Section 2 - Assessments, Training Concepts, and Program Design Flashcards
When training for balance, exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as what?
Balance-strength
What is an integrated process requiring optimal muscular balance, joint dynamics, and neuromuscular efficiency using visual, vestibular, and proprioceptive inputs?
Postural equilibrium
Following the OPT model, what are the 3 phases of core training?
- Core-stabilization training
- Core strength
- Core power
Following the OPT model, what are the 3 phases of core training?
- Core-stabilization training
- Core strength
- Core power
The core muscular has been divided into 3 systems. What are they?
- Local stabilization system
- Global stabilization system
- Movement system
What type of training has the objective of uniformly strengthening the deep and superficial muscles that stabilize, align, and move the trunk of the body?
Core training
What technique uses a co-contraction of global muscles to enhance global trunk stability?
Bracing
Bracing occurs when a person contracts the abdominal and buttock muscles at the same time as what?
low back
What is the appropriate tempo for a core exercise when training for hypertrophy?
Medium
At what angle should the knees be when performing a ball crunch exercise?
90 degrees
Clients who can maintain zone one heart rate for atleast ____ minutes, two to three times per week will be ready for stage II.
30 minutes
Training programs consisting of a series of resistance training exercises that an individual performs, one after the other, with minimal rest is considered…
Circuit training
What zone of cardiorespiratory training consists of a heart rate of approximately 86 to 95% of predicted HRmax?
Zone three
What zone of cardiorespiratory training consists of a heart rate of approximately 65 to 75% of predicted HRmax?
Zone one
True or False: When training in Stage III of cardiorespiratory training, it is vital to rotate all three stages to help minimize the risk of overtraining.
TRUE
What stage of cardiorespiratory training helps increase the capacity of the energy systems needed at the power level of the OPT model?
Stage III
What stage of cardiorespiratory training helps increase the cardio capacity needed for the workout styles in the strength level of the OPT model?
Stage II
Which stage of cardiorespiratory training is designed for clients with low-to-moderate cardio fitness levels who are beginning training at higher intensity levels?
Stage I
What does FITTE stand for?
Frequency Intensity Type Time Enjoyment
According to the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines, what is the minimum amount of time per week an individual should engage in physical activity if performed at a moderate-intensity level?
150 min
What is the focus in stage II of cardiorespiratory training?
Increasing capacity needed for Strength-Level exercise
How long does NASM suggest the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up should last?
5-10 minutes
Dynamic stretching uses which concepts to improve soft tissue extensibility?
Reciprocal inhibition
Predictable patterns of muscle imbalances is defined as…
Postural distortion patterns
When a client is performing the overhead squat assessment from the lateral view, which of the following kinetic chain checkpoints are you observing?
Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC) and shoulder complex
The risk of disease increases in proportion to the rise of _____ in both adults and adolescents.
BMI
In a client with lower crossed syndrome, what muscles are most likely lengthened (need strengthening)?
Anterior Tibialis Posterior Tibialis Glutes Transversus absominis Internal Obliques
“GAPTI”
In a client with lower crossed syndrome, what muscles are most likely shortened (tight)?
Gastronemius Soleus Hip flexor complex Adductors Latissimus dorsi Erector spinae
“GHALES”
In a client with lower crossed syndrome, what movement is decreased?
Hip extension
In a client with lower crossed syndrome, what movement is increased?
Lumbar extension
In a client with upper crossed syndrome, what muscles are most likely lengthened (need strengthening)?
- Deep cervical flexors
- Serratus Anterior
- Rhomboids
- Mid-traps
- Lower trapezius
- Teres minor
- Infraspinatus
In a client with upper crossed syndrome, what muscles are most likely shortened (tight)?
- Upper traps
- Levator scapulae
- Sternocleidomastoid
- Scalenes
- Latissimus dorsi
- Teres major
- Subscapularis
- Pectoralis major/minor
In a client with upper crossed syndrome, what movement is decreased?
- Shoulder extension
- Shoulder external rotation
In a client with upper crossed syndrome, what movement is increased?
- Cervical extension
- Scapular protraction / elevation
In a client with pronation distortion syndrome, what muscles are most likely shortened (tight)?
- Gastronemius
- Soleus
- Peroneals
- Adductors
- Iliotibial head
- Hip flexor complex
- Biceps femoris (short head)
GAP-IS-HB
In a client with pronation distortion syndrome, what muscles are most likely lengthened (need strengthening)?
- Vastus medialis
- Glutes
- Hip external rotators
- Anterior tibialis
- Posterior tibialis
“V”irginia’s “G”lutes “H”appened “T”o “T”oot
In a client with pronation distortion syndrome, what movement is decreased?
- Ankle dorsiflexion
- Ankle inversion
In a client with pronation distortion syndrome, what movement is increased?
- Knee adduction
- Knee internal rotation
- Foot pronation
- Foot external rotation
While observing an overhead squat assessment, which muscles are probable overactive muscles (need stretching) if a client has an excessive forward lean?
- Hip flexor
- Abdominals
- Gastronemius
- Soleus
HAGS-AGE
While observing an overhead squat assessment, which muscles are probable underactive muscles (need strengthening) if a client has an excessive forward lean?
- Anterior tibialis
- Glutes Max
- Erector spinae
HAGS-AGE
While observing an overhead squat assessment, which muscles are probable overactive muscles (need stretching) if a client has a low back arch?
- Hip flexor
- Erector spinae
- Lats
HEL-GHI
While observing an overhead squat assessment, which muscles are probable underactive muscles (need strengthening) if a client has a low back arch?
- Glutes max
- Hamstrings
- Intrinsic core
HEL-GHI
While observing an overhead squat assessment, which muscles are probable overactive muscles (need stretching) if a client’s feet turn out?
- Soleus
- Gastronemius
- Biceps Femoris (short head)
“S”ilas’ “G”assy “B”utt
While observing an overhead squat assessment, which muscles are probable underactive muscles (need strengthening) if a client’s feet turn out?
- Gastrocnemius
- Gracilis
- Popliteus
- Hamstring complex
- Satorius
“G”eorge “G”oes to “P”eeny “H”igh “S”chool
While observing an overhead squat assessment, which muscles are probable overactive muscles (need stretching) if a client’s knees turn inward?
- Adductors
- Biceps femoris (short head)
- TFL
- Vastus lateralis
“A”rmadillos “B”efriend “T”rendy “V”egans
While observing an overhead squat assessment, which muscles are probable underactive muscles (need strengthening) if a client’s knees turn inward?
- Glutes
- Vastus medialis obliques
“G”od is a “V”egetarian
While observing an overhead squat assessment, which muscles are probable overactive muscles (need stretching) if a client’s arms fall forward?
- Pectoralis major/minor
- Teres major
- Latissimus dorsi
“P”raise “T”he “L”ord - TRR
While observing an overhead squat assessment, which muscles are probable underactive muscles (need strengthening) if a client’s arms fall forward?
- Traps (Mid & Lower)
- Rhomboids
- Rotator cuff
“P”raise “T”he “L”ord - TRR
What is the appropriate method to estimate the peak maximum heart rate for a client?
Subtract the client’s age from 220.
What is recorded on the palm side of the wrist?
Radial pulse
What does landing mid-foot accomplish when performing leg-power exercises?
Ensures proper force distribution through the foot and lower extremity
What time is most effective to have your clients take their resting heart rate?
After waking-up
What term represents the pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood?
Diastolic
What is recorded on the neck, just to the side of the larynx?
Carotid pulse
What is the typical resting heart rate?
Between 70 and 80 beats per minute
What term represents the pressure within the arterial system after the heart contracts?
Systolic
The lowest risk for disease lies within a BMI range of…
22 to 24.9
Scientific evidence indicates that the risk for disease increases with a BMI of…
25 or greater
What test is designed to estimate an individual’s cardiorespiratory fitness level on the basis of a submaximal bout of stair climbing at a set pace for 3 minutes?
YMCA 3-Minute Step Test
What test is designed to estimate a cardiovascular starting point by having the client walk 1 mile as fast as he or she can control on a treadmill?
Rockport Walk Test
What performance assessment measures upper extremity agility and stabilization by assuming push up position and quickly moving the right hand to touch the left hand?
Davies Test
What performance assessment measures muscular endurance of the upper body, primarily the pushing muscles?
Push-Up Test
What performance assessment assesses lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control by hopping in each box in a designated pattern, but always returning to the center box?
Shark Skill Test
What performance assessment is designed to estimate the one-rep maximum on overall upper body strength of the pushing musculature?
Upper Extremity Strength Assessment: Bench Press
What performance assessment is designed to estimate the one-rep squat maximum and overall lower body strength?
Squat
Which term is defined as the normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allow the full range of motion of a joint?
Flexibility
What should a client foam roll to effectively target the piriformis when performing self-myofascial release?
Posterior hip
When performing self-myofascial release of the adductors, the focus should be on foam rolling what location on the body?
The groin region inside the upper thigh
A client reports acute soreness and tightness in her calf muscle after a long run. She describes feeling knots in the muscle. Which flexibility technique should the client use first?
Self-myofascial release
Which type of flexibility training is appropriate at the Stabilization Level (Phase 1) of the OPT model?
Corrective flexibility
Which type of flexibility training would be appropriate at the Power Level (Phase 5) of the OPT model or before athletic competition?
Functional flexibility
Which form of stretching should be used to inhibit muscle spindle activity of a tight muscle before and after physical activity?
Static stretching
What are predictable patterns of muscle imbalanced called?
Postural distortion patterns
A client is placing pressure on his calf musculature using a foam roll. Which stretching techniques is the client using?
Self-myofascial release
During a 40-yard dash, the hamstring complex begins to do most of the work for a weakened gluteus maximus. What relationship best describes this action?
Synergistic dominance
What are alterations in the lengths of muscles surrounding a given joint in which some are overactive (forcing compensation to occur) and others may be underactive (allowing for the compensation to occur)?
Muscle imbalance
What is the simultaneous contraction of one muscle and the relaxation of its antagonist?
Reciprocal inhibition
Ex: To perform elbow flexion during a biceps curl, the biceps actively contract while the triceps (antagonist muscle) relaxes to allow the movement to occur.
The neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when inappropriate muscles take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover.
Synergist Dominance
Repetitive physical activity that moves through the same patterns of motion, placing the same stresses on the body over time.
Pattern overload
The neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when a joint dysfunction inhibits the muscles that surround the joint.
Arthrokinetic Inhibition
A biomechanical and neuromuscular dysfunction in which forces at the joint are altered, resulting in abnormal joint movement and proprioception.
Arthrokinetic Dysfunction
What is designed to increase joint range of motion (ROM), improve muscle imbalances, and correct altered joint motion, and is used in Phase 1 of the OPT model?
Corrective flexibility
Alan is utilizing self-myofascial release for his corrective flexibility protocols. Where should the foam roll be placed for the latissimus dorsi?
Under the arm
What term refers to the simultaneous contraction of one muscle and the relaxation of its antagonist?
Reciprocal inhibition
The process by which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles.
Autogenic Inhibition
What are proper backside sprint mechanics?
Ankle plantarflexion
Knee extension
Hip extension
Triple extension of the ankle, knee and hip in appropriate synchrony.
What should be the primary focus when developing SAQ drills for weight loss?
Keeping the heart rate appropriately elevated
What are proper frontside sprint mechanics?
Triple flexion of the ankle, knee and hip in appropriate synchrony.
Which of the following percentages of ATP and PC recovery result from a rest interval of 40 seconds between sets of resistance exercise?
a. 0.75
b. 1
c. 0.25
d. 0.5
0.75
Which training variables should be low when intensity is high?
a. Tempo
b. Frequency
c. Volume
d. Rest
Volume
Muscular endurance and stabilization is best achieved by performing ___to ___ sets of __ to ___ repetitions at __ to __% of the one-repetition maximum.
1 to 3 sets
12 to 20 reps
50 to 70% of 1RM intensity
Hypertrophy is best achieved using ___to ___ sets of __ to ___ repetitions at __ to __% of the one-repetition maximum.
3 to 5 sets
6 to 12 reps
75 to 85% of 1RM intensity
For maximal strength adaptations, ___to ___ sets of __ to ___ repetitions at __ to __% of the one-repetition maximum, are recommended.
4 to 6 sets
1 to 5 reps
85 to 100% of 1RM intensity
For power adaptations, ___to ___ sets of __ to ___ repetitions at __ to __% of the one-repetition maximum or approximately 10% body weight are recommended.
3 to 6 sets
1 to 10 reps
30 to 45% of 1RM intensity
Muscular endurance and stabilization is best developed with a slow repetition tempo. One example of a slow tempo would be a ___-second eccentric action, ___-second isometric hold, and ___-second concentric contraction. (__/__/__)
4/2/1
Hypertrophy is best achieved with a moderate tempo. One example of a moderate tempo would be a ___-second eccentric action, ___-second isometric hold, and ___-second concentric contraction. (__/__/__)
2/0/2
_____ adaptations are best achieved with a fast or explosive tempo that can be safely controlled.
Power adaptations
Muscular endurance and stabilization adaptations is best developed with relatively short rest periods often ranging from __to__ seconds.
0 - 90 seconds
Hypertrophy is best achieved with relatively short rest periods often ranging from __ to __ seconds.
0 - 60 seconds
Maximal strength adaptations are best achieved with relatively long rest periods, generally ranging from __ to __ minutes.
3 to 5 minutes
Power adaptations are best achieved with relatively long rest periods, generally ranging from __ to __ minutes.
3 to 5 minutes
When working with loads exceeding 90 percent of maximum, a client would not exceed a workout volume of?
30 reps
