbed person to a form of benevolent custody and eliminating the immediate danger

198
Q

Spotting the individual loss events that might take place is the primary step in dealing with security vulnerability This process is called
a Loss event probability
b Threat assessment process
c Loss event profile
d Actual threat analysis

A

C Loss event profile

199
Q

The likelihood or probability of risks affecting the assets becoming actual loss events is known as
a Loss event probability
b Loss event profile
c Treat analysis control
d Threat target control

A

A Loss event probability

200
Q

The impact or effect on the enterprise if the loss occurs is known as
a Loss event profile
b Loss event probability
c Loss event criticality
d Security survey analysis

A

C Loss event criticality

201
Q

Which of the following is considered to be one of the three basic functions of risk management
a Lock control
b Barrier control
c Disaster management
d Loss control

A

D Loss Control

202
Q

18 Oscar Newman published a classic in which he presented ideas and applied strategies from the New York public housing project to aid in reducing the risk of being victimized and reducing fear of crime when on the streets What is the name of this book
a Crime Prevention
b Crime Reduction
c Defensible Space
d Crime in Architectural Planning

A

C Defensible Space

203
Q

From a security perspective what is the first factor to be considered in facility construction
a The identity of experienced consultants
b An effective security plan
c An architect with knowledge of physical security
d The building site itself

A

D The building itself

204
Q

A critical on site examination and analysis of an industrial plant business home or public or private institution to ascertain the present security status to identify deficiencies or excesses to determine the protection needed and to make recommendations to improve the overall security is the definition of
a Security survey
b Risk analysis
c Full field inspection
d Crime prevention assessment

A

A Security Survey

205
Q

There are two generally accepted definitions of risk These are most commonly known to risk managers and security officers as
a Potential risk and dynamic risk
b Profit risk and dynamic risk
c Potential risk and pure risk
d Pure risk and dynamic risk

A

D Pure risk and dynamic risk

206
Q

The most effective deterrent to shoplifting is
a Highly competent and educated security officers
b Widespread use of sensor devices
c Well positioned CCTVs
d Well trained personnel

A

D Well trained personnel

207
Q

A simplified answer to the question of why employees steal is
a Sickness in family
b To feed drug habit
c To live on a higher level
d The theft triangle

A

D The theft triangle

208
Q

Many experts agree that the most important deterrent to internal theft is
a Threat of dismissal
b Fear of discovery
c Threat of prosecution
d Conscience pangs

A

B Fear of Discovery

209
Q

Crime analysis is a key element in focusing the use of police and security resources to address crime problems Data collection and analysis are two specific steps The other two are
a Inspection and discovery of facts
b Response and feedback
c Feedback and corrective action
d Dissemination and feedback

A

D Dissemination and feedback

210
Q

It is generally accepted that insurance rates are dependent upon two primary variables These are
a Cost of claims and competitors rates
b Competition among insurance companies and frequency of claims
c Cost of claims and frequency of claims
d Cost of claims and government regulations

A

C Cost of claims and frequency of claims

211
Q

The basic types of protection which security personnel realize as best can be described by the following
a Fidelity Bonds
b Surety Bonds
c Burglary Robbery Theft Insurance
d All of the above

A

D All of the above

212
Q

Bonds which require that an employee be investigated by the bonding company to limit the risk of dishonesty and if that trust is violated the insurance company must indemnify the employer are called
a Surety Bonds
b Fidelity Bonds
c Insurance Bonds
d Blanket Bonds

A

B Fidelity Bonds

213
Q

Protection for a corporation if there is a failure to perform specified acts within a certain period of time is known as a
a Contract Bond
b Blanket Bond
c Surety Bond
d Fiduciary Bond

A

C Surety Bond

214
Q

The urban planning and design process which integrates crime prevention techniques with neighborhood design is known as
a Urban Development Planning
b Conceptual Modeling in Architecture
c Environmental Design
d Environmental Security E S

A

D Environmental Security E S

215
Q

The ability of design to counteract the perception that the area is isolated and criminally vulnerable is known as
a Natural Surveillance Techniques
b Image and Milieu
c Soft Area Protection
d Territoriality Cleansing

A

B Image and Milieu

216
Q

The greatest ongoing threat to any business is
a Shoplifting
b Shrinkage
c Internal Theft
d Pilferage

A

C Internal Theft

217
Q

Pilferage is defined as stealing in small quantities over a long period of time The taking of property entrusted to someones care is called
a Mistake of fact
b Misprison of a felony
c Uttering
d Embezzlement

A

D Embezzlement

218
Q

The theft triangle consists of the following components
a Desire skill and training
b Motivation skill and opportunity
c Opportunity desire and skill
d Motivation opportunity and rationalization

A

D Motivation opportunity and rationalization

219
Q

A key element in focusing the use of police and security resources to address crime problems is commonly called
a Data collection and analysis
b Systematic evaluation of data available
c Crime analysis
d Analysis and feedback

A

C Crime analysis

220
Q

The practice of preventing unauthorized persons from gaining information by analyzing electromagnetic emanations from electronic equipment is often termed
a Tempest
b Veiling
c Bugging
d Hardening

A

A Tempest

221
Q

Which of the following is not a correct statement with regard to narcotics
a The term narcotic in its medical meaning refers to opium and opium derivatives of synthetic substitutes
b They are the most effective agents known for the relief of intense pain
c They have been used for a long period of time as a remedy for diarrhea
d They tend to intensify vision and increase alertness

A

D They tend to intensify vision and increase alertness

222
Q

Which of the following characteristics does not pertain to morphine
a It is the principal constituent of opium
b Its legal use is restricted primarily to hospitals
c It tastes sweet and is marketed in the form of yellow crystals
d Tolerance and dependence develop rapidly

A

C It tastes sweet and is marketed in the form of yellow crystals

223
Q

Most of this substance is produced from morphine but it is often combined with other products such as aspirin or Tylenol It is often used for relief of coughs and it is by far the most widely used naturally occurring narcotic in medical treatment It is
a Barbiturates
b Mescaline
c Chloral Hydrate
d Codeine

A

D Codeine

224
Q

German scientists synthesized methadone during World War II because of a shortage of morphine Which of the following is not characteristic of methadone and its usage
a Although chemically unlike morphine and heroin it produces many of the same effects
b It was distributed under such names as amidone dolophine and methadone
c It was widely used in the 1960s in the treatment of narcotic addicts
d It is only effective when administered by injection

A

D It is only effective when administered by injection

225
Q

Which of the following characteristics do not pertain to the use or effects of depressants generally
a The usual methods of administration are oral or injected
b Excessive use results in drunken behavior similar to that of alcohol
c There is no danger of tolerance developing
d Taken as prescribed they may be beneficial for the relief of anxiety and tension

A

C Thre is no danger of tolerance development

226
Q

Another widely abused depressant is methaqualone All of the following are factually descriptive of methaqualone except one Identify this exception
a It is chemically unrelated to the barbiturates
b It was once mistakenly thought to be effective as an aphrodisiac
c It is administered orally
d It is one of the depressants that does not lead to tolerance and dependence

A

D It is one of the depressants that does not lead to tolerance and dependance

227
Q

All of the following are controlled substances grouped as stimulants except one Identify the exception
a Cocaine
b Amphetamines
c Phenmetrazine
d Mescaline

A

D Mescaline

228
Q

All of the following are factual statements descriptive of illicit cocaine except one which is
a It is distributed on the street as a white to dark brown powder
b It is often adulterated to about half its volume by a variety of other ingredients
c This substance is only used through the process of injection
d It is popularly accepted as a recreational drug

A

C This substance is only used through the process of injection

229
Q

Which of the following is another name for cocaine
a Adipex
b Bacarate
c Piegine
d Snow

A

D Snow

230
Q

Which of the following statements does not pertain to cocaine
a It has a medical use as a sedative
b There is a possibility that sustained use could result in physical dependence
c There is a high possibility that sustained use could result in psychological dependence
d Tolerance is a distinct possibility

A

A It has a medical use as a sedative

231
Q

The effects of illusions and hallucinations with poor perception of time and distance possibly indicates the use of which of the following substances
a Cannabis
b Hallucinogen
c Stimulants
d Depressants

A

B Hallucinogens

232
Q

All of the following are hallucinogens except
a LSD
b Marihuana
c Mescaline
d Phencyclidine

A

B Marijuana

233
Q

The source of marihuana is the
a Peyote cactus
b Mushrooms
c Coca plant
d Cannabis plant

A

D Cannabis Plant

234
Q

Cannabis products are usually taken
a Through sniffing
b Injection
c Smoking
d By rubbing into the skin

A

C Smoking

235
Q

The condition whereby a user develops an attachment to the use of a substance due to its ability to satisfy some emotional or personality need of the person is known as
a Tolerance
b Physical dependence
c Addiction
d Psychological Depend

A

D Psychological dependance

236
Q

The state of periodic or chronic intoxication produced by the repeated consumption of a substance is known as
a Tolerance
b Addiction
c Habituation
d Drug dependence

A

B Addiction

237
Q

What is SWOT

A

Strengths Weaknesses Opportunties and Threats in business venture

238
Q

What is SMART

A

Specific Measurable Attainable Relavent and Time bound

239
Q

What is the Primary resource of a business

A

its people

240
Q

Second most valuable resource to a company

A

corporate knowledge

241
Q

What are current accounts

A

assets and liabilities that can be converted quickly

242
Q

Borrowing Capital to purchase assets that can increase revenue

A

Leveraging

243
Q

What are the 9 main types of standards

A

basic product design process specification code management systems conformity assessment and personnel certification

244
Q

What is a comprehensive assessment

A

predetermined threshold has been reached additional information is gathered and implementation of a non immediate emergency resolution plan

245
Q

What is a threshold assessment

A

Determines whether an assessment should continue or only requires monitoring

246
Q

First level of assessing workplace violence

A

Initial Assessment determine whether there is an immediate risk of harm

247
Q

Depressants

A

Alcohol valium Librium Quaaludes

248
Q

Schedule IV Drugs

A

Darvon Darvocet phenobarbital and valium low dependency

249
Q

Schedule I drugs

A

Hash MJ Heroin LSD No medical use

250
Q

Schedule II Drugs

A

Cocaine morphine amphetamine and PCP accepted medical use with severe restrictions

251
Q

Schedule III Drugs

A

Codeine Tylenol with Codeine Vicodin potential for abuse but accepted medically

252
Q

what are the three principles of asset protection

A

five avenues to address risk balancing security and legal considerations and the five ds

253
Q

what are the five avenues to address risk

A

risk avoidance risk transfer risk spreading risk reduction amd risk acceptance

254
Q

what are the five D s

A

deter deny detect delay and destroy

255
Q

what are the four major areas of asset protection in telecom

A

information security network security fraud prevention and physical security

256
Q

What are the five forces shaping asset protection

A

technology and touch globalization in business standards and regulations convergence of security solutions and homeland security and the international security environment

257
Q

what is NISPOM

A

National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual

258
Q

what three things are needed for success in managing asset protection

A

technical expertise management ability ability to deal with people

259
Q

five basic functions of managing

A

planning organizing directing coordinating controlling

260
Q

maslows hierarchy of needs

A

self actualization esteem affiliation security physiological

261
Q

When buying insurance what should you look for

A

Perils property losses people locations time period covered and what hazards are excluded

262
Q

a loss that occurred during the period the policy was in force would be covered no matter when the occurenct was discovered even after the policy expired

A

Occurrence loss

263
Q

a physical loss of or damage to the object concerned

A

Direct loss

264
Q

reduction of net income due to loss of the use of the damaged or destroyed object

A

loss of use

265
Q

the cost of defending a liability suit and paying judgment or hospital and medical expenses following a personal accident

A

extra expense loss

266
Q

what is WAECUP

A

waste accidents error crime unethical practices

267
Q

what is SWOT

A

strengths weaknesses opportunities and threats

268
Q

what is thr STEP

A

social technological environmental and political

269
Q

common law definition of theft

A

the dishonest appropriation of property belonging to another with the intention of permanently depriving the owner of rightful possession or use of it

270
Q

definition of fraud

A

intentional deception perpetrated for the purpose of unlawfully taking anothers property theft by deception

271
Q

define employee theft

A

the unauthorized taking control or transfer of money and or property of the formal work organization that is perpetrated by an employee during the course of occupational activity

272
Q

what are the four characteristics involved in internal theft scams

A

diversion conversion disguise divergence

273
Q

the logical examination of crimes which have penetrated preventative measures including the frequency of specific crimes each incidents temporal details time and day and the risk posed to a propertys inhabitants as well as the application of revised security standards and preventive measure that if adhered to and monitored can be the panacea for a given crime dilemma

A

Crime analysis

274
Q

six principles of Executive protection

A

to achieve notoriety or fame bring attention to a personal or public problem avenge a perceived wrong end personal pain be removed from society or be killed save the country or the world develop a special relationship with the target mae money bring political change

275
Q

What are assassins motives

A

prevent and avoid danger realize that anyone can protect anyone dont stop to think keep clients out of trouble understand the security vs convenience continuum rely on brains not technology