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NASM CPT 6th Edition > Section 2 > Flashcards

Section 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following are core-stabilization exercises designed to improve?

a) Maximal strength of the rectus abdominis and external obliques
b) Rate of force production of the core musculature
c) Neuromuscular efficiency and inerverebral stability
d) Anaerobic capacity of movement systems muscles

A

c) Neuromuscular efficiency and inerverebral stability

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2
Q

The Borg Scale measures what?

A

Rating of percived exertion.

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3
Q

The resistance training system that involves performing a set to failure, then removing a small percentage of the load and continuing with the set.

A

Drop-sets

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4
Q

The process of using agonists and synergists to dynamically move the joint into a range of motion.

A

Active-isolated stretch

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5
Q

A group of consequtive repetitions

A

Set

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6
Q

Factors for appropriate rest intervals

A 
Training experience
Training intensity
Tolerance of short rest periods
Muscle mass
General fitness level
Training goals
Nutrition status
Recoverability
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7
Q

Static and dynamic postural assessments is an example of

A

Objective information

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8
Q

According to the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines, what is the minimum amount of time per week an individual should engage in physical activity if performed at a moderate-intensity level?

a) 100 min
b) 200 min
c) 150 min
d) 250 min

A

c) 150 min

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9
Q

A variation of circuit training that uses different exercises (upper and lower body)for each set through the circuit.

A

Peripheral heart action

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10
Q

When performing an active kneeling hip flexor stretch, internally rotating the rear leg will place greater stretch on which of the following muscles?

a) Adductor brevis
b) Tensor fascia Latae
c) Psoas
d) Pecineaus

A

c) Psoas

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11
Q

Which of the following intensity ranges best describes someone just moving into a zone 3 cardiorespiratory training workout?

a) 75 - 79%
b) 66 - 70%
c) 80 - 85%
d) 86 - 90%

A

d) 86 - 90%

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12
Q

Overhead Squat (Lateral): LPHC low back arches overactive muscles

A

Hip flexor complex, erector spinae, latissimus dorsi

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13
Q

Skinfold measurements (Durnin-Womersley formula) take skin folds at

A

Right side of the body at Bicep, triceps, Subscapular, and iliac crest

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14
Q

Amount of physical training performed within a specificed period.

A

Training volume

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15
Q

When assessing a client’s overhead squat, which of the following is an indication of overactivity in the lateral gastrocnemius?

a) External rotation of the feet
c) Arms fall forward
c) Low back arches
d) Knees move inward

A

a) External rotation of the feet

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16
Q

What is the appropriate percentage to increase after each set when performing an upper-extremity (bench press) strength assessment?

a) 10 - 15%
b) 15 - 20%
c) 1 - 2%
d) 5 - 10%

A

d) 5 - 10%

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17
Q

Performing exercises on the OPT template one after the other, in a vertical manner down the template

A

Vertical loading

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18
Q

Briefly describe the Shark skill test

A

Nine 12 inch boxes
Client stands on one foot with hands on hips
Client hops to each box in a set pattern, hopping back to the center box each time
Record time and add 0.10-second penalty for non-hopping leg touch, hands off hips, foot goes into wrong square, foot does not return to center square.

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19
Q

A client has been performing cardiorespiratory exercise for four weeks. Which of the following physiologic adaptations should the personal trainer expect to observe in the client?

a) Decreased cardiac output
b) Improved ability of muscles to use oxygen
c) Increased resting heart rate
d) Decreased stroke volume

A

b) Improved ability of muscles to use oxygen

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20
Q

Pain or discomfort often felt 24 - 72 hours after intense exercise or unaccustomed physical activity.

A

Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS)

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21
Q

The push-up test assesses

A

Muscular endurance of the upper body

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22
Q

States that soft tissue models along the lines of stress.

A

Davis’s law

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23
Q

What technique uses a co-contraction of global muscles to enhance global trunk stability?

a) Horizontal adduction
b) Bracing
c) Flexion
d) Extension

A

b) Bracing

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24
Q

The time taken to recuperate betwen sets.

A

Rest interval

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25
Q

A maneuvre used to recruit the local core stabilizers by drawing the navel in toward the spine.

A

Drawing-in maneuver

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26
Q

The kinetic chain checkpoints include

A

foot and ankle, knee, lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC), shoulders, and head and cervical spine

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27
Q

The concept of muscle inhibition, caused by a tight agonist, which inhibits its functional antagonist.

A

Altered reciprocal inhibition

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28
Q

Which of the following is a factor of the FITTE principle used to determine exercise training programs for each individual?

a) Fitness
b) Tolerance
c) Efficiency
d) Frequency

A

d) Frequency

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29
Q

Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those that will be included in the more intense exercise that is to follow.

A

Specific warm-up

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30
Q

Essential body fat for women

A

8 - 12%

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31
Q

Diastolic blood pressure represents which of the following?

a) The top number in the blood pressure reading
b) The larger of the two numbers
c) Pressure within the arterial system after the heart contracts
d) Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood

A

d) Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood

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32
Q

What is designed ot increase join range of motion (ROM), improve muscle imbalances, and correct altered joint mothion, and is used in Phase 1 of the OPT model?

a) Relative flexibility
b) Corrective flexibility
c) Functional flexibility
d) Active flexibility

A

b) Corrective flexibility

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33
Q

The resistance training system that involves performing two exercises in rapid succession with minimal rest.

A

Superset

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34
Q

The speed with which each repetition is performed.

A

Repetition tempo

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35
Q

Ruby performs self-myofascial release and static stretching on her client, following which she performs an overhead squat assessment. Which of the following indicates the need for static standing TFL stretch?

a) The client’s knees fall inward
b) The client’s knees bow out.
c) The client’s toes turn out
d) The client leans forward excessively

A

a) The client’s knees fall inward

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36
Q

The single leg squat assessment assesses

A

Dynamic flexibility
Core strength
Balance
Overall neuromuscular control

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37
Q

The pushing assessment assesses

A

Movement efficiency

Potential muscle imbalances

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38
Q

The ability of the circulatory and respiratory systems to supply oxygen-rich blood to skeletal muscles during sustaned physical activity.

A

Cardiorespratory fitness

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39
Q

How many weeks should a client spend during the Stabilzation Phase of core training?

a) 10
b) 8
c) 4
d) 9

A

c) 4

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40
Q

Designed to increase joint ROM, improve muscle imbalances, and correct altered joint motion

A

Corrective flexibility

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41
Q

What effect do beta-blockers have on a client?

a) Decrease blood pressure
b) Blocks mechanoreceptors from overstimulating muscles
c) Increase blood pressure
d) Has no effect

A

a) Decrease blood pressure

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42
Q

Recommended body fat for women over 55

A

25 - 38%

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43
Q

Recommended body fat for women 34 or less

A

20 - 35%

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44
Q

The following muscles make up what core system?
- Quadratus lumorum, psoas major, external oblique, portions of the internal oblique, rectus abdominis, gluteus medius, and tha adductor complex

A

Global Stabilization System

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45
Q

Athletic body fat for women

A

12 - 22%

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46
Q

Overhead Squat (Anterior): Feet turn out overactive muscles

A

Soleus, lateral gastrocnemius, biceps femoris

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47
Q

A term used to describe how the body responds and adapts to stress.

A

General adaptation syndrome (GAS)

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48
Q

Performance assessments is an example of

A

Objective information

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49
Q

An individual’s level of effort, compared with their maximal effort, which is usually expressed as a percentage.

A

Training intensity

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50
Q

The resistance training system that involves performing a series of exercises, on after the other, with minimal rest.

A

Circuit training

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51
Q

The number of strides taken in a given amount of time (or distance).

A

Stride rate

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52
Q

The structures that make up the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC), including the pevic girdle, abdomen, and the hip joint.

A

Core

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53
Q

Recommended body fat for women 35 - 55

A

23 - 38%

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54
Q

Which of the following is recorded on the palm side of the wrist?

a) Brachial pulse
b) Carotid pulse
c) Axillary pulse
d) Radial pulse

A

d) Radial pulse

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55
Q

Which method of cardio should be avoided for a client who demonstrates low-back arching as a movement compensation?

a) Bicycles
b) Group exercise classes
c) Treadmills
d) Elliptical trainers

A

a) Bicycles

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56
Q

Proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis.

A

Frontside mechanics

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57
Q

Increased force output of the synergists for hip extension to compensate for the weakened gluteus maximus is an example of which of the following?

a) Autogenic inhibition
b) Davis’s law
c) Synergistic dominance
d) Wolff’s law

A

c) Synergistic dominance

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58
Q

The active extension of muscle, using force production and momentum, to move the joint through the full available range of motion.

A

Dynamic stretch

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59
Q

The ability of the neuromuscular system to allow agonists, antagonists, and stabilzers to work synergistically to produce, reduce, and dynamically stabilize the entire kinetic chain in all three planes of motion.

A

Neuromuscular efficiency

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60
Q

A purposeful system or plan put together to help an individual achieve a specific goal.

A

Program design

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61
Q

The length of time an individual is engaged in a given actvity.

A

Time

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62
Q

For which of the following are Stage I cardiorespiratory training programs designed?

a) To help improve cardiorespiratory fitness levels in apparently healthy sedentary clients.
b) For clients with low-to-moderate cardiorespiratory fitness levels who are ready to begin training at higher intensity levels
c) To help clients improve anaerobic power and sprinting capabilities
d) For advanced clients who have a moderately high cardiorespiratory fitness level base.

A

a) To help improve cardiorespiratory fitness levels in apparently healthy sedentary clients.

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63
Q

The process of passively taking a muscle to the point of tension and holding the stretch for a minimum of 30 seconds.

A

Statics stretching

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64
Q

One complete movement of a single exercise.

A

Repetition or rep

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65
Q

Pushing Assessment: Head migrates forward overactive muscles

A

Upper trapezius, sternocleidomastoid, levator scapulae

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66
Q

The Shark skill test assesses

A

Lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control

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67
Q

Which of the following requires a client to perform cardiorespiratory exercise at maximal effort while monitoring ventilation response?

a) Karvonen method
b) Peak VO2 method
c) Straight percentage method
d) VO2 rest method

A

b) Peak VO2 method

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68
Q

The YMCA 3-minute step test is used to assess

A

Cardiovascular fitness

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69
Q

How long does NASM suggest the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up should last?

a) 5 - 10 minutes
b) 3 - 5 minutes
c) 0 - 3 minutes
d) 10 - 15 minutes

A

a) 5 - 10 minutes

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70
Q

Which of the following has the objective of uniformly strengthening the deep and superficial muscles that stabilize, align, and move the trunk of the body?

a) Core training
b) Flexibility training
c) Interval training
d) Volume training

A

a) Core training

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71
Q

The initial reaction to a stressor.

A

Alarm reaction

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72
Q

Physiologic assessments is an example of

A

Objective information

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73
Q

The level of demand that a given activity places on the body.

A

Intensity

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74
Q

Which of the following is appropriate tempo for a core exercise when training for hypertrophy?

a) Medium
b) Slow
c) Fast
d) Explosive

A

a) Medium

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75
Q

A routine that trains different body parts on separate days

A

Split-routine

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76
Q

The following muscles make up what core system?

- Latissimus dorsi, hip flexors, hamstring complex, and quadriceps

A

Movement System

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77
Q

Refers to the energy demad placed on the body.

A

Metabolic specificity

78
Q

The bench press test is used to assess

A

Upper extremity strength (one Rep Max)

79
Q

Recommended body fat for men 35 - 55

A

10 - 25%

80
Q

Body composition testing is an example of

A

Objective information

81
Q

Athletic body fat for men

A

5 - 13%

82
Q

Recommended body fat for men over 55

A

10 - 25%

83
Q

Enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force production from high volumes of tension.

A

Muscular hypertrophy

84
Q

The squat test is used to assess

A

Lower extremity strength (one Rep Max)

85
Q

Pronation Distortion Syndrome short muscles include:

A

Gastrocnemius, soleus, peroneals, adductors, iliotibial head, hip flexor complex, and biceps femoris

86
Q

Refers to the speed of contraction and exercise selection.

A

Neuromuscular specificity

87
Q

The point during graded exercise in which ventilation increases disproporonately to oxygen uptake, signifying a switch from predominantly aerobic energy production to anerobic energy production.

A

Ventilatory threshold (T vent)

88
Q

Designed to improve extensibility of soft tissue while in motion.

A

Dynamic flexibility

89
Q

What does FITTE stand for?

A

Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type, and Enjoyment

90
Q

Refers to the weight and movements placed on the body

A

Mechanical specificity

91
Q

Exercises that generate quick, powerful movements involving an explosive concentric muscle contraction preceded by an eccentric muscle action.

A

Plyometric (reactive) training

92
Q

The simultaneous contraction of one muscle and relaxation of its antagonist to allow movement to take place.

A

Reciprocal inhibition

93
Q

Which of the following exercises is the most effective at improving dynamic stabilization, concentric strength, eccentric strength, and neuromuscular efficiency of the entire kinetic chain?

a) Prone iso-abs
b) Dumbbell snatch
c) Reverse crunch
d) Supported dumbbel row

A

c) Reverse crunch

94
Q

When the body is in equilibrium and stationary, meaning no linear or angular movement.

A

Balance

95
Q

Which term refers to the capacity of soft tissue to be elongated or stretched?

a) Extensibility
b) Miscibility
c) Septicity
d) Plasticity

A

a) Extensibility

96
Q

The normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allow the full range of motion of a joint

A

Flexibility

97
Q

Pulling Assessment: LPHC low back arches overactive muscles

A

Hip flexors, erector spinae

98
Q

Briefly describe the Rockport walk test

A

Uses weight, age, gender, time to walk one mile on a treadmill, and heart rate at the end of the walk to calculate a VO2 score

99
Q

The neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when inappropriate muscles take over the function of weak or inhibited prime mover.

A

Synergistic dominance

100
Q

The Davies test assesses

A

Upper extremity agility and stabilzation

101
Q

The process of choosing appropriate exercises for a client’s program

A

Exercise selection

102
Q

Which of the following exercises is most appropriate for the goal of improving neuromuscular efficiency and invertebral stability?

a) Prone iso-abs
b) Incline reverse crunch
c) Back extension
d) Overhead medicine ball throws

A

a) Prone iso-abs

103
Q

The type or mode of physical activity that an individual is engaged in.

A

Type

104
Q

The ability to produce and maintain force produciton for prolonged periods of time.

A

Muscular endurance

105
Q

Rockport walk test is used to assess

A

Cardiovascular fitness

106
Q

The specific outline, created by a fitness professional to meet a client’s goals, that details the form of training, length of time, future changes, and specific exercises to be performed.

A

Training plan

107
Q

Occupation, lifestyle, medical and personal information is an example of

A

Subjective information

108
Q

The ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome an external load.

A

Strength

109
Q

The following muscles make up what core system?

- Transverse abdominis, internal oblique, lumbar multifidus, pelvic floor muscles, and diaphram

A

Local Stabilization System

110
Q

The ability to react and change body position with maximal rate of force production, in all planes of motion and from all body positions, during functional activities.

A

Quickness

111
Q

Single-Leg Squat: Knee moves inward overactive muscles

A

Adductor complex, Biceps femoris, TFL, vastus lateralis

112
Q

Which of the following most accurately describes an individual with a body mass index (BMI) of 29?

a) Normal
b) Underweight
c) Obese
d) Overweight

A

d) Overweight

113
Q

The ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible.

A

Speed

114
Q

Alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint

A

Muscle imbalance

115
Q

Which of the following concepts is demonstrated when a tight psoas decreases the neural drive of the gluteus maximus?

a) Arthrokinetic dysfunction
b) Pattern overload
c) Altered reciprocal inhibition
d) Synergistic dominance

A

c) Altered reciprocal inhibition

116
Q

Designed to improve extensibility of soft tissue and increase neuromuscular efficiency by using reciprocal inhibition.

A

Active flexibility

117
Q

What term describes the act of synergists taking over function for a weak or inhibited prime mover?

a) Altered reciprocal inhibition
b) Synergistic dominance
c) Autogenic inhibition
d) Arthrokinetic dysfunction

A

b) Synergistic dominance

118
Q

Predictable patterns of muscle imbalances

A

Postural distortion patterns

119
Q

When performing self-myofascial release of the adductors, the focus should be on foam rolling what location on the body?

a) The entire inner thigh region
b) The quadriceps along the vastus medialis
c) The groin region inside the upper thigh
d) The short head of the biceps femoris

A

c) The groin region inside the upper thigh

120
Q

Consistently repeating the same pattern of motion, which may place abnormal stresses on the body.

A

Pattern overload

121
Q

The highest rate of oxygen transport and utilization achieved at maximal physical exertion.

A

Maximal oxygen consumption (VO2 Max)

122
Q

Capability to be elongated or stretched

A

Extensibility

123
Q

Generalized training plan that spans one year to show when the client will progress between phases.

A

Annual plan

124
Q

Upper Crossed Syndrome short muscles include:

A

Upper trapezius, Levator scapulae, Sternocleidomastoid, scalenes, latissimus dorsi, teres major, subscapularis, pectoralis major/minor

125
Q

The resistance training system that involves perofrming one set of each exercise.

A

Single-set

126
Q

The overhead squat assessment assesses

A

Dynamic flexibility
Core strength
Balance
Overall neuromuscular control

127
Q

Altered forces at the joint that result in abnormal muscular activity and impaired neuromuscular communication at the joint

A

Arthrokinematic dysfunction

128
Q

The motions of joints in the body

A

Arthrokinematics

129
Q

Pulling Assessment: Should Complex shoulder elevation overactive muscles

A

Upper trapezius, sternocleidomastoid, levator scapulae

130
Q

Pushing Assessment: LPHC low back arches overactive muscles

A

Hip flexors, erector spinae

131
Q

Overhead Squat (Lateral): LPHC excessive forward lean overactive muscles

A

Soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, abdominal complex

132
Q

Lower Crossed Syndrome short muscles include:

A

Gastrocnemius, soleus, hip flexor complex, adductors, latissimus dorsi, erector spinae

133
Q

Which of the following best describes when a person is ready to move to stage II cardiorespiratory training from stage I?

a) Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 30 minutes.
b) Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 10 minutes
c) Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 20 minutes
d) Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 15 minutes

A

a) Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 30 minutes

134
Q

Which of the following is a benefit of integrated cardiorespiratory training?

a) It decreases glucose tolerance.
b) It decreases resting heart rate.
c) It decreases oxidative capacity of muscle.
d) It decreases high-density lipoproteins.

A

b) It decreases resting heart rate.

135
Q

The ability to accelerate, decelerate, stabilize, and change direction quickly while maintaining proper posture.

A

Agility

136
Q

General and medical history is an example of

A

Subjective information

137
Q

Essential body fat for men

A

3 - 5%

138
Q

Lower Crossed Syndrome is characterized by:

A

Anterior tilt to the pelvis

139
Q

The pulling assessment assesses

A

Movement efficiency

Potential muscle imbalances

140
Q

Which of the following should be kept in a neutral position during exercise?

a) Sacral spine
b) Coccygeal spine
c) Cervical spine
d) Lateral spine

A

c) Cervical spine

141
Q

The Borg Scale runs from what to what?

A

6 (no exertion at all) to 20 (maximal exertion).

142
Q

Pulling Assessment: Head protrudes forward overactive muscles

A

Upper trapezius, sternocleidomastoid, levator scapulae

143
Q

A client is placing pressure on his calf musculature using a foam roller. Which of the following stretching techniques is the client using?

a) Static stretching
b) Active-isolated stretching
c) Dynamic stretching
d) Self-myofascial release

A

d) Self-myofascial relase

144
Q

The difference between resting and maximal or peak oxygen consumption.

A

Oxygen uptake reserve (VO2 R)

145
Q

Excessive frequency, volume, or intensity of training, resulting in fatigue (which is also caused by a lack of proper rest and recovery).

A

Overtraining

146
Q

The Durnin-Womersley formula’s four sites of skinfold measurement include which of the following anatomic locations?

a) Chest, midaxillary, abdominal, and thigh
b) Supraspinale, anterior deltoid, thoracolumbar fascia, and hamstring
c) Calf, gluteal, adductor, and oblique
d) Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and iliac crest

A

d) Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and iliac crest

147
Q

Pushing Assessment: Shoulder Complex shoulder elevation overactive muscles

A

Upper trapezius, sternocleidomastoid, levator scapulae

148
Q

Division of a training program into smaller, progressive stages.

A

Periodization

149
Q

Performing all sets of an exercise (or body part) before moving on to the next exercise (or body part)

A

Horizontal loading

150
Q

What is used to increas the extensibility of soft tissues through both autogenic inhibition and reciprocal inhibition?

a) Active stretching
b) Ballistic stretching
c) Static stretching
d) Elastic stretching

A

c) Static stretching

151
Q

The number of training sessions performed during a specified period (usually one week)

A

Training frequency

152
Q

Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the the more intense exercise that is to follow

A

General warm-up

153
Q

Ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time.

A

Rate of force production

154
Q

Overhead Squat (Lateral): Upper Body arms fall forward overactive muscles

A

Latissimus dorsi, teres major, pectoralis major/minor

155
Q

The resistance training system that involves performing a multiple number of sets for each exercise.

A

Multiple-set

156
Q

The process by which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles.

A

Autogenic inhibition

157
Q

Ability of the neuromusclar system to produce the greatest force in the shortest time.

A

Power

158
Q

Occurs when you have contracted both the abdominal, lower back, and buttock muscles at the same time.

A

Bracing

159
Q

Briefly describe the YMCA 3-minute step test

A

Client steps up onto a 12-inch step at a count of 96 steps per minute for three minutes. HR is taken for a minute to get a recovery pulse.

160
Q

Checking the pulse using two fingers on the neck

A

Carotid pulse

161
Q

Important components that specify how each exercise is to be performed.

A

Acute variables

162
Q

During a pushing and pulling assessment, the personal trainer notices that a client demonstrates shoulder elevation. Which of the following muscles are most likely overactive?

a) Deep cervical flexors
b) Mid and lower trapezius
c) Levator scapulae
d) Intrinsic core stabilizers

A

c) Levator scapulae

163
Q

The body increases its functional capacity to adapt to the stressor.

A

Resistance development

164
Q

Proper alignment of the rear leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, hip extension, and neutral pelvis.

A

Backside mechanics

165
Q

The number of training sessions in a given timeframe.

A

Frequency

166
Q

Heart Rate Reserve method or Karvonen method

A

HRR = [(HRmax - HRrest) x desired intensity] + HRrest

167
Q

The tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns.

A

Relative flexibility

168
Q

The timeframe of a workout or length of time spent in one phase of training.

A

Training duration

169
Q

The amount of pleasure derived from performing a physcial activity.

A

Enjoyment

170
Q

Recommended body fat for men 34 or less

A

8 - 22%

171
Q

The resistance training system that involves increasing (or decreasing) weight with each set.

A

Pyramid

172
Q

The distance covered with each stride.

A

Stride length

173
Q

Briefly describe the Davies test

A

Two pieces of tape 36 inches apart
Client in push up position
For 15 seconds take one hand and touch the other
Alternate hands

174
Q

Pronation Distortion Syndrome is characterized by:

A

foot pronation (flat feet) and adducted and internally rotated knees (knock knees)

175
Q

What should a client foam roll to effectively target the periformis when performing self-myofascial release?

a) Axilary region
b) Posterior hip
c) Inner thigh
d) Lateral thigh

A

b) Posterior hip

176
Q

Overhead Squat (Anterior): Knees move inward overactive muscles

A

Adductor complex, Biceps femoris, TFL, vastus lateralis

177
Q

Which of the following is a precaution that should be taken while performing the reverse crunch exercise?

a) Avoid swinging the legs when performing the exercise.
b) Avoid rounding the back when performing the exercise.
c) Avoid a large stride length to protect the low back.
d) Keep the chin tucked while performing the exercise.

A

a) Avoid swinging the legs when performing the exercise.

178
Q

Prolonged stess or stress that is intolerable and will produce exhaustion or distress to the system.

A

Exhaustion

179
Q

To move with efficiency, forces must be dampened (eccentrically), stabilized (isometrically), and then accelerated (concentrically).

A

Integrated performance paradigm

180
Q

Cardiorespiratory assessments is an example of

A

Objective information

181
Q

What are the components of a fitness assessment?

A

Subjective information and objective information.

182
Q

Principle that states the body will adaptto the specific demands that are placed on it.

A

Principle of specificity or specific adaptation to imposed demands (SAID) principle

183
Q

Training plan of specific workouts that spans one week an shows which exercises are required each day of the week.

A

Weekly plan

184
Q

Which of the following cues is appropriate to give a client who will be performing a floor bridge exercise?

a) “Squeeze your glutes.”
b) “Raise hips up as high as possible to activate erector spinae.”
c) “Press your lower back onto the floor.”
d) Lay prone on the floor and retract your shoulder blades.”

A

a) “Squeeze your glutes.”

185
Q

Upper Crossed Syndrome is characterized by:

A

Forward head and rounded shoulders

186
Q

Generalized training plan that spans one month and shows which phase will be required each day of the week.

A

Monthly plan

187
Q

Checking the pulse using two fingers on the wrist

A

Radial pulse

188
Q

The combination of flexibility and the nervous system’s ability to control this range of motion efficiently

A

Dynamic range of motion

189
Q

The ability to move and change direction under various conditions without falling.

A

Dynamic balance

190
Q

A client experiences difficulty in performing the prone iso-abs exercise. Which of the following should be suggested as a regression?

a) Rolling active resistance row
b) Cable rotation
c) Cable chop
d) Quadruped arm and opposite leg raise

A

d) Quadruped arm and opposite leg raise

NASM CPT 6th Edition (2 decks)

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