Section #5 Flashcards
Which of the following is an all-inclusive approach to exercise that can lead to improvements in overall health, wellness, and athletic performance?
Integrated Training
What term refers to increasing the intensity or volume of an exercise program using a systematic and gradual approach?
Progressive Overload
What is the number one cause of death around the world?
Heart Disease
Which phase of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model is designed to teach optimal movement patterns and to help clients become familiar with various modes of exercise?
Phase 1 - Stabilization Endurance
What term is used to describe two exercises performed back-to-back in rapid succession with minimal to no rest?
Superset
Training to enhance the size of muscle, or an increase in muscle mass, is an example of which improvement of the body?
Muscle Hypertrophy
In an integrated training program, what would the last portion of the training session involve as the main exercise or movement component?
Resistance Training
What is the number one cause of death in the United States?
Heart Disease
Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training?
Quickness
Which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increases in density through resistance training?
Nerves
Which of the following terms can be used in place of repetition tempo?
Speed
What would be the back-squat volume for a client who has completed 10 sets of 3 repetitions at 225 pounds?
6,750 Pounds
What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training?
Growth and Volume
What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion?
Self - Myofasical Techniques
Which factor will be reduced through training/exercising with correct posture?
Muscle Imbalance
What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength?
Phase 2 - Strength Endurance
Through an integrated and systematic approach, which order of phases of training is correct?
Stabilization Endurance Strength Endurance Muscular Development Maximal Strength Power
Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge?
Cleaning
Which of the following examples of training exercises is not a form of cardiorespiratory fitness?
Resistance Training
Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound exercise?
Squatting
What plyometric term relates to a rapid eccentric motion followed by an explosive concentric motion?
Stretch - Shortening Cycle
Which individual listed would be unlikely to use high levels of Maximal Strength Training of the OPT model?
Cross - Country Runner
Which of the following options is not a benefit to all people who use balance training in their programming?
Decreased agility - based outcomes in athletes.
What phase of the OPT model aims to improve movement patterns and enhances stabilization of the system?
Stabilization Endurance Training
Implementing exercise concepts like core, balance, and agility training with resistance training methods indicates what style of training?
Integrated Training
Which phase of training would a person who just completed a Muscular Development Training program want to go back to for some corrective assistance?
Stabilization Endurance Training
Which pressing exercise would be appropriate for someone who has high levels of upper-body strength but has no equipment because they are traveling?
Handstand Push - Ups
Why might range of motion (ROM) be limited for a client?
Previous Injury
Of the following individuals, who would be the most suitable for being programmed SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) exercises/movements?
A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength
Which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is looking to improve their physique in a way similar to that of a bodybuilder?
Phase 3 - Muscular Development
Which phase of training would be most appropriate for a beginner who has had previous experience within the last few months?
Phase 2 - Strength Endurance Training
What term would be used to describe the starting point of an individual’s fitness level directly after an assessment has been conducted?
Baseline Value
Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane of motion?
Sagital
What phase of the OPT model aims to maximize prime-mover strength through the lifting of heavy loads?
Phase 4 - Maximal Strength Training
For a fitness professional using the OPT model, the goal of the Stabilization Endurance phase is to focus on which of the following aspects?
Movement Quality
Which of the following options would be the correct superset for back exercises during Phase 2 of the OPT model?
Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row
Which portion of a client’s exercise program should be designed first?
Flexibility Portion
What term refers to the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when synergists take over function for a weak or inhibited prime mover (agonist)?
Synergists Dominance
Which of the following states that soft tissue models along the line of stress?
Davis’s Law
With regard to the cumulative injury cycle, current theory supports the idea that repetitive movements, such as long periods of poor posture, are believed to lead to which of the following?
Tissue Trauma and Inflammation
TRUE OR FALSE? The mechanical effect of direct roller compression is the relaxation of the local myofascia by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restriction and adhesions.
True
What is the term used to describe the pain or discomfort that is often felt 24 to 72 hours after intense exercise or unaccustomed physical activity?
Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness
What is the minimum duration for which a static stretch should be held?
30 seconds
TRUE OR FALSE? Static stretching, when performed for 30 seconds or less prior to every workout and followed by dynamic activities, impairs athletic performance.
False
What is the term used to describe a type of stretching that uses agonists and synergists to dynamically move the joint into a range of motion?
Active Stretching
What is the mechanism of action for active stretching?
Reciprocal Inhibition
What should precede dynamic stretching if an individual possesses muscle imbalances?
Self Myofascial Techniques and Static Stretching
What is the goal of dynamic stretching?
To prepare the body for more intense activity
Which lower-body stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury?
Inverted Hurdler’s Stretch for Hamstrings
What are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching?
1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises
What type of exercise would be suggested to address overactive, shortened hamstrings?
Flexibility Exercises
What are the steps in the cumulative injury cycle?
Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, muscle imbalance
Susan’s quadriceps have been identified as overactive. What type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance?
SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps
If your client is working in Phase 1 of the OPT model, what type of flexibility training should they utilize?
SMR and Static Stretching
What are the recommended training variables for self-myofascial rolling?
1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds
What are two contraindications for self-myofascial techniques?
Cancer & Bleeding Disorders
What is a safe flexibility modification that you can recommend to a client who has varicose veins?
Gentle Static Stretching
Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs?
Osteokinematics
What are the two primary actions of the muscle spindle?
Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change
The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term?
Synergistic Dominance
Flexibility training can reduce the risk of what three conditions?
Muscle imbalances, joint dysfunctions, and overuse injuries
Which answer best represents the timeframe when delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) occurs after strenuous exercise?
24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise
What is an example of a mechanism that can lead to muscle imbalance?
Postural Distortions
What is it called when an individual performs the same task repeatedly over time, which can lead to movement dysfunction?
Pattern Overload
Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility?
Altered Movement Patterns
Flexibility is defined as the following:
Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion
Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action?
Reciprocal Inhibition
What are two signs of a muscle being overstretched?
Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle
What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex?
Altered reciprocal inhibition
What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise?
Contraindication
Why is the arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower-body stretch?
The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee.
What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling?
Mechanical and neurophysiological response
Which type of nerve receptor senses pain?
Nociceptor
Which statement best describes the neurophysiological effect that occurs from myofascial rolling?
The direct roller compression may create tissue relaxation and pain reduction in tissues by stimulating nerve receptors.
What is pertinent information for the fitness professional to consider before prescribing flexibility exercises?
Any medical precautions or contraindications
What principle describes the nervous system’s ability to recruit the correct muscles to perform movement?
Neuromuscular Efficiency
What are the recommended training variables for active stretching?
1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions
What term is used to describe the process and speed from which frequency, intensity, time, and type are increased?
Rate of Progression
The five components of fitness include which of the following?
Cardiorespiratory Fitness Muscular Strength Muscular Endurance Flexibility Body Composition
What term is used to describe the point during graded exercise in which there is a switch from predominantly aerobic energy production to anaerobic energy production?
Ventilatory threshold (Tvent)
Which stage(s) are most appropriate and effective for improving health and wellness, as well as promoting a healthy body weight for most weight-loss clients and those new to exercise?
Stage 1 & 2
What does the term midpoint refer to?
The intensity level halfway between VT1 and VT2
TRUE OR FALSE? The forward rounding of the shoulders theoretically limits the ability to lift the ribcage during ventilation and forcefully contract the diaphragm during inspiration.
True
Which of the following is a predictive factor for knee injury?
Knee Valgus
Local muscles consist primarily of which type of muscle fiber?
Type 1
What term refers to a co-contraction of global muscles such as the rectus abdominus and external obliques?
Bracing
TRUE OR FALSE? The use of weight belts for apparently healthy adults engaging in a moderately intense exercise program is recommended.
False
What is the goal of core training?
To develop optimal levels of stability, muscular endurance, strength, and power
What issue is indicated by abdominal protrusion during marching exercises?
Poor Activation of the Local Core
TRUE OR FALSE? While performing the ball bridge exercise, clients should be instructed to avoid resting the head and shoulders on top of the stability ball.
False
Which of the following is an antirotational exercise designed to target the local core muscles?
Kneeling Pallof Press
How should the back be positioned when performing a bird dog exercise?
In A Neutral Position
Which of the following global muscles’ primary action is hip flexion?
Iliopsosas
What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core?
Bracing
What is the definition of kinesiophobia?
Fear of pain from movement.
What is the primary function of the local muscles of the core?
Stabilize Vertebral Segments
Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core?
Rotatores
Excessive anterior pelvic tilt would lead to this posture of the lumbar spine.
Increased lordosis (Lordotic)
If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine?
Sternocleidomastoid (large neck muscles)
Which type of muscle contraction/action attenuates force through muscle fiber lengthening?
Eccentric Action
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core?
Side Plank
Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function?
Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency
Proper extensibility of which of these global core muscles is important prior to performing the medicine ball pullover throw?
Latissimus Dorsi
Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core?
Rotatores Multifidus Traverse Abdominus Diaphragm Pelvic Floor Musculature Quadrates Lumborum
During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back?
Hip Extension
What is an appropriate cue that can be given to a client to properly perform the drawing-in maneuver?
To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine.
Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement?
Core Strength
Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves?
Cervical and Lumbar (1 &3)
Which of the following is characterized as a global muscle of the core on the posterior aspect of the body?
Erector Spinae
The core is defined by the muscles in which region of the body?
Lumbo Pelvic Hip Complex LPHC
Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core?
Transverse Abdominis
Which of the following describes structural scoliosis?
Altered bone shape through the spine
Which type of muscle contraction/action produces force through muscle fiber shortening?
Concentric Action
Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?
Posterior Pelvic Tilt
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets development of the rate of force production (power) of the core?
Medicine Ball Woodchop Throw
Which type of training can be used to improve activation of core muscles compared to traditional core training?
Instability training using a stability ball
When performing a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor?
It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.
Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine?
Multifidus
What is the primary action of the multifidus?
Stabilize and Extend the Spine
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core?
Side Plank
Which type of scoliosis is influenced by improper muscle balance?
Functional Scoliosis (Nonstructural)
What is the superior boundary of the core?
Diaphragm
What does EMG stand for?
Electromyography
What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core?
Force production during dynamic whole-body movements
Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core?
Local Muscles
Which of the following is characterized as a global muscle of the core on the posterior aspect of the body?
Erector Spinae
For the kinetic chain checkpoints during core exercises, what is the appropriate position of the shoulders?
Depressed and slightly retracted.
Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves?
Thoracic & Sacral
Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core?
Erector Spinae
Which client position during exercise has been shown to lead to the highest core muscle activity during breathing exercises?
Standing
Which muscle acts to increase intra-abdominal pressure?
Transverse abdominis
Excessive anterior pelvic tilt would lead to this posture of the lumbar spine.
Increased Lordosis
Individuals with low-back pain have decreased activation of which local muscle of the core?
Multifidus
Which of the following describes structural scoliosis?
Altered bone shape through the spine
Which of the following is an example of an exercise modality to enrich the proprioceptive nature of an exercise?
Wobble Board
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?
Back Extensions
Contraction of the erector spinae and hip flexor muscles creates what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?
Anterior Pelvic Tilt
Which exercise primarily targets the transverse abdominis?
Drawing - in Manuever
What term refers to the interaction between the body’s processing of information (visual, vestibular, and somatosensory) and the body’s motor response to that information?
Sensorimotor Function
What does the term perturbation mean?
An alteration of the body’s current state caused by the application of an external force
What is the most accurate term for an unstable (yet controllable) exercise environment that causes the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms?
Proprioceptively enriched environment
What is the main goal of balance training?
To continually increase the client’s awareness of their limit of stability
Which of the following exercises is appropriate for entry-level balance training?
Single - Leg Lift & Chop
