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NASM - CPT > Section 2 - Assessments, Training Concepts, and Program Design > Flashcards

Section 2 - Assessments, Training Concepts, and Program Design Flashcards

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NASM ® CPT flashcards
1
Q

When training for balance, exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as what?

A

Balance-strength

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2
Q

What is an integrated process requiring optimal muscular balance, joint dynamics, and neuromuscular efficiency using visual, vestibular, and proprioceptive inputs?

A

Postural equilibrium

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3
Q

Following the OPT model, what are the 3 phases of core training?

A
  1. Core-stabilization training
  2. Core strength
  3. Core power
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4
Q

Following the OPT model, what are the 3 phases of core training?

A
  1. Core-stabilization training
  2. Core strength
  3. Core power
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5
Q

The core muscular has been divided into 3 systems. What are they?

A
  1. Local stabilization system
  2. Global stabilization system
  3. Movement system
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6
Q

What type of training has the objective of uniformly strengthening the deep and superficial muscles that stabilize, align, and move the trunk of the body?

A

Core training

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7
Q

What technique uses a co-contraction of global muscles to enhance global trunk stability?

A

Bracing

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8
Q

Bracing occurs when a person contracts the abdominal and buttock muscles at the same time as what?

A

low back

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9
Q

What is the appropriate tempo for a core exercise when training for hypertrophy?

A

Medium

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10
Q

At what angle should the knees be when performing a ball crunch exercise?

A

90 degrees

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11
Q

Clients who can maintain zone one heart rate for atleast ____ minutes, two to three times per week will be ready for stage II.

A

30 minutes

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12
Q

Training programs consisting of a series of resistance training exercises that an individual performs, one after the other, with minimal rest is considered…

A

Circuit training

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13
Q

What zone of cardiorespiratory training consists of a heart rate of approximately 86 to 95% of predicted HRmax?

A

Zone three

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14
Q

What zone of cardiorespiratory training consists of a heart rate of approximately 65 to 75% of predicted HRmax?

A

Zone one

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15
Q

True or False: When training in Stage III of cardiorespiratory training, it is vital to rotate all three stages to help minimize the risk of overtraining.

A

TRUE

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16
Q

What stage of cardiorespiratory training helps increase the capacity of the energy systems needed at the power level of the OPT model?

A

Stage III

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17
Q

What stage of cardiorespiratory training helps increase the cardio capacity needed for the workout styles in the strength level of the OPT model?

A

Stage II

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18
Q

Which stage of cardiorespiratory training is designed for clients with low-to-moderate cardio fitness levels who are beginning training at higher intensity levels?

A

Stage I

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19
Q

What does FITTE stand for?

A 
Frequency
Intensity
Type
Time
Enjoyment
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20
Q

According to the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines, what is the minimum amount of time per week an individual should engage in physical activity if performed at a moderate-intensity level?

A

150 min

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21
Q

What is the focus in stage II of cardiorespiratory training?

A

Increasing capacity needed for Strength-Level exercise

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22
Q

How long does NASM suggest the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up should last?

A

5-10 minutes

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23
Q

Dynamic stretching uses which concepts to improve soft tissue extensibility?

A

Reciprocal inhibition

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24
Q

Predictable patterns of muscle imbalances is defined as…

A

Postural distortion patterns

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25
Q

When a client is performing the overhead squat assessment from the lateral view, which of the following kinetic chain checkpoints are you observing?

A

Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC) and shoulder complex

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26
Q

The risk of disease increases in proportion to the rise of _____ in both adults and adolescents.

A

BMI

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27
Q

In a client with lower crossed syndrome, what muscles are most likely lengthened (need strengthening)?

A 
Anterior Tibialis
Posterior Tibialis
Glutes
Transversus absominis
Internal Obliques

“GAPTI”

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28
Q

In a client with lower crossed syndrome, what muscles are most likely shortened (tight)?

A 
Gastronemius
Soleus
Hip flexor complex
Adductors
Latissimus dorsi
Erector spinae

“GHALES”

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29
Q

In a client with lower crossed syndrome, what movement is decreased?

A

Hip extension

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30
Q

In a client with lower crossed syndrome, what movement is increased?

A

Lumbar extension

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31
Q

In a client with upper crossed syndrome, what muscles are most likely lengthened (need strengthening)?

A
  • Deep cervical flexors
  • Serratus Anterior
  • Rhomboids
  • Mid-traps
  • Lower trapezius
  • Teres minor
  • Infraspinatus
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32
Q

In a client with upper crossed syndrome, what muscles are most likely shortened (tight)?

A
  • Upper traps
  • Levator scapulae
  • Sternocleidomastoid
  • Scalenes
  • Latissimus dorsi
  • Teres major
  • Subscapularis
  • Pectoralis major/minor
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33
Q

In a client with upper crossed syndrome, what movement is decreased?

A
  • Shoulder extension

- Shoulder external rotation

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34
Q

In a client with upper crossed syndrome, what movement is increased?

A
  • Cervical extension

- Scapular protraction / elevation

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35
Q

In a client with pronation distortion syndrome, what muscles are most likely shortened (tight)?

A
  • Gastronemius
  • Soleus
  • Peroneals
  • Adductors
  • Iliotibial head
  • Hip flexor complex
  • Biceps femoris (short head)

GAP-IS-HB

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36
Q

In a client with pronation distortion syndrome, what muscles are most likely lengthened (need strengthening)?

A
  • Vastus medialis
  • Glutes
  • Hip external rotators
  • Anterior tibialis
  • Posterior tibialis

“V”irginia’s “G”lutes “H”appened “T”o “T”oot

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37
Q

In a client with pronation distortion syndrome, what movement is decreased?

A
  • Ankle dorsiflexion

- Ankle inversion

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38
Q

In a client with pronation distortion syndrome, what movement is increased?

A
  • Knee adduction
  • Knee internal rotation
  • Foot pronation
  • Foot external rotation
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39
Q

While observing an overhead squat assessment, which muscles are probable overactive muscles (need stretching) if a client has an excessive forward lean?

A
  • Hip flexor
  • Abdominals
  • Gastronemius
  • Soleus

HAGS-AGE

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40
Q

While observing an overhead squat assessment, which muscles are probable underactive muscles (need strengthening) if a client has an excessive forward lean?

A
  • Anterior tibialis
  • Glutes Max
  • Erector spinae

HAGS-AGE

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41
Q

While observing an overhead squat assessment, which muscles are probable overactive muscles (need stretching) if a client has a low back arch?

A
  • Hip flexor
  • Erector spinae
  • Lats

HEL-GHI

42
Q

While observing an overhead squat assessment, which muscles are probable underactive muscles (need strengthening) if a client has a low back arch?

A
  • Glutes max
  • Hamstrings
  • Intrinsic core

HEL-GHI

43
Q

While observing an overhead squat assessment, which muscles are probable overactive muscles (need stretching) if a client’s feet turn out?

A
  • Soleus
  • Gastronemius
  • Biceps Femoris (short head)

“S”ilas’ “G”assy “B”utt

44
Q

While observing an overhead squat assessment, which muscles are probable underactive muscles (need strengthening) if a client’s feet turn out?

A
  • Gastrocnemius
  • Gracilis
  • Popliteus
  • Hamstring complex
  • Satorius

“G”eorge “G”oes to “P”eeny “H”igh “S”chool

45
Q

While observing an overhead squat assessment, which muscles are probable overactive muscles (need stretching) if a client’s knees turn inward?

A
  • Adductors
  • Biceps femoris (short head)
  • TFL
  • Vastus lateralis

“A”rmadillos “B”efriend “T”rendy “V”egans

46
Q

While observing an overhead squat assessment, which muscles are probable underactive muscles (need strengthening) if a client’s knees turn inward?

A
  • Glutes
  • Vastus medialis obliques

“G”od is a “V”egetarian

47
Q

While observing an overhead squat assessment, which muscles are probable overactive muscles (need stretching) if a client’s arms fall forward?

A
  • Pectoralis major/minor
  • Teres major
  • Latissimus dorsi

“P”raise “T”he “L”ord - TRR

48
Q

While observing an overhead squat assessment, which muscles are probable underactive muscles (need strengthening) if a client’s arms fall forward?

A
  • Traps (Mid & Lower)
  • Rhomboids
  • Rotator cuff

“P”raise “T”he “L”ord - TRR

49
Q

What is the appropriate method to estimate the peak maximum heart rate for a client?

A

Subtract the client’s age from 220.

50
Q

What is recorded on the palm side of the wrist?

A

Radial pulse

51
Q

What does landing mid-foot accomplish when performing leg-power exercises?

A

Ensures proper force distribution through the foot and lower extremity

52
Q

What time is most effective to have your clients take their resting heart rate?

A

After waking-up

53
Q

What term represents the pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood?

A

Diastolic

54
Q

What is recorded on the neck, just to the side of the larynx?

A

Carotid pulse

55
Q

What is the typical resting heart rate?

A

Between 70 and 80 beats per minute

56
Q

What term represents the pressure within the arterial system after the heart contracts?

A

Systolic

57
Q

The lowest risk for disease lies within a BMI range of…

A

22 to 24.9

58
Q

Scientific evidence indicates that the risk for disease increases with a BMI of…

A

25 or greater

59
Q

What test is designed to estimate an individual’s cardiorespiratory fitness level on the basis of a submaximal bout of stair climbing at a set pace for 3 minutes?

A

YMCA 3-Minute Step Test

60
Q

What test is designed to estimate a cardiovascular starting point by having the client walk 1 mile as fast as he or she can control on a treadmill?

A

Rockport Walk Test

61
Q

What performance assessment measures upper extremity agility and stabilization by assuming push up position and quickly moving the right hand to touch the left hand?

A

Davies Test

62
Q

What performance assessment measures muscular endurance of the upper body, primarily the pushing muscles?

A

Push-Up Test

63
Q

What performance assessment assesses lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control by hopping in each box in a designated pattern, but always returning to the center box?

A

Shark Skill Test

64
Q

What performance assessment is designed to estimate the one-rep maximum on overall upper body strength of the pushing musculature?

A

Upper Extremity Strength Assessment: Bench Press

65
Q

What performance assessment is designed to estimate the one-rep squat maximum and overall lower body strength?

A

Squat

66
Q

Which term is defined as the normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allow the full range of motion of a joint?

A

Flexibility

67
Q

What should a client foam roll to effectively target the piriformis when performing self-myofascial release?

A

Posterior hip

68
Q

When performing self-myofascial release of the adductors, the focus should be on foam rolling what location on the body?

A

The groin region inside the upper thigh

69
Q

A client reports acute soreness and tightness in her calf muscle after a long run. She describes feeling knots in the muscle. Which flexibility technique should the client use first?

A

Self-myofascial release

70
Q

Which type of flexibility training is appropriate at the Stabilization Level (Phase 1) of the OPT model?

A

Corrective flexibility

71
Q

Which type of flexibility training would be appropriate at the Power Level (Phase 5) of the OPT model or before athletic competition?

A

Functional flexibility

72
Q

Which form of stretching should be used to inhibit muscle spindle activity of a tight muscle before and after physical activity?

A

Static stretching

73
Q

What are predictable patterns of muscle imbalanced called?

A

Postural distortion patterns

74
Q

A client is placing pressure on his calf musculature using a foam roll. Which stretching techniques is the client using?

A

Self-myofascial release

75
Q

During a 40-yard dash, the hamstring complex begins to do most of the work for a weakened gluteus maximus. What relationship best describes this action?

A

Synergistic dominance

76
Q

What are alterations in the lengths of muscles surrounding a given joint in which some are overactive (forcing compensation to occur) and others may be underactive (allowing for the compensation to occur)?

A

Muscle imbalance

77
Q

What is the simultaneous contraction of one muscle and the relaxation of its antagonist?

A

Reciprocal inhibition

Ex: To perform elbow flexion during a biceps curl, the biceps actively contract while the triceps (antagonist muscle) relaxes to allow the movement to occur.

78
Q

The neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when inappropriate muscles take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover.

A

Synergist Dominance

79
Q

Repetitive physical activity that moves through the same patterns of motion, placing the same stresses on the body over time.

A

Pattern overload

80
Q

The neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when a joint dysfunction inhibits the muscles that surround the joint.

A

Arthrokinetic Inhibition

81
Q

A biomechanical and neuromuscular dysfunction in which forces at the joint are altered, resulting in abnormal joint movement and proprioception.

A

Arthrokinetic Dysfunction

82
Q

What is designed to increase joint range of motion (ROM), improve muscle imbalances, and correct altered joint motion, and is used in Phase 1 of the OPT model?

A

Corrective flexibility

83
Q

Alan is utilizing self-myofascial release for his corrective flexibility protocols. Where should the foam roll be placed for the latissimus dorsi?

A

Under the arm

84
Q

What term refers to the simultaneous contraction of one muscle and the relaxation of its antagonist?

A

Reciprocal inhibition

85
Q

The process by which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles.

A

Autogenic Inhibition

86
Q

What are proper backside sprint mechanics?

A

Ankle plantarflexion
Knee extension
Hip extension

Triple extension of the ankle, knee and hip in appropriate synchrony.

87
Q

What should be the primary focus when developing SAQ drills for weight loss?

A

Keeping the heart rate appropriately elevated

88
Q

What are proper frontside sprint mechanics?

A

Triple flexion of the ankle, knee and hip in appropriate synchrony.

89
Q

Which of the following percentages of ATP and PC recovery result from a rest interval of 40 seconds between sets of resistance exercise?

a. 0.75
b. 1
c. 0.25
d. 0.5

A

0.75

90
Q

Which training variables should be low when intensity is high?

a. Tempo
b. Frequency
c. Volume
d. Rest

A

Volume

91
Q

Muscular endurance and stabilization is best achieved by performing ___to ___ sets of __ to ___ repetitions at __ to __% of the one-repetition maximum.

A

1 to 3 sets
12 to 20 reps
50 to 70% of 1RM intensity

92
Q

Hypertrophy is best achieved using ___to ___ sets of __ to ___ repetitions at __ to __% of the one-repetition maximum.

A

3 to 5 sets
6 to 12 reps
75 to 85% of 1RM intensity

93
Q

For maximal strength adaptations, ___to ___ sets of __ to ___ repetitions at __ to __% of the one-repetition maximum, are recommended.

A

4 to 6 sets
1 to 5 reps
85 to 100% of 1RM intensity

94
Q

For power adaptations, ___to ___ sets of __ to ___ repetitions at __ to __% of the one-repetition maximum or approximately 10% body weight are recommended.

A

3 to 6 sets
1 to 10 reps
30 to 45% of 1RM intensity

95
Q

Muscular endurance and stabilization is best developed with a slow repetition tempo. One example of a slow tempo would be a ___-second eccentric action, ___-second isometric hold, and ___-second concentric contraction. (__/__/__)

A

4/2/1

96
Q

Hypertrophy is best achieved with a moderate tempo. One example of a moderate tempo would be a ___-second eccentric action, ___-second isometric hold, and ___-second concentric contraction. (__/__/__)

A

2/0/2

97
Q

_____ adaptations are best achieved with a fast or explosive tempo that can be safely controlled.

A

Power adaptations

98
Q

Muscular endurance and stabilization adaptations is best developed with relatively short rest periods often ranging from __to__ seconds.

A

0 - 90 seconds

99
Q

Hypertrophy is best achieved with relatively short rest periods often ranging from __ to __ seconds.

A

0 - 60 seconds

100
Q

Maximal strength adaptations are best achieved with relatively long rest periods, generally ranging from __ to __ minutes.

A

3 to 5 minutes

101
Q

Power adaptations are best achieved with relatively long rest periods, generally ranging from __ to __ minutes.

A

3 to 5 minutes

102
Q

When working with loads exceeding 90 percent of maximum, a client would not exceed a workout volume of?

A

30 reps

NASM - CPT (3 decks)

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