Section 2: Network Implementation

Question 1

What is static routing, and what are its key characteristics?

Answer 1

Definition: Manually set routes that don’t change unless updated.

Key Characteristics:
* Manual Entry: Configured directly on the router.
* Low Overhead: No extra CPU or bandwidth needed.
* Consistent Paths: Provides consitent and predictable routes.

Question 2

What are the pros, cons, and common use cases for static routing?

Answer 2

Pros: Simple, resource-efficient, secure.
Cons: Not scalable, needs manual updates, no auto reouting if an outage occurs.
Use Cases: Small networks, stub networks, controlled paths for security.

Question 3

What are BGP, EIGRP, and OSPF, what do they stand for and what are they used for?

Answer 3

BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) :
* Connects large networks (e.g., ISPs) on the internet.
* Uses AS numbers and chooses the shortest path for routing.

EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) :
* A Cisco-specific protocol for fast routing within a single organization.
* Uses bandwidth and delay to pick the best path, adapts quickly to changes.

OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) :
* A link-state protocol used for finding the best route inside a large network.
* Uses the Shortest Path First (SPF) algorithm and divides the network into areas for efficiency.

Question 4

What is dynamic routing, and what are its key characteristics?

Answer 4

Definition: Routes are automatically learned and updated using routing protocols.

Key Characteristics:
* Automated Updates: Routes change based on network status.
* Scalable: Handles large and complex networks easily.
* Protocols Used: OSPF, EIGRP, and BGP

Question 5

What are the pros, cons, and common use cases for dynamic routing?

Answer 5

Pros: Adapts to changes, reduces manual effort, scales well.
Cons: Higher CPU and bandwidth use, more complex setup.
Use Cases: Large, changing networks; environments needing fast failover and adaptation.

Question 6

What is route selection, and what factors influence it?

Answer 6

Route Selection: Choosing the best path when multiple routes are available.

Key Factors:
* Administrative Distance (AD): Trust level of the route source.
* Prefix Length: The most specific (longest) match is preferred.
* Metric: Value used to determine the best path.

Question 7

What are FHRP, VIP, and subinterfaces in networking?

Answer 7

FHRP (First Hop Redundancy Protocol): Provides backup gateways for failover. Ensures a backup router is ready to take over if the main router goes down.

Virtual IP (VIP): A shared IP address used by multiple devices for redundancy.

Subinterfaces: Creates virtual interfaces on a single physical port, allowing it to handle traffic from multiple VLANs.

Question 8

What is VLAN?

Answer 8

Virtual Local Area Network

A VLAN divides a network into smaller, separate sections to isolate traffic, improve security, and reduce congestion, even if devices share the same physical switch.

Question 9

What are Native VLANs and Voice VLANs?

Answer 9

Native VLAN: Handles untagged traffic on a trunk port (default is VLAN 1).

Voice VLAN: Dedicated VLAN for VoIP traffic, prioritizing voice data for quality.

Question 10

What is 802.1Q tagging, and why is it used?

Answer 10

802.1Q tagging adds a VLAN identifier to Ethernet frames, ensuring that traffic on trunk ports is assigned to the correct VLAN.

Question 11

What is an SVI and what does it do?

Answer 11

Switch Virtual Interface

An SVI is a virtual interface on a switch used to manage VLANs and provide Layer 3 IP communication for devices within or between VLANs.

Question 12

What is a VLAN Database?

Answer 12

VLAN database is simply a collection of information about all the VLANs configured on a switch. It typically includes -
* VLAN ID
* VLAN Name
* Associated Ports

Question 13

What are link aggregation and duplex settings?

Answer 13

Link Aggregation: Combines multiple physical links for more bandwidth and redundancy.

Duplex: Controls data flow; half-duplex allows one-way at a time, full-duplex allows simultaneous two-way communication.

Question 14

What are MTU and Jumbo Frames?

Answer 14

MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit):
The largest packet size that can be transmitted (default: 1500 bytes).

Jumbo Frames:
Larger frames (e.g., 9000 bytes) used for high-speed networks to reduce overhead.

Question 15

What is STP?

Answer 15

Spanning Tree Protocol

STP prevents network loops by ensuring only one active path exists between switches.

Question 16

What is a channel in wireless networking?

Answer 16

A specific frequency range used by Wi-Fi devices for communication.

Question 17

What is channel width, and how does it affect performance?

Answer 17

Determines the size of the frequency band (e.g., 20MHz, 40MHz);
wider channels offer higher speeds but can cause more interference.

Question 18

What are non-overlapping channels, and why are they important?

Answer 18

Channels that do not interfere with each other; critical for reducing interference (e.g., channels 1, 6, 11 in 2.4GHz).

Question 19

What are regulatory impacts in wireless networking?

Answer 19

They are rules like power limits and frequency usage set by governments and standards (e.g., 802.11h for DFS and TPC).

Question 20

What is the role of 802.11h?

Answer 20

Adds dynamic frequency selection (DFS) and transmit power control (TPC) to avoid interference with radar systems.

Question 21

What are the frequency options in wireless networking?

Answer 21

2.4GHz: Longer range, more interference.
5GHz: Higher speeds, shorter range.
6GHz: Less interference, used by Wi-Fi 6E.

Question 22

What is band steering?

Answer 22

It automatically guides dual-band devices to the less congested 5GHz or 6GHz band for better performance.

Question 23

What is SSID and what does it stand for?

Answer 23

Service Set Identifier
The name of a Wi-Fi network visible to users.

Question 24

What is BSSID and what does it stand for?

Answer 24

Basic Service Set Identifier
The MAC address of a specific access point in a wireless network.

Question 25

What is ESSID and what does it stand for?

Answer 25

Extended Service Set Identifier
A unified SSID for multiple access points in the same network.

aka the same ssid across multiple access points

Question 26

What is the difference between Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA2/WPA3) and guest network security like captive portals?

Answer 26

WPA2/WPA3: Encryption protocols (WPA3 offers better encryption and brute-force resistance).
WPA2 uses CCMP
WPA3 uses GCMP

Guest Networks: Separate networks for visitors, often secured by captive portals requiring login.

Question 27

How does authentication differ between Pre-Shared Key (PSK) and Enterprise modes?

Answer 27

PSK: Shared password for all users.

Enterprise: Uses individual credentials authenticated via a RADIUS server.

Question 28

What are the roles of antennas, and how do they differ?

Answer 28

Omnidirectional: Broadcasts in all directions.

Directional: Focuses signal in one direction for greater range.

Question 29

What is the difference between autonomous and lightweight access points (APs)?

Answer 29

Autonomous APs: Self-managed and configured individually.

Lightweight APs: Centrally managed through a wireless LAN controller

Question 30

What are the types of wireless networks?

Answer 30

Mesh networks: Devices form interconnected nodes for wide coverage.

Ad hoc: Peer-to-peer connections without infrastructure.

Point-to-point: Direct link between two devices.

Infrastructure: Centralized network with an access point

Question 31

What are key considerations when selecting locations for IT equipment?

Answer 31

Ensure proper placement for accessibility, cooling, and power.

Common locations:
* IDF (Intermediate Distribution Frame): Connects user equipment to the MDF, often placed on each floor.
* MDF (Main Distribution Frame): Central hub for networking and communication equipment.

Question 32

What is the standard rack size in IT installations?

Answer 32

Racks are typically 19 inches wide with variable heights measured in “U” (rack units, 1U = 1.75 inches).

Question 33

Why is port-side exhaust/intake important in rack installations?

Answer 33

Ensures proper airflow for cooling; equipment should align with hot aisle/cold aisle designs.

Question 34

What are the key components of cabling in installations?

Answer 34

Patch Panel: Organizes and connects cables from devices to switches or routers

Fiber Distribution Panel: Manages and protects fiber optic connections.

Question 35

Why should equipment racks be lockable?

Answer 35

To prevent unauthorized access, ensuring physical security for networking and server hardware.

Question 36

What are the key components of power management in IT setups?

Answer 36

UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply): Provides temporary power during outages.

PDU (Power Distribution Unit): Distributes power to multiple devices in a rack.

Power Load: Total power required by equipment; must match supply capacity.

Voltage: Ensure compatible voltage levels (e.g., 120V or 240V).

Question 37

What are critical environmental factors in IT installations?

Answer 37

Humidity: Should be controlled to avoid condensation or static.

Fire Suppression: Use systems like inert gas or dry chemical suppressors to protect equipment.

Temperature: Maintain consistent cooling (ideal: 18–27°C or 64–81°F) to prevent overheating.