Section 4

Question 1

What is the waterfall system development model?

Answer 1

A sequential multi-stage system development process in which the development of the next stage of the system cannot begin until the results of the current stage are approved or modified as necessary

Question 2

What is the agile development methodology?

Answer 2

A system is developed in iterations, (often called sprints) lasting from 1 to 4 weeks. Agile development, which accepts the fact that system requirements are evolving and cannot be fully understood or defined at the start of the project, concentrates on maximizing the team’s ability to deliver quickly and respond to emerging requirements

Question 3

What is quality assurance?

Answer 3

QA refers to methods within the development process that are designed to guarantee reliable operation of a product

Question 4

What are Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) models?

Answer 4

Collections of best practices that help organizations improve their processes.

Question 5

What are the five levels of software development maturity according to the CMMI model?

Answer 5

Initial, managed, defined, quantitatively managed, and optimizing

Question 6

What is a safety critical system?

Answer 6

One whose failure may cause human injury or death. Safety critical software must go through a much more rigorous and time-consuming development and testing process than other kinds of software.

Question 7

Explain this equation: ARO × SLE = ALE

Answer 7

The annualized rate of occurrence (ARO) is an estimate of the probability that an event will occur over the course of a year. The single loss expectancy (SLE) is the estimated loss that would be incurred if the event happened. The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the estimated loss from this risk over the course of a year.

Question 8

What is failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA) ?

Answer 8

An important technique used to develop ISO 9001-compliant quality systems. FMEA is used to evaluate reliability and determine the effects of system and equipment failures.

Question 9

Black-box testing

Answer 9

A type of dynamic testing that involves viewing the software unit as a device that has expected input and output behaviors, but whose internal workings are unknown.

Question 10

Dynamic Testing

Answer 10

A QA process that tests the code for a completed unit of software by actually entering test data and comparing the results to the expected results.

Question 11

Integration Testing

Answer 11

Software testing done after successful unit testing where the software units are combined into an integrated subsystem that undergoes rigorous testing to ensure that the linkages among the various subsystems work successfully

Question 12

What is the ISO 9001 family of standards?

Answer 12

A guide to quality products, services and management issued by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO). It provides a set of standardized requirements for a quality management system. Many businesses and government agencies specify that a vendor must be ISO 9001 certified to win a contract from them.

Question 13

What is N-version programming?

Answer 13

An approach to minimizing the impact of software errors by independently implementing the same set of user requirements N times; the N-versions of software are running parallel and if a difference is found, a voting algorithm is executed to determine which result to use.

Question 14

Static testing

Answer 14

A software testing technique in which software is tested without actually executing the code. It consists of two steps review and static analysis

Question 15

Unit testing

Answer 15

A software testing technique that involves testing individual components of codes to verify that each unit performs as intended

Question 16

White-box testing

Answer 16

A type of dynamic testing that treats the software unit as a device that has expected input and output behaviors, but whose internal workings, unlike the unit in black box testing, are known.

Question 17

Why have healthcare costs in the United States been projected to increase in the upcoming years? (~5.6% per year from 2016-2025)

Answer 17

Continued aging of the population, government policy, lifestyle changes, and to a lesser extent the development and use of new medical technology

Question 18

What is an electronic medical record (EMR)?

Answer 18

A collection of health-related information on an individual that is created, managed and consulted by authorized clinicians and staff within a single healthcare organization. The information in an EMR is not easily shared with others outside of the healthcare organization where the data originated.

Question 19

What is an electronic health record? (EHR)?

Answer 19

A comprehensive view of the patient’s complete medical history designed to be shared with authorized providers and staff from multiple organizations

Question 20

What is health information exchange (HIE)?

Answer 20

The process of sharing patient level electronic health information between different organizations.

Question 21

What is a personal health record (PHR)?

Answer 21

The portions of the EHR that an individual patient “owns” and controls such as personal identifiers, contact information, health provider information, problem list, medication history, allergies, immunizations and lab and test results.

Question 22

What is clinical decision support (CDS)?

Answer 22

A process and a set of tools designed to enhance health-related decision making through the use of clinical knowledge in patient-specific information to improve healthcare delivery. Increases the quality of care while cutting costs.

Question 23

What does a computerized provider order entry (CPOE) system do?

Answer 23

Enables physicians to place orders (for drugs, labs, etc.) electronically with the order is transmitted directly to the recipient

Question 24

What is store-and-forward telemedicine?

Answer 24

Acquiring data, sound, images and video from a patient and then transmitting everything to a medical specialist for a later evaluation

Question 25

Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act (HITECH)

Answer 25

A program to incentivize physicians and hospitals to implement such systems. Under this act, increased Medicaid and Medicare reimbursements are made to doctors and hospitals that demonstrate meaningful use of electronic health record technology.

Question 26

What is labor productivity?

Answer 26

A measure of economic performance that compares the amount of goods and services produced with the number of labor hours used in producing those goods and services.

Question 27

1994 Jacob Wetterling Crimes Against Children and Sexually Violent Offender Registration Act

Answer 27

Set requirements for sex offender registration and notification in the United States. It also has states create websites that provide information on sex offenders within the state.

Question 28

The Sex Offender Registration and Notification Provisions (SORNA) of the Adam Walsh Child Protection and Safety Act of 2006

Answer 28

Set national standards that govern which sex offenders must register and what data must be captured.

Question 29

What is earned media?

Answer 29

Media exposure an organization gets through press and social media mentions, positive online ratings, reviews, tweets and retweets, reposts, recommendations, and so on.