Securitisation and Structured Financial Products Flashcards

Week 7

1
Q

What is Securitisation? Why is it used?

A
  • Securitisation occurs when a financial institution pools some of its assets and sells them to an intermediary
  • The asset disappears from the seller’s balance sheet but still generates a return on the asset side
  • The buyer makes a profit by buying below DR
  • Customers are unaware if the product is securitised
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2
Q

What are the names of the intermediaries in the securitisation process? What do they do?

A
  • Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs) and Structured Investment Vehicle (SIVs)
  • SPVs/SIVs are legal entities that are created by FIs
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3
Q

Expand on the process of Securitisation

A
  • Banks turn assets into marketable security
  • This is then removed from the Balance sheet and frees up capital
  • When the asset moves to SPVs, they are not affected by seller’s bankruptcy/risk
  • Value/cashflow is based on the underlying value of the securitised asset, meaning that it can be risky
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4
Q

Name the three main tranche types

A
  • Senior (defaults if all default)
  • Mezzanine (defaults if at least 2 default)
  • Junior (pays out if 0 default)
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5
Q

What were the main issues with ABS in the lead up to the GFC?

A
  • Easy to obtain a good credit rating (60% were AAA)
  • Possible to purchase Credit Default Swaps in the event of a default
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6
Q

What are some advantages of securitisation?

A
  • Diversification of risk
  • Transformation of illiquid assets into more liquid assets
  • Allows for greater freeing capital
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7
Q

What are some disadvantages of securitisation?

A
  • Increased idiosyncratic risk (asset-specific) but increases sensitivity to aggregate risk
  • Moral hazard/Adverse Selection of incentive to screen
  • Corporate bonds are less favourable
  • Can create rating/regulatory arbitrage
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8
Q

What is the Shadow Banking system?

A
  • Credit intermediation involving entities and activities outside of the banking system
  • FIs move activities into SPVs, which reduces the size of the balance sheets and capital requirements as a result of regulatory rules
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9
Q

How did regulatory arbitrage occur in SPVs?

A
  • Basel 1 (1988) accord required FIs to hold 8% capital of their loans on their BS
  • No charge for the credit lines via SPVs
  • FIs moved loans into SPVs and guaranteed AAA
  • Securitisation allowed for lower capital to conform with regulation
  • This steadied bank risk, so there was a mass movement away from loans towards secutities
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10
Q

How does rating arbitrage occur in SPVs?

A
  • CRAs forecasts for SFPs were optimistic, as models were based on past data and assumed low correlation between house prices
  • This boosted AAA valued tranches
  • Agencies could collect higher fees for structured products, favourable rating companies to corporate bonds
  • ‘Ratings on edge’- tranches slinced in a way so the dividing line was AAA
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11
Q

Why wasn’t financial arbitrage stopped?

A
  • FIs only faced pipeline risk
  • Risk is passed on as the asset leaves the BS
  • Low incentive to screen/monitor
  • Institutional investord were allowed to hold assets they couldn’t before
  • Searching-for-yield: Attractive as SFPs offered high E(R) and low P(loss)
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12
Q

What is the correlation between leverage and securities?

A
  • 0.62
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13
Q

What is the correlation between leverage and liabilities?

A
  • 0.74
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14
Q

Why is the correlation between liabilities and leverage strong positive?

A
  • ST funds are used to leverage and bet on rising prices in Credit Market
  • Banks were more exposed to the securities market
  • The more exposed, more leveraged & reliant on ST funds
  • Large international banks exploited the looser regulations and monetary policy to take greater risk
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15
Q

What was the housing bubble? What happened to cause this housing bubble?

A
  • Cheap credit and low lending standard so people could buy houses
  • Assumption prices could only rise and borrowers could refinance
  • No down payment required
  • No credit checks and no need to prove income
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16
Q

How did the Government intervene with the housing bubble? What happened as a result?

A
  • Rising income inequality in the US post 1970s (up from 9% to 23.5%)
  • This was solved by providing easy credit for Low income Households
  • Securitisation banned until 1980
  • 1999: Glass-Steagall Act repealed the 1933 Bew Deal
  • ‘Fannie-Mae and Freddie-Mac’
  • These regulations led to greater market-based holding of mortgages
17
Q

How did Global Imbalances impact the GFC?

A
  • US Vs China huge CA deficit and surplus
  • Savings in the US was low, and there was a glut in the ROTW, especially asia
  • Financial Systems were poor in countries, so demand for US financial services increased and raised the CA deficit
  • US imports from China increased, which increased US consumption of cheap credit
  • There was interconnectivity as the Yuan was pegged, meaning that there wasn’t any adjustment
18
Q

How did the US use Monetary policy? What was the Greenspan put?

A
  • Burst of DotCom bubble, US Fed reduced monetary policy
  • Gordon growth model suggests that as IR falls, stock prices rise
  • This fuelled the demand of consumer goods and demand for housing
  • Greenspan Put; there was a belief that the Fed wouldn’t allow the markets to fall between a certain level and take action reaction to reduce IR
  • No lower risk in FM leading to greater risk