Security Architecture and Design Flashcards

1
Q

Security Model Concepts

A

Confidentiality

Integrity

Availability

Defense in depth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

System Architecture

A

Process of describing, representing components that make up the planned system and interrelationships between components.

Answer questions like:

what is the purpose of system?

who will use it?

what environment will it operate in?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

System Architecture Steps

A
  1. System Design Phase - gather system requirements, and manner in which requirements will be met
  2. Development Phase - HW, SW components assigned for development
  3. Maintenance Phase - System and Security architecture are evaluated to ensure system operates properly and security is maintained
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ISO / IEC 42010:2011 Terminology

Architecture

A

Describes organization of system including its components and their interrelationships along with principles that guide its design and evolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ISO / IEC 42010:2011 Terminology

AD - Architectural Description

A

Set of documents that convey the architecture in a formal manner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ISO / IEC 42010:2011 Terminology

Stakeholder

A

Individuals, teams, departments including groups outside organization with interests or concerns to consider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ISO / IEC 42010:2011 Terminology

View

A

Representation of the system from the perspective of a stakeholder or set of stakeholders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

ISO / IEC 42010:2011 Terminology

Viewpoint

A

Template used to develop individual views that establish the audience, techniques and assumptions made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Computing Platforms

Mainframe / Thin Clients

A

power is on mainframe, clients just used to access it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Computing Platforms

Distributed Systems (Client / Server)

A

devices have client software that interact with server software

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Computing Platforms

Middleware

A

software that talks between two different systems

ex. Users connect to software that provides interface which accesses databases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Computing Platforms

Embedded Systems

A

Platform in another system.

System within a system

Embedded in hardware or software

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Computing Platforms

Mobile Computing

A

software running on tablets, phones, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Virtual Computing and Security Services

A

Running multiple instances of operating system on a single server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Security Services

Boundary Control

A

Placing components in security zones and maintaining boundary control among them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Security Services

Access Control Services

A

Gives users only the access required to do their jobs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Security Services

Integrity Services

A

Ensures data moving through OS or application can be verified as not damaged or corrupted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Security Services

Cryptography Services

A

Encrypting information in transit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Security Services

Auditing and Monitoring Services

A

Method of tracking the activities of users and of the operations of the system processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

System Components

CPU

A

Executes all instructions in the code

Multiprocessing allows executing multiple instructions in parallel

CPUs have their own memory

Can work in user mode (user or app) or privileged mode (for operating system)

If instruction for CPU is marked to be performed in privileged mode, it must be a trusted OS Process and is given functionality not available in user mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

System Components

RAM

A
Desktop
SDRAM - Synchronous Dynamic RAM
DDR SDRAM - Double Data Rate SDRAM
DDR 2 SDRAM - Double Data Rate 2 SDRAM
DDR 3 SDRAM - Double Data Rate 3 SDRAM

Laptop
SODIMM - Small Outline DIMM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

System Components

ROM

A

Flash Memory - electronically programmable ROM

PLD - Programmable Logic Device, integrated circuit with internal logic gates that can be changed programmatically

FPGA - Field Programmable Gate Array, a type of PLD programmed by blowing fuse connections on the chip, or using an antiques that makes connection when high voltage applied to junction

Firmware - type of ROM where a program or low-level instructions are installed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Memory Concepts

Associative Memory

A

Searches for specific data value in memory rather than by specific memory address

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Memory Concepts

Implied Addressing

A

Refers to registers usually contained inside the CPU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Memory Concepts

Absolute Addressing

A

Addresses the entire primary memory space. CPU uses the physical memory addresses that are called absolute addresses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Memory Concepts

Cache

A

Small amount of high-speed RAM that holds the instructions and data from primary memory and that has high probability of being accessed during currently executed portion of a program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Memory Concepts

Indirect Addressing

A

The address location specified in the program instruction contains the address of the final desired location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Memory Concepts

Logical Address

A

Address at which a memory cell or storage element appears to reside from the perspective of an executing program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Memory Concepts

Relative Address

A

Specifies its locations by indicating its distance from another address

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Memory Concepts

Virtual memory

A

Location on hard drive used for temporary storage when memory space is low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Memory Concepts

Memory Leak

A

Occurs when computer program incorrectly manages memory allocations which can exhaust available system memory as an application runs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Rings of privilege

0, 1, 2, 3, 4

A
Ring 0 - Most privileged
Ring 1 
Ring 2
Ring 3
Ring 4 - least privileged
etc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Multitasking Types

Symmetric, Asymmetric

A

Symmetric Multitasking
Two processes divide the same work

Asymmetric Multitasking
One processor is dedicated to the OS, other(s) dedicated to user operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

System Security Architecture

A

Views components that comprise a system from a security perspective

Should be derived from the organization security policy

System-specific policy must be more detailed. It addresses level security required on a device, OS or application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria
(Orange Book Concepts)

TCB - Trusted Computer Base

A

Composed of components (HW, firmware, SW) that are trusted to enforce the security policy of the system

Security Perimeter - dividing line between trusted parts of system and untrusted parts

Reference Monitor - any system component that enforces access controls on an object

Security Kernel - The HW, firmware, SW elements of a TCB that implements the reference monitor concept

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Security Architecture Frameworks

Zachman Framework

A

2D model that intersects communication interrogatives (what, why, where, etc) with viewpoints like planner, owner, designer, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Security Architecture Frameworks

SABSA - Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture

A

Attempts to enhance communication process between stakeholders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Security Architecture Frameworks

ITIL - IT Infrastructure Library

A

Set of best practices which have become de facto standard for IT Service Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

TOGAF

The Open Group Architecture Framework

A

Calls for an ADM (architectural development method) that uses an iterative process which continuously monitors and updates individual requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Security Architecture Documentation

ISO / IEC 27000 Series

A

Establishes information security standards published jointly by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the Electrotechnical Commission (IEC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Security Architecture Documentation

CobiT
Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology

A

Derived from the COSO framework created by the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission.

Deals with IT Governance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Security Models

State Machine Model

A

Examines every possible state that system could be in and ensures the system maintains proper security relationships between objects and subjects in each state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Security Models

Multilevel Lattice Models

A

Assigns each security subject a label defining upper and lower bounds of the subjects access to the system.

Applies controls to all objects by organizing them into levels or lattices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Security Models

Matrix-based models

A

Organizes tables of subjects and objects indicating what actions individual subjects can take upon individual objects, often implemented as a control matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Security Models

Non-Interference Models

A

Concerned with subject’s knowledge of the state of the system at a point in time.

Concentrates on preventing actions that take place at one level from altering state presented to another level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Security Models

Information Flow Models

A

Attempts to prevent flow of information from one entity to another that violates or negates the security policy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Security Models

Bell-LaPadula Model

A

Incorporates 3 basic rules regarding flow of information in a system

Simple Security Rule
A subject cannot read data located at higher security level than that possessed by the subject (aka no read up)

    • Property Rule
      A subject cannot write to a lower level than that possessed by the subject (aka no write down or confinement rule)

Strong Star Property Rule
A subject can perform both read and write functions only at the same level possessed by the subject

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Security Models

Bell-LaPadula Model Limitations

A

No provision for changing data access control. Only works well with access systems that are static in nature

Doesn’t address covert channels. Low-level subject can sometimes detect existence of a high-level object when it’s denied access. Sometimes it’s not enough to hide the content of an object, the existence may also need to be hidden

Main contribution at expense of other concepts is confidentiality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Security Models

Biba Model

A

Applies series of properties or axioms to guide protection of integrity

Integrity Axiom
A subject cannot write to a higher integrity level than that which he has access (no write up)

Simple Integrity Axiom
Subject cannot read to a lower integrity level than that which he has access (no read down)

Invocation Property
A subject cannot invoke (request service) of higher integrity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Security Models

Clark-Wilson Integrity Model

A

Describes series of elements used to control integrity of data

User - an active agent

TP (Transformation Procedure) - An abstract operation like read, write, modify implemented via programming

CDI (Constrained Data Item) - Item that can be manipulated only through a TP

UDI (Unconstrained Data Item) - An item that can be manipulated by a user via read and write operations

IVP (Integrity Verification Procedure) - A check of the consistency of data with the real world

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Security Models

Clark-Wilson Integrity Model part 2

A

Enforces its elements by allowing data to be altered only through programs and not directly by users. Goals are separation of duties and well-formed transactions

Separation of duties - ensures certain operations require additional verification

Well-Formed Transaction - Ensures all values checked before and after transaction by carrying out particular operations to complete change of data from one state to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Security Models

Lipner Model

A

Combines elements of Bell-LaPadula and Biba

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Security Models

Brewer-Nash (Chinese Wall) Model

A

If users accesses data set A, then set B is now unavailable

Goal is to protect against conflicts of interests by tracking previous requests.

Introduced concept of allowing access controls to change dynamically based on user’s previous actions

54
Q

Security Models

Graham-Denning Model

A

Attempts to address issue ignored by Bell-LaPadula - Deals with delegate and transfer rights.

55
Q

Security Models

Harrison-Ruzzo-Ullman Model

A

Restricts set of operations that can be performed on an object to a finite set to ensure integrity

56
Q

Security Modes

Dedicated Security Mode

A

Employs single classification level

All users can access all data, but they must sign NDA and be formally approved for access on need-to-know basis

57
Q

Security Modes

System High Security Mode

A

All users have same security clearance.

They do not all have a need-to-know clearance for all the information in the system

58
Q

Security Modes

Compartmented Security Mode

A

All users must have the highest security clearance (as in both dedicated and system high security)

They must also have valid need-to-know clearance, signed NDA and formal approval for information they have access

59
Q

Security Modes

Multilevel Security Mode

A

Allows two or more classifications levels of information to be processed at same time

60
Q

System Evaluation and Assurance Levels

TCSEC
Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria

A

Developed by National Computer Security Center for the DoD to evaluate products

61
Q

System Evaluation and Assurance Levels

Orange Book

A

Collection of criteria based on Bell-LaPadula model used to grade the security of a computer system

62
Q

System Evaluation and Assurance Levels

Red Book

A

Addresses network security

63
Q

System Evaluation and Assurance Levels

ITSEC

A

Addresses integrity and availability plus confidentiality

Mainly set of guidelines used in Europe

64
Q

System Evaluation and Assurance Levels

Common Criteria

A

Uses EAL’s (Evaluation Assurance Levels) to rate systems with each representing successively higher level of security testing and design in a system

65
Q

TCSEC Classes

A
B
C
D

A

A - Verified protection
A1 - Verified design

B - Mandatory Protection
B1 - labeled security protection
B2 - structured protection
B3 - security domains

C - discretionary protection
C1 - discretionary security protection
C2 - controlled access protection

D - Minimal protection

66
Q

ITSEC Ratings

functional requirements
assurance requirements

A

10 classes
F1 to F10 to evaluate functional requirements

7 classes E0-E6 to evaluate assurance requirements

67
Q

Common Criteria Assurance Levels

EAL 1-7

A

EAL1 - Functionally tested
EAL2 - Structurally tested
EAL3 - Methodically tested and checked
EAL4 - Methodically designed, tested and reviewed
EAL5 - Semi-formally designed and tested
EAL6 - Semi-formally verified design and tested
EAL7 - Formally verified design and tested

68
Q

Common Criteria

Uses Protection Profile during the evaluation process

A

Protection profile contains these elements

descriptive elements

rationale

functional requirements

development assurance requirements

evaluation assurance requirments

69
Q

Certification vs Accreditation

A

Certification evaluates technical system components. comes before accreditation

Accreditation occurs when adequacy of a system’s overall security is accepted by management

70
Q

Accreditation process by NIACAP has 4 phases

A

Phase 1 - definition
Phase 2 - Verification
Phase 3 - validation
Phase 4 - Post accreditation

71
Q

Types of accreditation

A

Type accreditation - evaluates application or system distributed to different locations. Not accredited by location, but by type

System accreditation - evaluates application or support system

Site accreditation - evaluates application or system at a specific self-contained location

72
Q

Security Architecture Threats

Maintenance Hooks

A

built into code (aka back door) that allows developers access without normal controls

73
Q

Security Architecture Threats

Time of check / time of use attacks

A

attempt to take advantage of sequence of events that occur as the system completes common tasks

74
Q

Security Architecture Threats

Web based attacks

A

operate by making normal or modified requests aimed at taking advantage of inadequate input validation and parameters, or instruction spoofing

75
Q

Security Architecture Threats

Server based attacks

A

focuses on operations of the server OS, rather than web applications

76
Q

Addressing concerns with XML

Define SAML and OWASP

A

SAML
Security Assertion Markup Language - XML based open standard data format for exchanging authentication and authorization data, mainly between identity provider and service provider

OWASP
Open Web Application - open source application security project. They create guidelines, testing procedures and tools to help web security. Maintain top-ten list of web application security risks

77
Q

Database Security Concepts

Inference

A

Occurs when someone has access to info at one level that allows them to infer info about another level

78
Q

Database Security Concepts

Polyinstantiation

A

Main mitigation technique for inference

Development of a detailed version of an object from another object using different values in the new object

79
Q

Database Security Concepts

Aggregation

A

Assembling or compiling units of information at one sensitivity level and having the resultant totality of data being of a higher sensitivity level than the individual components

80
Q

Database Security Concepts

Contamination

A

mixing of data with one sensitivity level, with another

81
Q

Data Mining Warehouse

A

repository of information from various databases

lets multiple data sources to be stored in one place and organized so that redundancy is reduced (aka data normalizing)

data mining tools used to manipulate data and discover relationships

82
Q

Distributed Systems Security
Special cases where extra security concerns may be needed

Cloud Computing
Grid Computing
Peer to Peer Computing

A

Cloud - centralizing data in web environment

Grid - harnessing power of multiple computers to perform a job

P2P - any client-server solution where any platform can be a client or server or both

83
Q

4 Characteristics of ActiveX Data Objects (ADO)

A

high-level programming interface to an underlying data access technology like OLE DB

set of COM objects for accessing data sources (not just database access)

Allows developers to write programs that access data without knowing how database is implemented

SQL Commands not required to access database when using ADO

84
Q

In computer crime, what does MOM stand for?

A

Means
Opportunity
Motives

85
Q

What does the Operating System’s Control Unit do?

A

fetches programming code, interprets it, oversees execution of the instruction sets.

It manages and synchronizes the system while different applications’ code is being executed

86
Q

What are 3 types of Digital Forensic Science?

A

Media Analysis
Software Analysis
Network Analysis

87
Q

What type of DFS is referred to as “computer forensics”

A

media analysis

88
Q

What encrypts all the data in a communication path including the header, trailer and routing information?

End to End Encryption
Link Encryption

A

Link Encryption

89
Q

What generation does machine language exist in?

A

generation one

1 - machine
2 - assembly
3 - high level
4 - very high level
5 - natural
90
Q

What is least important when quantifying risks associated with a potential disaster?

a. gathering information from agencies that report on disasters
b. ID company’s key functions
c. ID critical systems
d. estimating potential loss and impact

A

gathering information from agencies that report probability of certain natural disasters is the least important

91
Q

What is key clustering?

A

when different keys generate the same ciphertext for the same message

92
Q

The 5 defined maturity levels of the CMMI (Capability Maturity Model)

I
R
D
M
O
A
Initial
Repeatable
Defined
Managed
Optimizing
93
Q

Are increased developmental testing and using only operational data - good remedies to buffer overflows?

A

yes

94
Q

Do stateful inspection firewalls pay attention to previous packets and monitor the sequence and acknowledgement numbers of a connection, to understand when a packet could be out of sequence?

A

yes

95
Q

Should you put smoke detectors near exterior rear doorways?

A

No

96
Q

Do block ciphers perform substitution by using S-Boxes? (substitution boxes)

A

yes

they use lookup tables to determine how a block is encrypted or decrypted, the key is used to decide on the s-box to use for each block

97
Q

Does parallel computing happen at these 3 levels?
user mode, kernel mode, or OS level

or these 3 levels? bit, instruction, task

A

bit, instruction, task

98
Q

identifying openings in a target’s network is called what?

A

port scanning

not fingerprinting

99
Q

What is a B3 TCSEC rating? What are its requirements?

A

B3 requires:
trusted recovery
monitors events and notifies appropriate personnel
security administrator role defined
(doesn’t require formal methods and procedures)

Class A rated product requires all of B3 plus formal methods and procedures

100
Q

Does the Clark-Wilson model address confidentiality?

A

No

It’s an integrity model. It’s better suited for the commercial industry than Bell-LaPadula which is a confidentiality model.

It prevents unauthorized users from changing data
Provides internal and external consistency
prevents authorized users from improperly changing data

101
Q

Key features of the Caesar Cipher

A

ROT 3

102
Q

what percentage of businesses would go out of business if they had to close for only one week?

A

65%

103
Q

Are products that pass through the Trusted Products Evaluation Program (TPEP) published in the List of Evaluated Products?

A

yes

104
Q

Do you use CGI scripts or executables in a website to respond dynamically to code?

A

yes

CGI scripts or executables translate, respond to requests, build new web pages and send them to the user.

105
Q

Federal Sentencing Guidelines of 1991

A

Specifically for white collar crime

Detailed specific responsibilities of senior executives

Encouraged implementing security policies and a security program

106
Q

What happens in the acceptance testing/implementation phase?

A

QA does testing
Product is integrated into desired network
Product is given to customer for certification and accreditation

(But the product is NOT used in intended environment)

107
Q

define a disaster in terms of length of time

A

disasters affect a business for one day or more

108
Q

define a catastrophe in terms of length of time

A

catastrophes affect a business for weeks, months or years

109
Q

Data mart

A

collection of data that fulfills a specific need / is targeted at one group or for a specific objective

110
Q

What’s so special about ISO/IEC 15408?

A

used as the basis for evaluating security products under the CC framework (common criteria)

111
Q

Is DEA the algorithm used in DES?

A

yes

112
Q

Are locks considered delaying devices?

A

yes

113
Q

What are the 3 ways a computer can react to a problem / failure?

A

emergency system restart
system reboot
system cold start

114
Q

How much stronger is 3DES than DES?

A

2^56

115
Q

Why is computer generated or electronic information often categorized as hearsay (secondhand) evidence?

A

Because computer files and systems can be modified after the fact without others being aware

116
Q

What happens in the project initiation phase?

A

formal introduction of project to participating parties

entire scope is overviewed

initial risk analysis performed

(customer requirements are too granular and are performed in second phase)

117
Q

Is tort law the same as civil law?

A

yes

they typically don’t require same degree of burden of proof that criminal cases require

118
Q

multithreading

A

processing more than one request or thread at once

119
Q

multitasking

A

processing more than one task or process at once

120
Q

multiprocessing

A

multiple CPU’s and processing separate instructions in parallel

121
Q

Maximum Tolerable Downtime for:

critical
urgent
important
normal
non-essential
A
critical - minutes to hours
urgent - 24 hours
important - 72 hours
normal - 7 days
non-essential - 30 days
122
Q

Define domain

A

set of resources available to a subject

subject can be a user, process, application

123
Q

Define security domain

A

resources in the domain are working under the same security policy and managed by the same group

124
Q

Why does the Internet Architecture Board sound like a bunch of wankers?

A

They state the “internet is a privilege and should be treated and used with respect”

125
Q

What was cool about the Gramm-Leech-Bliley act of 1999?

A

Required financial institutions to tell customers their privacy rights

requires Sr. executives to be accountable for security issues and provide training to employees about security

126
Q

Chosen ciphertext

A

attackers possesses ciphertext and chooses which parts are decrypted.

Those decrypted portions are analyzed to find the key

127
Q

Why is computer generated or electronic information often categorized as hearsay (secondhand) evidence?

A

Because computer files and systems can be modified after the fact without others being aware

It is admissible when the output is generated as part of normal business activities and not just once for the court, and has testimony of the person who generated them

128
Q

When do you apply corrective controls?

A

when a situation needs correcting (fixing)! For instance, after an attack occurred, or after a vulnerability was found

129
Q

Is accountability a characteristic of an identity?

A

no

130
Q

to hold a person accountable, do you need uniqueness or accountability

A

uniqueness because accountability isn’t a characteristic

131
Q

Enticement vs Entrapment

A

Enticement - Honeypot that records attacker

Entrapment - tricking attacker into committing a crime

132
Q

Polymporphism

A

two different objects responding to same command in different ways

objects are derived from different classes, so the respond differently to same command.