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RPA WEAPONS SYSTEMS > SECTION 1 - SYSTEMS > Flashcards

SECTION 1 - SYSTEMS Flashcards

1
Q

When was the RQ-1 Predator built?

A

January 1994

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2
Q

Armed, multi-mission, medium-altitude, long endurance.

A

MQ-1/MQ-9

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3
Q

This mode will guide the missile directly to the target along the launch line of sight.

A

LOAL Direct

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4
Q

A change in wind speed and/or direction over a short distance.

A

Wind shear

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5
Q

Utilizes a Rotax 914 turbo charged four-cylinder engine. (115 HP)

A

MQ-1

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6
Q

When was the RQ-1 used operationally?

A

July 1995

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7
Q

The most common upper level clouds.

A

Cirrus

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8
Q

Secures the area and notifies the disaster response team for any dropped or partially armed munitions.

A

On-Scene Commander

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9
Q

Composed of four sections guidance warhead propulsion and control.

A

AGM 114

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10
Q

ISR, CAS, CSAR, precision strike, buddy lase, friendly force overwatch, route clearance and target development.

A

MQ-1

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11
Q

Contain the most severe weather hazards to flight.

A

Thunderstorms

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12
Q

Equipped with a Honeywell TPE331-10 turboprop engine capable of reverse thrust.

A

MQ-9

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13
Q

A HEAT warhead designed to defeat reactive armor targets.

A

P warhead

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14
Q

Improved sensor suite used on the MQ-9.

A

AN/DAS-1A

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15
Q

Joint service weapon that uses an onboard GPS and INS guidance set with the MK 82 warhead.

A

GBU-38

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16
Q

This configuration for the hellfire guidance allows for engagement of targets located behind the aircraft.

A

Hellfire P+

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17
Q

This aircraft uses aviation gas.

A

MQ-1

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18
Q

Abrupt variations in wind speed and direction.

A

Turbulence

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19
Q

This is declared for any aircraft experiencing an aircraft fire hung ordinance.

A

IFE

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20
Q

DTV and IR nose cameras are mounted in the nose of the aircraft. (pilot’s view)

A

MQ-1

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21
Q

Maneuverable freefall weapon that guides to a spot of reflected laser energy.

A

GBU-12

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22
Q

What was GA’s earlier RPA called?

A

Gnat-750

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23
Q

Has a payload of 3000 lbs, a maximum ceiling of 50,000 ft and endurance of 36 hrs.

A

MQ-9

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24
Q

This positively prevents AGM-114 missile firing.

A

Wingtip safety pin

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25
Q

A MAC warhead that that needs after target penetration.

A

N warhead

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26
Q

Aircrew report of weather conditions at altitude.

A

PIREP

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27
Q

USAF pushed for what role?

A

Hunter-Killer role

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28
Q

Changed its designation in 2002 with the addition of the AGM-114 Hellfire missiles.

A

MQ-1

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29
Q

This mode will alter the trajectory of the missile to cause a steep impact angle at weapons impact

A

LOAL High

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30
Q

What was the first MQ-9 and when was it’s first flight?

A

Predator B-001 and 2 February 2001

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31
Q

Endurance of 14 hours when fully loaded with four AGM 114’s and two GBU 12s.

A

MQ-9

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32
Q

This mode will alter the trajectory of the missile to cause a shallow impact angle at weapons impact.

A

LOAL Low

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33
Q

An all electric aircraft with the exception of the hydraulic braking system.

A

MQ-9

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34
Q

The use of this mode is limited.

A

LOAL Low

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35
Q

Missiles designed to receive target location data from the RPA.

A

Hellfire IIP

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36
Q

What requires and tracks targets using reflected laser energy?

A

The seeker

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37
Q

Equipped with seven hard points.

A

MQ-9

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38
Q

These missiles are the most restrictive and require that the target be located within +/-4° of the aircraft heading.

A

Hellfire II

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39
Q

Maximum altitude of 25,000 feet.

A

MQ-1

40
Q

Larger WEZ than the Hellfire II.

A

Hellfire IIP

41
Q

Missiles that will have a 3-axis IMU.

A

Hellfire P+

42
Q

When you may have encountered a munition.

A

Recognize

43
Q

First ever weaponized RPA and features precision a/g weapons delivery capability.

A

MQ-1

44
Q

Provide steering commands used by the control section to direct the weapon.

A

Guidance Electronic Group

45
Q

BFWH that includes a built in fuse delay.

A

M warhead

46
Q

Contains a metal fuel that optimizes over pressure performance.

A

N warhead

47
Q

All electric aircraft with control surfaces that are moved by servos.

A

MQ-1

48
Q

This engagement requires an aircraft to serve as a launch platform, providing a missile for another aircraft or a ground observer

A

Remote-lase

49
Q

Missile that accelerates the missile to a maximum speed of Mach 1.4.

A

AGM 114

50
Q

These provide actual steering of the missile.

A

The fins

51
Q

This mode is used for many tactical situations that require precise impact angles in moderate dispersal fragmentation.

A

LOAL Direct

52
Q

Two engagement methods by which the missile can be guided to the target.

A

Self-lase and remote-lase

53
Q

Allows kinetic penetration of a target, such as an automobile, prior to warhead detonation.

A

M warhead

54
Q

This mode is ideal for personnel targets.

A

LOAL High

55
Q

This engagement requires the aircraft launching the missile to guide it all the way to the target after the missile is away.

A

Self-lase

56
Q

Aircrews will not take off if greater than:

A

Moderate turbulence

57
Q

This section processes decodes the electric signal.

A

Computer section

58
Q

This section is responsible for developing mechanical power necessary to actuate the control fins that guides the weapon.

A

Control section

59
Q

Location of the MQ-9’s seven hard points.

A

Three under each wing and one under the fuselage

60
Q

Currently in use on the GBU-12.

A

The standard Mk82 general-purpose blast fragmentation bomb

61
Q

Does not have an off-boresight capability.

A

GBU-12

62
Q

Commonly referred to as a buddy lase.

A

Remote-lase

63
Q

Do not touch move or disturb.

A

Retreat

64
Q

Similar to light turbulence but of greater intensity.

A

Moderate turbulence

65
Q

Secures the area and notifies the disaster response team.

A

On-Scene Commander

66
Q

Safe withdrawal distance for a dropped or partially armed munitions, not involving fire.

A

300 ft

67
Q

Relatively flat bases, dome shaped tops and a cauliflower appearance.

A

Cumulus

68
Q

Notify the appropriate personnel.

A

Report

69
Q

Set to a Mode 3a of 7700.

A

Aircraft IFF/SIF transponder

70
Q

All personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for one hour after the last attempt to fire a hung weapon.

A

Hung ordinance

71
Q

Prevents the laser from firing.

A

Laser safety pins

71
Q

RPA operation in turbulence is permitted if the aircraft is operated within:

A

Maneuvering speed limitations

72
Q

Summation of sky cover up to 2/8ths.

A

Few

73
Q

Large abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude.

A

Severe turbulence

75
Q

Summation of sky cover of 3/8ths through 4/8ths.

A

Scattered

76
Q

Lightning can also interrupt the:

A

Ku-band datalink

77
Q

Display a wealth of information about present and approaching weather and provide you visible evidence of atmospheric motions, water content and stability.

A

Clouds

78
Q

Aircraft violently tossed around with control virtually impossible.

A

Extreme turbulence

79
Q

Large, dense, towering clouds with cauliflower-like tops which can range from as low as 500 feet to generally no higher than 15,000 unless in extreme cases.

A

Cumulonimbus

80
Q

A term used to describe the absence of clouds or obscuring phenomena.

A

Clear

81
Q

Summation of sky cover a 5/8ths through less than total cloud cover of an area.

A

Broken

82
Q

Summation of total sky cover.

A

Overcast

83
Q

Low-level cloud with clearly defined edges and are generally found below 6,500 feet but could reach altitudes of 8,000 feet.

A

Cumulus

84
Q

Fire is involved, the withdrawal distance extends to:

A

4,000 ft

85
Q

When precipitation evaporates completely in dry air beneath the cloud base.

A

Virga

86
Q

Equipped with surge protection systems.

A

GCS

87
Q

Has no lightning protection.

A

GDT

88
Q

The distance the supported unit needs the aircraft to stay away from the target.

A

Standoff

89
Q

This slant range standoff will produce the best picture quality while also minimizing aircraft noise signature.

A

3 to 6 nm

90
Q

Can mostly be found between 16,000 feet and 45,000 feet.

A

Cirrus

91
Q

Three-dimensional science.

A

Flying

92
Q

The only real way to improve sensor performance in high atmospheric attenuation environments is to:

A

Get closer to the target and reduce the slant range

93
Q

Place the aircraft:

A

Between the target and the sun

94
Q

Aids in maintaining target PID in a heavily congested area.

A

Narrower FOVs

95
Q

Thin feathery clouds in patches or narrow bands.

A

Cirrus

96
Q

Slight and erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude.

A

Lift turbulence

RPA WEAPONS SYSTEMS (3 decks)

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