SECTION 2 - CONTROL Flashcards

1
Q

Contains a set of consoles and racks that function as control stations.

A

GCS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Allows the pilot and sensor operator to communicate between work stations within the GCS an operation center.

A

SDI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Houses the operators workstations and electronic equipment racks needed to operate an RPA.

A

GCS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

These are mounted in the center consul along with the secure telephone.

A

Radio and intercom controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Facility that contains one or more rooms fitted for a single GCS.

A

Fixed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Unit that can quickly be transported across the globe by aircraft and it’s composed of one or two GCSs.

A

Mobile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

GCS that is broken down into transportable boxes for quick assembly and disassembly.

A

Containerized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Allow mission planning and monitoring that provide mission programming, sensor imagery processing and various auxiliary and support functions.

A

Multi Function Workstations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The two control consoles that allow pilot and the sensor operator to control and monitor the aircraft and it subsystems.

A

PSO workstations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pilot performs flight duties from the left seat or:

A

PSO Station 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Sensor operator perform sensor duties from the right seat or:

A

PSO Station 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Primary visual interface for monitoring the aircraft’s geographical position.

A

Tracker display

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Presented on a 20 inch CRT placed that operator eye level and is also the primary visual interface for the pilot or sensor operator to view video from the aircraft.

A

HUD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The primary visual interface to access detailed system data.

A

HDD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Provides information on system parameters in three areas of the screen: the warning area, aircraft status area, and VIT area.

A

Status display

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Provides the menu interface between the operators in the GCS software and has areas of the display for VITs and datalink status.

A

Command display

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Located in the lower third of the command display and provides one of the main interfaces between the GCS software and the operator.

A

Menu Button Interface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Four main gimbal modes

A

Position, rate, target and stow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Places the turretat 0 azimuth/0 elevation.

A

Position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The sensor operator has full authority over MTS movement.

A

Rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MTS automatically aims at a point on the ground in response to operator input.

A

Target

22
Q

Places the turret at 180° azimuth relative to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and +60° of elevation.

A

Stow

23
Q

Located in the midsection of the center equipment rack and are used to record audio and video during mission to provide a playback function for debriefing an incident purposes.

A

4 DVRs

24
Q

Crews use this control during launch and recovery of aircraft.

A

LOS

25
Q

Crews use this during mission execution.

A

BLOS

26
Q

Consists of a C-band UL and DL that establish full duplex serial communication between the aircraft and the GCS.

A

LOS datalink

27
Q

This is mounted a minimum of 50 feet above ground and consists of three antennas, a pedestal assembly and power supply.

A

GDT

28
Q

This antenna has a 360° of coverage and has a 30° beam width and limited range.

A

Omni-antenna

29
Q

This antenna acquires the aircraft within +/-15° of centerline and tracks the aircraft within +/-5°. (10 nautical miles)

A

Acquisition horn antenna

30
Q

This antenna acquires the aircraft within +/-5° of centerline and it tracks the aircraft within +/-1° of azimuth. (long range)

A

Dish antenna

31
Q

Cylindrical-shaped unit at the base of the GDT that incorporates two electric motors: one rotates the antenna in azimuth, and one moves the antenna in elevation.

A

Pedestal assembly

32
Q

Contains a transformer to convert 115 V of alternating current to 28 V of direct current.

A

Power supply

33
Q

The RPA is equipped with both a:

A

Directional and an omni-directional antenna

34
Q

Commands are routed to the aircraft:

A

PCM/RCM

35
Q

Consists of a Ku-band CL and RL that establish full duplex serial communication between the aircraft in the GCS via satellite.

A

BLOS

36
Q

The downlinks carry:

A

Telemetry and video information

37
Q

Primary interface between the PSO workstation processor and the equipment in the Ku-band SATCOM terminals known as the PPSL.

A

Link Manager Assembly

38
Q

The Ku-band SATCOM terminal.

A

PPSL

39
Q

Located in the center of the front avionics bay.

A

Ku-band antenna assembly

40
Q

The Ku-band antenna assembly responds to commands from the:

A

SPMA

41
Q

What receives the LOS downlink, processes the data, and routes it to the GCS for display on PSO workstations, while the KU band system receives the RL and routes it to the GCS for processing and display?

A

GDT

42
Q

What saves information into its non-volatile memory?

A

PCM/RCM

43
Q

Used to encode/decode the Ku-band data.

A

LMA

44
Q

Technicians use this to generate encryption keys.

A

DES

45
Q

Describes the number of people, equipment and logistical support necessary to generate an aircraft sortie.

A

“Footprint”

46
Q

Only one element (LRE/MCE) controls…

A

The RPA at any given time

47
Q

Forward deployed and are responsible for the safe departure and return of the aircraft.

A

LRE

48
Q

During a typical shift, they may launch and recover multiple aircraft.

A

LRE

49
Q

Not currently forward deployed and controls the RPA during the mission segment, typically from a CONUS base.

A

MCE

50
Q

LOS ➡️

A

Ku